Search Results

Search found 11020 results on 441 pages for 'pass summit'.

Page 406/441 | < Previous Page | 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413  | Next Page >

• Potential issues using member's "from" address and the "sender" header

  - by Paul Burney

  Hi all, A major component of our application sends email to members on behalf of other members. Currently we set the "From" address to our system address and use a "Reply-to" header with the member's address. The issue is that replies from some email clients (and auto-replies/bounces) don't respect the "Reply-to" header so get sent to our system address, effectively sending them to a black hole. We're considering setting the "From" address to our member's address, and the "Sender" address to our system address. It appears this way would pass SPF and Sender-ID checks. Are there any reasons not to switch to this method? Are there any other potential issues? Thanks in advance, -Paul Here are way more details than you probably need: When the application was first developed, we just changed the "from" address to be that of the sending member as that was the common practice at the time (this was many years ago). We later changed that to have the "from" address be the member's name and our address, i.e., From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> With a "reply-to" header set to the member's address: Reply-To: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> This helped with messages being mis-categorized as spam. As SPF became more popular, we added an additional header that would work in conjunction with our SPF records: Sender: <[email protected]> Things work OK, but it turns out that, in practice, some email clients and most MTA's don't respect the "Reply-To" header. Because of this, many members send messages to [email protected] instead of the desired member. So, I started envisioning various schemes to add data about the sender to the email headers or encode it in the "from" email address so that we could process the response and redirect appropriately. For example, From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> where the string after "messages" is a hash representing Mary Smith's member in our system. Of course, that path could lead to a lot of pain as we need to develop MTA functionality for our system address. I was looking again at the SPF documentation and found this page interesting: http://www.openspf.org/Best_Practices/Webgenerated They show two examples, that of evite.com and that of egreetings.com. Basically, evite.com is doing it the way we're doing it. The egreetings.com example uses the member's from address with an added "Sender" header. So the question is, are there any potential issues with using the egreetings method of the member's from address with a sender header? That would eliminate the replies that bad clients send to the system address. I don't believe that it solves the bounce/vacation/whitelist issue since those often send to the MAIL FROM even if Return Path is specified.

  Read the article

• Displaying a message in a dialog box using AJAX, jQuery, and CakePHP

  - by LainIwakura

  I have a form, and when users submit this form, it should pass the data along to a function using AJAX. Then, the result of that is displayed to the user in a dialog box. I'm using CakePHP (1.3) and jQuery to try and accomplish this but I feel like I'm running into the ground. The form will eventually be used for uploading images with tags, but for now I just want to see a message pop up in the box.. The form: <?php echo $this->Form->create('Image', array('type' => 'file', 'controller' => 'images', 'action' => 'upload', 'method' => 'post')); echo $this->Form->input('Wallpaper', array('type' => 'file')); echo $this->Form->input('Tags'); echo $this->Form->end('Upload!'); ?> The AJAX: $(document).ready(function() { $("#ImageUploadForm").submit(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/images/upload/", data: $(this).serialize(), async: false, success: function(html){ $("#dialog-modal").dialog({ $("#dialog-modal").append("<p>"+html+"</p>"); height: 140, modal: true, buttons: { Ok: function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }) } }); return false; }); }); NOTE: if I put $("#dialog-modal").dialog({ height: 140, modal: true }); OUTSIDE of the $.ajax but inside the $("#ImageUploadForm").submit(function() { and comment out the $.ajax stuff, I WILL see a dialog box pop up and then I have to click it for it to go away. After this, it will not forward to the location /images/upload/ The method that AJAX calls: public function upload() { $this->autoRender = false; if ($this->RequestHandler->isAjax()) { echo 'Hi!'; exit(); } } $this-RequestHandler-isAjax() seems to do either absolutely nothing, or it is always returning false. I have never entered an if statement with that as the condition. Thanks for all the help, if you need more information let me know.

  Read the article

• ExecuteNonQuery on a stored proc causes it to be deleted

  - by FinancialRadDeveloper

  This is a strange one. I have a Dev SQL Server which has the stored proc on it, and the same stored proc when used with the same code on the UAT DB causes it to delete itself! Has anyone heard of this behaviour? SQL Code: -- Check if user is registered with the system IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.sp_is_valid_user') IS NOT NULL BEGIN DROP PROCEDURE dbo.sp_is_valid_user IF OBJECT_ID('dbo.sp_is_valid_user') IS NOT NULL PRINT '<<< FAILED DROPPING PROCEDURE dbo.sp_is_valid_user >>>' ELSE PRINT '<<< DROPPED PROCEDURE dbo.sp_is_valid_user >>>' END go create procedure dbo.sp_is_valid_user @username as varchar(20), @isvalid as int OUTPUT AS BEGIN declare @tmpuser as varchar(20) select @tmpuser = username from CPUserData where username = @username if @tmpuser = @username BEGIN select @isvalid = 1 END else BEGIN select @isvalid = 0 END END GO Usage example DECLARE @isvalid int exec dbo.sp_is_valid_user 'username', @isvalid OUTPUT SELECT valid = @isvalid The usage example work all day... when I access it via C# it deletes itself in the UAT SQL DB but not the Dev one!! C# Code: public bool IsValidUser(string sUsername, ref string sErrMsg) { string sDBConn = ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["StoredProcDBConnection"]; SqlCommand sqlcmd = new SqlCommand(); SqlDataAdapter sqlAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter(); try { SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(sDBConn); sqlcmd.Connection = conn; conn.Open(); sqlcmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; sqlcmd.CommandText = "sp_is_valid_user"; // params to pass in sqlcmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@username", sUsername); // param for checking success passed back out sqlcmd.Parameters.Add("@isvalid", SqlDbType.Int); sqlcmd.Parameters["@isvalid"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; sqlcmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); int nIsValid = (int)sqlcmd.Parameters["@isvalid"].Value; if (nIsValid == 1) { conn.Close(); sErrMsg = "User Valid"; return true; } else { conn.Close(); sErrMsg = "Username : " + sUsername + " not found."; return false; } } catch (Exception e) { sErrMsg = "Error :" + e.Source + " msg: " + e.Message; return false; } }

  Read the article

• NSDocument Subclass not closed by NSWindowController?

  - by Nathan Douglas

  Okay, I'm fairly new to Cocoa and Objective-C, and to OOP in general. As background, I'm working on an extensible editor that stores the user's documents in a package. This of course required some "fun" to get around some issues with NSFileWrapper (i.e. a somewhat sneaky writing and loading process to avoid making NSFileWrappers for every single document within the bundle). The solution I arrived at was to essentially treat my NSDocument subclass as just a shell -- use it to make the folder for the bundle, and then pass off writing the actual content of the document to other methods. Unfortunately, at some point I seem to have completely screwed the pooch. I don't know how this happened, but closing the document window no longer releases the document. The document object doesn't seem to receive a "close" message -- or any related messages -- even though the window closes successfully. The end result is that if I start my app, create a new document, save it, then close it, and try to reopen it, the document window never appears. With some creative subclassing and NSLogging, I managed to figure out that the document object was still in memory, and still attached to the NSDocumentController instance, and so trying to open the document never got past the NSDocumentController's "hmm, currently have that one open" check. I did have an NSWindowController and NSDocumentController instance, but I've purged them from my project completely. I've overridden nearly every method for NSDocument trying to find out where the issue is. So far as I know, my Interface Builder bindings are all correct -- "Close" in the main menu is attached to "performClose:" of the First Responder, etc, and I've tried with fresh unsullied MainMenu and Document xibs as well. I thought that it might be something strange with my bundle writing code, so I basically deleted it all and started from scratch, but that didn't seem to work. I took out my init method overrides, and that didn't help either. I don't have the source of any simple document apps here, so I didn't try the next logical step (to substitute known-working code for mine in the readfromurl and writetourl methods). I've had this problem for about sixteen hours of uninterrupted troubleshooting now, and needless to say, I'm at the end of my rope. If I can't figure it out, I guess I'm going to try the project from scratch with a lot more code and intensity based around the bundle-document mess. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• How to make Flash 'play well with others'?

  - by Sensei James

  What up fam. So this isn't a question asking about memory management schemes; for those of you who may not know, the Flash Virtual Machine relies on garbage collection by using reference counting and mark and sweep (for good coverage of these topics, check out Grant Skinner's article and presentation). And yes, Flash also provides the "delete" operator, which can (unfortunately only) be used to remove the properties of dynamic objects. What I want to know is how to make it so that Flash programs don't continue to consume CPU and memory while running in the background (save loading content or communicating remotely, for example). The motivation for this question comes in part from Apple's ban on cross compiled applications (in its SDK 4) on the grounds that they do not behave as predicted with the multitasking feature central to iPhone OS 4. My intention is not only to make Flash programs that will 'pass muster' as far as multitasking in iPhone OS 4, but also to simply make better (behaving) Flash programs. Put another way, how might a Flash application mimic the multitasking feature of iPhone OS 4? Does the Flash API provide the means for a developer to put their applications to 'sleep' while other programs run, and then to 'awaken' them just as quickly? In our own program, we might do something as crude as detecting when the user has been idle (no mouse motion or key press) for (say) four seconds: var idle_id:uint = setInterval(4000, pause_program); var current_movie_clip:MovieClip; var current_frame:uint; ... // on Mouse move or key press... clearInterval(idle_id); idle_id = setInterval(4000, pause_program); ... function pause_program():void { current_movie_clip = event.target as MovieClip; current_frame = current_movie_clip.currentFrame; MovieClip(root).gotoAndStop("program_pause_screen"); } (on the program pause screen) resume_button.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, resume_program); function resume_program(event:MouseEvent) { current_movie_clip.gotoAndPlay(current_frame); } If that's the right idea, what's the best way to detect that an application should be shelved? And, more importantly, is it possible for Flash Player to detect that some of its running programs are idle, and to similarly shelve them until the user performs an action to resume them? (Please feel free to answer as much or as little of the many questions I've posed.)

  Read the article

• Help with Linq Expression - INotifyPropertyChanged

  - by Stephen Patten

  Hello, I'm reading the source code from the latest Prism 4 drop and am interested in solving this problem. There is a base class for the ViewModels that implements INotifyPropertyChanged and INotifyDataErrorInfo and provides some refactoring friendly change notification. protected void RaisePropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<T>> propertyExpresssion) { var propertyName = ExtractPropertyName(propertyExpresssion); this.RaisePropertyChanged(propertyName); } private string ExtractPropertyName<T>(Expression<Func<T>> propertyExpresssion) { if (propertyExpresssion == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("propertyExpression"); } var memberExpression = propertyExpresssion.Body as MemberExpression; if (memberExpression == null) { throw new ArgumentException("The expression is not a member access expression.", "propertyExpression"); } var property = memberExpression.Member as PropertyInfo; if (property == null) { throw new ArgumentException("The member access expression does not access property.","propertyExpression"); } if (!property.DeclaringType.IsAssignableFrom(this.GetType())) { throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property belongs to a different type.", "propertyExpression"); } var getMethod = property.GetGetMethod(true); if (getMethod == null) { // this shouldn't happen - the expression would reject the property before reaching this far throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property does not have a get method.", "propertyExpression"); } if (getMethod.IsStatic) { throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property is a static property.", "propertyExpression"); } return memberExpression.Member.Name; } and as an example of it's usage private void RetrieveNewQuestionnaire() { this.Questions.Clear(); var template = this.questionnaireService.GetQuestionnaireTemplate(); this.questionnaire = new Questionnaire(template); foreach (var question in this.questionnaire.Questions) { this.Questions.Add(this.CreateQuestionViewModel(question)); } this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.Name); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.UnansweredQuestions); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.TotalQuestions); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.CanSubmit); } My question is this. What would it take to pass an array of the property names to an overloaded method (RaisePropertyChanged) and condense this last bit of code from 4 lines to 1? Thank you, Stephen

  Read the article

• Why differs floating-point precision in C# when separated by parantheses and when separated by state

  - by Andreas Larsen

  I am aware of how floating point precision works in the regular cases, but I stumbled on an odd situation in my C# code. Why aren't result1 and result2 the exact same floating point value here? const float A; // Arbitrary value const float B; // Arbitrary value float result1 = (A*B)*dt; float result2 = (A*B); result2 *= dt; From this page I figured float arithmetic was left-associative and that this means values are evaluated and calculated in a left-to-right manner. The full source code involves XNA's Quaternions. I don't think it's relevant what my constants are and what the VectorHelper.AddPitchRollYaw() does. The test passes just fine if I calculate the delta pitch/roll/yaw angles in the same manner, but as the code is below it does not pass: X Expected: 0.275153548f But was: 0.275153786f [TestFixture] internal class QuaternionPrecisionTest { [Test] public void Test() { JoystickInput input; input.Pitch = 0.312312432f; input.Roll = 0.512312432f; input.Yaw = 0.912312432f; const float dt = 0.017001f; float pitchRate = input.Pitch * PhysicsConstants.MaxPitchRate; float rollRate = input.Roll * PhysicsConstants.MaxRollRate; float yawRate = input.Yaw * PhysicsConstants.MaxYawRate; Quaternion orient1 = Quaternion.Identity; Quaternion orient2 = Quaternion.Identity; for (int i = 0; i < 10000; i++) { float deltaPitch = (input.Pitch * PhysicsConstants.MaxPitchRate) * dt; float deltaRoll = (input.Roll * PhysicsConstants.MaxRollRate) * dt; float deltaYaw = (input.Yaw * PhysicsConstants.MaxYawRate) * dt; // Add deltas of pitch, roll and yaw to the rotation matrix orient1 = VectorHelper.AddPitchRollYaw( orient1, deltaPitch, deltaRoll, deltaYaw); deltaPitch = pitchRate * dt; deltaRoll = rollRate * dt; deltaYaw = yawRate * dt; orient2 = VectorHelper.AddPitchRollYaw( orient2, deltaPitch, deltaRoll, deltaYaw); } Assert.AreEqual(orient1.X, orient2.X, "X"); Assert.AreEqual(orient1.Y, orient2.Y, "Y"); Assert.AreEqual(orient1.Z, orient2.Z, "Z"); Assert.AreEqual(orient1.W, orient2.W, "W"); } } Granted, the error is small and only presents itself after a large number of iterations, but it has caused me some great headackes.

  Read the article

• How to use second level cache for lazy loaded collections in Hibernate?

  - by Chandru

  Let's say I have two entities, Employee and Skill. Every employee has a set of skills. Now when I load the skills lazily through the Employee instances the cache is not used for skills in different instances of Employee. Let's Consider the following data set. Employee - 1 : Java, PHP Employee - 2 : Java, PHP When I load Employee - 2 after Employee - 1, I do not want hibernate to hit the database to get the skills and instead use the Skill instances already available in cache. Is this possible? If so how? Hibernate Configuration <session-factory> <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class">com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">pass</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.url">jdbc:mysql://localhost/cache</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">root</property> <property name="hibernate.dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLInnoDBDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">true</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.EhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.show_sql">true</property> <mapping class="org.cache.models.Employee" /> <mapping class="org.cache.models.Skill" /> </session-factory> The Entities with imports, getters and setters Removed @Entity @Table(name = "employee") @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE) public class Employee { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int id; private String name; public Employee() { } @ManyToMany @JoinTable(name = "employee_skills", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "employee_id"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "skill_id")) @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE) private List<Skill> skills; } @Entity @Table(name = "skill") @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.READ_WRITE) public class Skill { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int id; private String name; } SQL for Loading the Second Employee and his Skills Hibernate: select employee0_.id as id0_0_, employee0_.name as name0_0_ from employee employee0_ where employee0_.id=? Hibernate: select skills0_.employee_id as employee1_1_, skills0_.skill_id as skill2_1_, skill1_.id as id1_0_, skill1_.name as name1_0_ from employee_skills skills0_ left outer join skill skill1_ on skills0_.skill_id=skill1_.id where skills0_.employee_id=? In that I specifically want to avoid the second query as the first one is unavoidable anyway.

  Read the article

• Cannot populate form with ajax and populate jquery plugin

  - by Azriel_

  I'm trying to populate a form with jquery's populate plugin, but using $.ajax The idea is to retrieve data from my database according to the id in the links (ex of link: get_result_edit.php?id=34), reformulate it to json, return it to my page and fill up the form up with the populate plugin. But somehow i cannot get it to work. Any ideas: here's the code: $('a').click(function(){ $('#updatediv').hide('slow'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "get_result_edit.php", success: function(data) { var $response=$(data); $('#form1').populate($response); } }); $('#updatediv').fadeIn('slow'); return false; whilst the php file states as follow: <?php $conn = new mysqli('localhost', 'XXXX', 'XXXXX', 'XXXXX'); @$query = 'Select * FROM news WHERE id ="'.$_GET['id'].'"'; $stmt = $conn->query($query) or die ($mysql->error()); if ($stmt) { $results = $stmt->fetch_object(); // get database data $json = json_encode($results); // convert to JSON format echo $json; } ?> Now first thing is that the mysql returns a null in this way: is there something wrong with he declaration of the sql statement in the $_GET part? Second is that even if i put a specific record to bring up, populate doesn't populate. Update: I changed the populate library with the one called "PHP jQuery helper functions" and the difference is that finally it says something. finally i get an error saying NO SUCH ELEMENT AS i wen into the library to have a look and up comes the following function function populateFormElement(form, name, value) { // check that the named element exists in the form var name = name; // handle non-php naming var element = form[name]; if(element == undefined) { debug('No such element as ' + name); return false; } // debug options if(options.debug) { _populate.elements.push(element); } } Now looking at it one can see that it should print out also the name, but its not printing it out. so i'm guessing that retrieving the name form the json is not working correctly. Link is at http://www.ocdmonline.org/michael/edit%5Fnews.php with username: Testing and pass:test123 Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Problem in retrieving the ini file through web page

  - by MalarN

  Hi All, I am using an .ini file to store some values and retrieve values from it using the iniparser. When I give (hardcode) the query and retrive the value through the command line, I am able to retrive the ini file and do some operation. But when I pass the query through http, then I am getting an error (file not found), i.e., the ini file couldn't be loaded. Command line : int main(void) { printf("Content-type: text/html; charset=utf-8\n\n"); char* data = "/cgi-bin/set.cgi?pname=x&value=700&url=http://IP/home.html"; //perform some operation } Through http: .html function SetValue(id) { var val; var URL = window.location.href; if(id =="set") { document.location = "/cgi-bin/set.cgi?pname="+rwparams+"&value="+val+"&url="+URL; } } .c int * Value(char* pname) { dictionary * ini ; char *key1 = NULL; char *key2 =NULL; int i =0; int val; ini = iniparser_load("file.ini"); if(ini != NULL) { //key for fetching the value key1 = (char*)malloc(sizeof(char)*50); if(key1 != NULL) { strcpy(key1,"ValueList:"); key2 = (char*)malloc(sizeof(char)*50); if(key2 != NULL) { strcpy(key2,pname); strcat(key1,key2); val = iniparser_getint(ini, key1, -1); if(-1 == val || 0 > val) { return 0; } } else { //error free(key1); return; } } else { printf("ERROR : Memory Allocation Failure "); return; } } else { printf("ERROR : .ini File Missing"); return; } iniparser_freedict(ini); free(key1); free(key2); return (int *)val; } void get_Value(char* pname,char* value) { int result =0; result = Value(pname); printf("Result : %d",result); } int main(void) { printf("Content-type: text/html; charset=utf-8\n\n"); char* data = getenv("QUERY_STRING"); //char* data = "/cgi-bin/set.cgi?pname=x&value=700&url=http://10.50.25.40/home.html"; //Parse to get the values seperately as parameter name, parameter value, url //Calling get_Value method to set the value get_Value(final_para,final_val); } * file.ini * [ValueList] x = 100; y = 70; When the request is sent through html page, I am always getting .ini file missing. If directly the request is sent from C file them it works fine. How to resolve this?

  Read the article

• MVC 2 AntiForgeryToken - Why symmetric encryption + IPrinciple?

  - by Brad R

  We recently updated our solution to MVC 2, and this has updated the way that the AntiForgeryToken works. Unfortunately this does not fit with our AJAX framework any more. The problem is that MVC 2 now uses symmetric encryption to encode some properties about the user, including the user's Name property (from IPrincipal). We are able to securely register a new user using AJAX, after which subsequent AJAX calls will be invalid as the anti forgery token will change when the user has been granted a new principal. There are also other cases when this may happen, such as a user updating their name etc. My main question is why does MVC 2 even bother using symmetric encryption? Any then why does it care about the user name property on the principal? If my understanding is correct then any random shared secret will do. The basic principle is that the user will be sent a cookie with some specific data (HttpOnly!). This cookie is then required to match a form variable sent back with each request that may have side effects (POST's usually). Since this is only meant to protect from cross site attacks it is easy to craft up a response that would easily pass the test, but only if you had full access to the cookie. Since a cross site attacker is not going to have access to your user cookies you are protected. By using symmetric encryption, what is the advantage in checking the contents of the cookie? That is, if I already have sent an HttpOnly cookie the attacker cannot override it (unless a browser has a major security issue), so why do I then need to check it again? After having a think about it it appears to be one of those 'added layer of security' cases - but if your first line of defence has fallen (HttpOnly) then the attacker is going to get past the second layer anyway as they have full access to the users cookie collection, and could just impersonate them directly, instead of using an indirect XSS/CSRF attack. Of course I could be missing a major issue, but I haven't found it yet. If there are some obvious or subtle issues at play here then I would like to be aware of them.

  Read the article

• objective-c default init method for class?

  - by Alex

  Hello, I have two differing methods for initializing my objective-c class. One is the default, and one takes a configuration parameter. Now, I'm pretty green when it comes to objective-c, but I've implemented these methods and I'm wondering if there's a better (more correct/in good style) way to handle initialization than the way I have done it. Meaning, did I write these initialization functions in accordance with standards and good style? It just doesn't feel right to check for the existence of selfPtr and then return based on that. Below are my class header and implementation files. Also, if you spot anything else that is wrong or evil, please let me know. I am a C++/Javascript developer who is learning objective-c as hobby and would appreciate any tips that you could offer. #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> // class for raising events and parsing returned directives @interface awesome : NSObject { // silence is golden. Actually properties are golden. Hence this emptiness. } // properties @property (retain) SBJsonParser* parser; @property (retain) NSString* eventDomain; @property (retain) NSString* appid // constructors -(id) init; -(id) initWithAppId:(id) input; // destructor -(void) dealloc; @end #import "awesome.h" #import "JSON.h" @implementation awesome - (id) init { if (self = [super init]) { // if init is called directly, just pass nil to AppId contructor variant id selfPtr = [self initWithAppId:nil]; } if (selfPtr) { return selfPtr; } else { return self; } } - (id) initWithAppId:(id) input { if (self = [super init]) { if (input = nil) { input = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"a369x123"]; } [self setAppid:input]; [self setEventDomain:[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@"desktop"]]; } return self; } // property synthesis @synthesize parser; @synthesize appid; @synthesize eventDomain; // destructor - (void) dealloc { self.parser = nil; self.appid = nil; self.eventDomain = nil; [super dealloc]; } @end Thanks!

  Read the article

• Have problems designing input and output for a calculator app

  - by zoul

  Hello! I am writing a button calculator. I have the code split into model, view and a controller. The model knows nothing about formatting, it is only concerned with numbers. All formatting is done in the view. The model gets its input as keypresses, each keypress is a part of an enum: typedef enum { kButtonUnknown = 0, kButtonMemoryClear = 100, kButtonMemoryPlus = 112, kButtonMemoryMinus = 109, kButtonMemoryRecall = 114, kButtonClear = 99, … }; When the user presses a button (say 1), the model receives a button code (kButtonNum1), adds the corresponding number to a string input buffer ("1") and updates the numeric output value (1.0). The controller then passes the numeric output value to the view that formats it (1). This is all plain, simple and clean, but does not really work. The problem is that when user enters a part of a number (say 0.00, going to enter 0.001), the input does not survive the way through model to view and the display says 0 instead of 0.00. I know why this happens ("0.00"::string parses to 0::double and that gets formatted as 0). What I don’t know is how to design the calculator so that the code stays clean and simple and the numbers will show up on screen exactly as the user types them. I’ve already come with some kind of solution, but that’s essentially a hack and breaks the beautiful and simple flow from the calculator model to the display. Ideas? Current solution keeps track of the calculator state. If the calculator is building a number, I take the calculator input buffer (a string) and directly set the display contents (also a string). Otherwise I take the proper path, ie. take the numeric calculator output, pass it to the view as a double and the view uses its internal formatter to create a string for the display. Example input: input | display | mode ------+---------+------------ 0 | 0 | from string 0. | 0. | from string 0.0 | 0.0 | from string 0.0+ | 0 | from number This is ugly. (1) The calculator has to expose its input buffer and state. (2) The view has to expose its display and allow setting its contents directly using a string. (3) I have to duplicate some of the formatting code to format the string I got from the calculator input buffer. If user enters 12345.000, I have to display 12,345.000 and therefore I’ve got to have a commification code for strings. Yuck.

  Read the article

• IE and Content-disposition inline vs. extension-token

  - by pinkgothic

  Preamble So IE does Mime-Type sniffing. That part's old news. Suggestions of how to combat it tend to be along the lines of 'supply a content-type IE trusts' (i.e. anything that isn't text/plain or application/octet-stream) or 'add extraneous data at the start of the file that is definitely of the type you're serving'. Now, I'm working on an application that has to allow message attachments (like in e-mails), and we want to close up XSS vectors. IE's mime sniffing is one of those vectors - a text/plain file with html content will trigger as html. Recoding isn't an option at this point, changing the attachments the user has provided can only happen if there is absolutely no doubt about the maliciousness of the file - and someone might want to send HTML as text. Now, Microsoft's MSDN article implies the situation might be easier to fix than advertised: If Internet Explorer knows the Content-Type specified and there is no Content-Disposition data, Internet Explorer performs a "MIME sniff," [...] Great! Except I don't have IE nor current means to reliably install it (I realise this is a fairly sad state for a webdeveloper to be in, I hope to fix this soon) and this is grey theory that I can't quite seem to get confirmed one way or the other. Local sources say that line is hogwash - IE will mime sniff anything that is Content-Disposition: inline / <default> and not specific enough for its tastes in -Type. But what about x-* ('extension-token' in the RFC)? Trying to google for how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token> hasn't yielded anything (though I may just be doing it wrong, my understanding of Google is seriously slipping lately). I found one question that looked promising, but turned out to be a misunderstanding on side of the thread author, meaning that the train of thought was never actually addressed there. Question(s) Does IE really Mime sniff if you expressly pass Content-Disposition: inline? If so: Does anyone here know how browsers handle Content-Disposition: <extension-token>? If they do this in a way that is for my purposes benign, by presuming it to be synonymous with the default (effectively 'inline', though I hear it's not defined anywhere?), is it specific enough for IE not to Mime sniff? Or am I actually shooting myself in the foot by thinking of pursuing this avenue?

  Read the article

• VBS Script Help.

  - by MalsiaPro

  I managed to get this code from you guys here, thanks so much with a collegue of mine, I ran this code a few times and it seems to work but stops after a while due to protected files such as system files, "Permission Denied" and then the script just stops, is there a way to modify the code below so that it can handle such protected files or whether it can pass them. Any advice or help is appreciated. Set objFS=CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") WScript.Echo Chr(34) & "Full Path" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Size" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Date modified" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Date Created" &_ Chr(34) & "," & Chr(34) & "File Date Accessed" & Chr(34) Set objArgs = WScript.Arguments strFolder = objArgs(0) Set objFolder = objFS.GetFolder(strFolder) Go (objFolder) Sub Go(objDIR) If objDIR <> "\System Volume Information" Then For Each eFolder in objDIR.SubFolders Go eFolder Next End If For Each strFile In objDIR.Files WScript.Echo Chr(34) & strFile.Path & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.Size & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.DateLastModified & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.DateCreated & Chr(34) & "," &_ Chr(34) & strFile.DateLastAccessed & Chr(34) Next End Sub Then call it from the command line like this. c:\test> cscript //nologo myscript.vbs "c:\" > "C:\test\Output.csv" Thank you :)

  Read the article

• Connected host failed to respond (internal NAT address)

  - by MostRandom

  I'm writing my first C# web application that connects to an XML based service. It requires that I present a certificate and feed the XML stream. It seems to authenticate properly but then it gives the following error: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 10.1.10.4:3128 The funny thing is that I'm not on a proxy or anything like that. I'm connecting directly to the internet. At one point I we did use a proxy that with internal NAT address. So my question is: Does Visual Studio have some sort of default proxy setting that I need to change? This IP is no longer used for anything, so I know that I don't need to use any proxy authentication code. using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Net; using System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; namespace WebApplication1 { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Uri requestURI = new Uri("*site omitted*"); //Create the Request Object HttpWebRequest pageRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestURI); //After installing the cert on the server export a client cert to the working directory as Deluxe.cer string certFile = "*certificate omitted*"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile(certFile); //Pull in your Data, if it is from an external xml as below or create an xml string with variables if a dynamic post is required. string xmlPath = "*XML omitted*"; System.Xml.XmlDocument passXML = new System.Xml.XmlDocument(); passXML.Load(xmlPath); //XML String with the data needed to pass string postData = passXML.OuterXml; //Set the Request Object parameters pageRequest.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; pageRequest.Method = "POST"; pageRequest.AllowWriteStreamBuffering = false; pageRequest.AllowAutoRedirect = false; pageRequest.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); postData = "xml_data=" + Server.UrlEncode(postData); pageRequest.ContentLength = postData.Length; //Create the Post Stream Object System.IO.StreamWriter postStream = new System.IO.StreamWriter(pageRequest.GetRequestStream()); //Write the data to the post stream postStream.Write(postData); postStream.Flush(); postStream.Close(); //Set the Response Object HttpWebResponse postResponse = (HttpWebResponse)pageRequest.GetResponse();

  Read the article

• get GET parameters in JSF's managed bean

  - by mykola

  Hello! Can someone tell me how to catch parameters passed from URI in JSF's managed bean? I have a navigation menu all nodes of which link to some navigation case. And i have two similar items there: Acquiring products and Issuing products. They have the same page but one different parameter: productType. I try to set it just by adding it to URL in "to-view-id" element like this: <navigation-case> <from-outcome>acquiring|products</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/pages/products/list_products.jspx?productType=acquiring</to-view-id> </navigation-case> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>issuing|products</from-outcome> <to-view-id>/pages/products/list_products.jspx?productType=issuing</to-view-id> </navigation-case> But i can't get this "productType" from my managed bean. I tried to get it through FacesContext like this: FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequestParameterMap().get("productType") And like this: HttpServletRequest request = (HttpServletRequest)FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest(); request.getParameter("productType"); And i tried to include it as a parameter of managed bean in faces-config.xml and then getting it through ordinary setter: <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>MbProducts</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>my.package.product.MbProducts</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>request</managed-bean-scope> <managed-property> <property-name>productType</property-name> <value>#{param.productType}</value> </managed-property> </managed-bean> ... public class MbProducts { ... public void setProductType(String productType) { this.productType = productType; } ... } But neither of these ways have helped me. All of them returned null. How can i get this productType? Or how can i pass it some other way?

  Read the article

• Hosting a WCF Service Lib through a Windows service get a System.InvalidOperationException: attempti

  - by JohnL

  I have a WCF Service Library containing five service contracts. The library is hosted through a Windows Service. Most if not all my configuration for the WCF Library is declaritive. The only thing I am doing in code for configuration is to pass the type of the class implementing the service contracts into ServiceHost. I then call Open on each of the services during the Windows Service OnStart event. Here is the error message I get: Service cannot be started. System.InvalidOperationException: Service '[Fubu.Conversion.Service1' has zero application (non-infrastructure) endpoints. This might be because no configuration file was found for your application, or because no service element matching the service name could be found in the configuration file, or because no endpoints were defined in the service element. at System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.EnsureThereAreNonMexEndpoints(ServiceDescription description) at System.ServiceModel.Description.DispatcherBuilder.InitializeServiceHost(ServiceDescription description, ServiceHostBase serviceHost) at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.InitializeRuntime() at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnBeginOpen() at System.ServiceModel.ServiceHostBase.OnOpen(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open(TimeSpan timeout) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.CommunicationObject.Open() at Fubu.RemotingHost.RemotingHost.StartServ... protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { // Uncomment to debug this properly //System.Diagnostics.Debugger.Break(); StartService1(); StartService2(); StartService3(); StartService4(); StartService5(); } Each of the above simply do the following: private void StartSecurityService() { host = new ServiceHost(typeof(Service1)); host.Open(); } Service Lib app.congfig summary <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="DefaultServiceBehavior" name="Fubu.Conversion.Service1"> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="TCPBindingConfig" name="Service1" bindingName="TCPEndPoint" contract="Fubu.Conversion.IService1"> <identity> <dns value="localhost" /> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="" name="mexSecurity" bindingName="TcpMetaData" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:8025/Fubu/Conversion/Service1/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> ... Contract is set up as follows: namespace Fubu.Conversion.Service1 { [ServiceContract(Namespace = "net.tcp://localhost:8025/Fubu")] public interface IService1 { I have looked "high and low" for a solution without any luck. Is the answer obvious? The solution to this does not appear to be. Thanks

  Read the article

• Model-View-Controller in JavaScript

  - by Casey Hope

  tl;dr: How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a clean way? I'm trying to implement MVC in JavaScript. I have googled and reorganized with my code countless times but have not found a suitable solution. (The code just doesn't "feel right".) Here's how I'm going about it right now. It's incredibly complicated and is a pain to work with (but still better than the pile of code I had before). It has ugly workarounds that sort of defeat the purpose of MVC. And behold, the mess, if you're really brave: // Create a "main model" var main = Model0(); function Model0() { // Create an associated view and store its methods in "view" var view = View0(); // Create a submodel and pass it a function // that will "subviewify" the submodel's view var model1 = Model1(function (subview) { view.subviewify(subview); }); // Return model methods that can be used by // the controller (the onchange handlers) return { 'updateModel1': function (newValue) { model1.update(newValue); } }; } function Model1(makeSubView) { var info = ''; // Make an associated view and attach the view // to the parent view using the passed function var view = View1(); makeSubView(view.__view); // Dirty dirty // Return model methods that can be used by // the parent model (and so the controller) return { 'update': function (newValue) { info = newValue; // Notify the view of the new information view.events.value(info); } }; } function View0() { var thing = document.getElementById('theDiv'); var input = document.getElementById('theInput'); // This is the "controller", bear with me input.onchange = function () { // Ugly, uses a global to contact the model main.updateModel1(this.value); }; return { 'events': {}, // Adds a subview to this view. 'subviewify': function (subview) { thing.appendChild(subview); } }; } // This is a subview. function View1() { var element = document.createElement('div'); return { 'events': { // When the value changes this is // called so the view can be updated 'value': function (newValue) { element.innerHTML = newValue; } }, // ..Expose the DOM representation of the subview // so it can be attached to a parent view '__view': element }; } How does one implement MVC in JavaScript in a cleaner way? How can I improve this system? Or is this the completely wrong way to go, should I follow another pattern?

  Read the article

• PHP will not delete from MySQL

  - by Michal Kopanski

  For some reason, JavaScript/PHP wont delete my data from MySQL! Here is the rundown of the problem. I have an array that displays all my MySQL entries in a nice format, with a button to delete the entry for each one individually. It looks like this: <?php include("login.php"); //connection to the database $dbhandle = mysql_connect($hostname, $username, $password) or die("<br/><h1>Unable to connect to MySQL, please contact support at [email protected]</h1>"); //select a database to work with $selected = mysql_select_db($dbname, $dbhandle) or die("Could not select database."); //execute the SQL query and return records if (!$result = mysql_query("SELECT `id`, `url` FROM `videos`")) echo 'mysql error: '.mysql_error(); //fetch tha data from the database while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { ?> <div class="video"><a class="<?php echo $row{'id'}; ?>" href="http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=<?php echo $row{'url'}; ?>">http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=<?php echo $row{'url'}; ?></a><a class="del" href="javascript:confirmation(<? echo $row['id']; ?>)">delete</a></div> <?php } //close the connection mysql_close($dbhandle); ?> The delete button has an href of javascript:confirmation(<? echo $row['id']; ?>) , so once you click on delete, it runs this: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function confirmation(ID) { var answer = confirm("Are you sure you want to delete this video?") if (answer){ alert("Entry Deleted") window.location = "delete.php?id="+ID; } else{ alert("No action taken") } } //--> </script> The JavaScript should theoretically pass the 'ID' onto the page delete.php. That page looks like this (and I think this is where the problem is): <?php include ("login.php"); mysql_connect($hostname, $username, $password) or die("Unable to connect to MySQL"); mysql_select_db ($dbname) or die("Unable to connect to database"); mysql_query("DELETE FROM `videos` WHERE `videos`.`id` ='.$id.'"); echo ("Video has been deleted."); ?> If there's anyone out there that may know the answer to this, I would greatly appreciate it. I am also opened to suggestions (for those who aren't sure). Thanks!

  Read the article

• Dynamic Linq help, different errors depending on object passed as parameter?

  - by sah302

  I have an entityDao that is inherbited by everyone of my objectDaos. I am using Dynamic Linq and trying to get some generic queries to work. I have the following code in my generic method in my EntityDao : public abstract class EntityDao<ImplementationType> where ImplementationType : Entity { public ImplementationType getOneByValueOfProperty(string getProperty, object getValue){ ImplementationType entity = null; if (getProperty != null && getValue != null) { LCFDataContext lcfdatacontext = new LCFDataContext(); //Generic LINQ Query Here entity = lcfdatacontext.GetTable<ImplementationType>().Where(getProperty + " =@0", getValue).FirstOrDefault(); //.Where(getProperty & "==" & CStr(getValue)) } //lcfdatacontext.SubmitChanges() //lcfdatacontext.Dispose() return entity; } }         Then I do the following method call in a unit test (all my objectDaos inherit entityDao): [Test] public void getOneByValueOfProperty() { Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("AccomplishmentType.Name", "Publication"); Assert.IsNotNull(result); } The above passes (AccomplishmentType has a relationship to accomplishment) Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("Description", "Can you hear me now?"); Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("LocalId", 4); Both of the above work Accomplishment result = accomplishmentDao.getOneByValueOfProperty("Id", New Guid("95457751-97d9-44b5-8f80-59fc2d170a4c"))       Does not work and says the following: Operator '=' incompatible with operand types 'Guid' and 'Guid Why is this happening? Guid's can't be compared? I tried == as well but same error. What's even moreso confusing is that every example of Dynamic Linq I have seen simply usings strings whether using the parameterized where predicate or this one I have commented out: //.Where(getProperty & "==" & CStr(getValue)) With or without the Cstr, many datatypes don't work with this format. I tried setting the getValue to a string instead of an object as well, but then I just get different errors (such as a multiword string would stop comparison after the first word). What am I missing to make this work with GUIDs and/or any data type? Ideally I would like to be able to just pass in a string for getValue (as I have seen for every other dynamic LINQ example) instead of the object and have it work regardless of the data Type of the column.

  Read the article

• UNIX: Replace Newline w/ Colon, Preserving Newline Before EOF

  - by Maarx

  I have a text file ("INPUT.txt") of the format: A<LF> B<LF> C<LF> D<LF> X<LF> Y<LF> Z<LF> <EOF> which I need to reformat to: A:B:C:D:X:Y:Z<LF> <EOF> I know you can do this with 'sed'. There's a billion google hits for doing this with 'sed'. But I'm trying to emphasis readability, simplicity, and using the correct tool for the correct job. 'sed' is a line editor that consumes and hides newlines. Probably not the right tool for this job! I think the correct tool for this job would be 'tr'. I can replace all the newlines with colons with the command: cat INPUT.txt | tr '\n' ':' There's 99% of my work done. I have a problem, now, though. By replacing all the newlines with colons, I not only get an extraneous colon at the end of the sequence, but I also lose the carriage return at the end of the input. It looks like this: A:B:C:D:X:Y:Z:<EOF> Now, I need to remove the colon from the end of the input. However, if I attempt to pass this processed input through 'sed' to remove the final colon (which would now, I think, be a proper use of 'sed'), I find myself with a second problem. The input is no longer terminated by a newline at all! 'sed' fails outright, for all commands, because it never finds the end of the first line of input! It seems like appending a newline to the end of some input is a very, very common task, and considering I myself was just sorely tempted to write a program to do it in C (which would take about eight lines of code), I can't imagine there's not already a very simple way to do this with the tools already available to you in the Linux kernel.

  Read the article

• synchronizing XML nodes between class and file using C#

  - by Sarah Vessels

  I'm trying to write an IXmlSerializable class that stays synced with an XML file. The XML file has the following format: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <logging> <logLevel>Error</logLevel> </logging> ...potentially other sections... </configuration> I have a DllConfig class for the whole XML file and a LoggingSection class for representing <logging> and its contents, i.e., <logLevel>. DllConfig has this property: [XmlElement(ElementName = LOGGING_TAG_NAME, DataType = "LoggingSection")] public LoggingSection Logging { get; protected set; } What I want is for the backing XML file to be updated (i.e., rewritten) when a property is set. I already have DllConfig do this when Logging is set. However, how should I go about doing this when Logging.LogLevel is set? Here's an example of what I mean: var config = new DllConfig("path_to_backing_file.xml"); config.Logging.LogLevel = LogLevel.Information; // not using Logging setter, but a // setter on LoggingSection, so how // does path_to_backing_file.xml // have its contents updated? My current solution is to have a SyncedLoggingSection class that inherits from LoggingSection and also takes a DllConfig instance in the constructor. It declares a new LogLevel that, when set, updates the LogLevel in the base class and also uses the given DllConfig to write the entire DllConfig out to the backing XML file. Is this a good technique? I don't think I can just serialize SyncedLoggingSection by itself to the backing XML file, because not all of the contents will be written, just the <logging> node. Then I'd end up with an XML file containing only the <logging> section with its updated <logLevel>, instead of the entire config file with <logLevel> updated. Hence, I need to pass an instance of DllConfig to SyncedLoggingSection. It seems almost like I want an event handler, one in DllConfig that would notice when particular properties (i.e., LogLevel) in its properties (i.e., Logging) were set. Is such a thing possible?

  Read the article

• jQuery "Autocomplete" plugin is messing up the order of my data

  - by Max Williams

  I'm using Jorn Zaefferer's Autocomplete plugin on a couple of different pages. In both instances, the order of displayed strings is a little bit messed up. Example 1: array of strings: basically they are in alphabetical order except for General Knowledge which has been pushed to the top: General Knowledge,Art and Design,Business Studies,Citizenship,Design and Technology,English,Geography,History,ICT,Mathematics,MFL French,MFL German,MFL Spanish,Music,Physical Education,PSHE,Religious Education,Science,Something Else Displayed strings: General Knowledge,Geography,Art and Design,Business Studies,Citizenship,Design and Technology,English,History,ICT,Mathematics,MFL French,MFL German,MFL Spanish,Music,Physical Education,PSHE,Religious Education,Science,Something Else Note that Geography has been pushed to be the second item, after General Knowledge. The rest are all fine. Example 2: array of strings: as above but with Cross-curricular instead of General Knowledge. Cross-curricular,Art and Design,Business Studies,Citizenship,Design and Technology,English,Geography,History,ICT,Mathematics,MFL French,MFL German,MFL Spanish,Music,Physical Education,PSHE,Religious Education,Science,Something Else Displayed strings: Cross-curricular,Citizenship,Art and Design,Business Studies,Design and Technology,English,Geography,History,ICT,Mathematics,MFL French,MFL German,MFL Spanish,Music,Physical Education,PSHE,Religious Education,Science,Something Else Here, Citizenship has been pushed to the number 2 position. I've experimented a little, and it seems like there's a bug saying "put things that start with the same letter as the first item after the first item and leave the rest alone". Kind of mystifying. I've tried a bit of debugging by triggering alerts inside the autocomplete plugin code but everywhere i can see, it's using the correct order. it seems to be just when its rendered out that it goes wrong. Any ideas anyone? max EDIT - reply to Clint Thanks for pointing me at the relevant bit of code btw. To make diagnosis simpler i changed the array of values to ["carrot", "apple", "cherry"], which autocomplete re-orders to ["carrot", "cherry", "apple"]. Here's the array that it generates for stMatchSets: stMatchSets = ({'':[#1={value:"carrot", data:["carrot"], result:"carrot"}, #3={value:"apple", data:["apple"], result:"apple"}, #2={value:"cherry", data:["cherry"], result:"cherry"}], c:[#1#, #2#], a:[#3#]}) So, it's collecting the first letters together into a map, which makes sense as a first-pass matching strategy. What i'd like it to do though, is to use the given array of values, rather than the map, when it comes to populating the displayed list. I can't quite get my head around what's going on with the cache inside the guts of the code (i'm not very experienced with javascript).

  Read the article

• JavaScript: How to get the instance name of an object

  - by Quandary

  I use the below code to write code to query a web method in a specified interval. now in the this.Poll function I have to do this.tmo = setTimeout(this.strInstanceName + ".Poll()", this.iInterval); instead of this.tmo = setTimeout(this.Poll(), this.iInterval); because IE looses the this object after setTimeout So I have to pass the class it's instance name: var objPoll = new cPoll("objPoll"); How can I get the instance name without passing it as parameter ? I want to have it outta there ! <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <title>Intervall-Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function test() { alert("Test"); test.tmo = setTimeout(test, 2000); test.Clear = function() { clearTimeout(test.tmo); } } function cPoll(strInstanceName) { this.strInstanceName = strInstanceName ; this.iInterval = 2000; this.tmo=null; this.cbFunction=null; alert(this.Name ); this.Poll = function() { this.cbFunction(); this.tmo = setTimeout(this.strInstanceName + ".Poll()", this.iInterval); } this.Start = function(pCallBackFunction, iIntervalParameter) { if(this.tmo != null) this.Stop(); if(iIntervalParameter && iIntervalParameter > 0) this.iInterval=iIntervalParameter; this.cbFunction=pCallBackFunction; if(this.cbFunction!=null) this.Poll(); else alert("Invalid or no callback function specified"); } this.Stop = function() { if(this.tmo != null) { clearTimeout(this.tmo); this.tmo=null; } } } function CallBackFunction() { alert("PollCallBack"); } // test(); // test.Clear(); var objPoll = new cPoll("objPoll"); </script> </head> <body> <h1>Test</h1> <input type="Button" value="Start polling" onclick="objPoll.Start(CallBackFunction,3000);" /> <input type="Button" value="Stop polling" onclick="objPoll.Stop();" /> </body> </html>

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413  | Next Page >