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  • AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

    - by Joern
    Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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  • java multipart POST library

    - by tom
    Is there a multipart POST library out there that achieve the same effect of doing a POST from a html form? for example - upload a file programmingly in Java versus upload the file using a html form. And on the server side, it just blindly expect the request from client side to be a multipart POST request and parse out the data as appropriate. Has anyone tried this? specifically, I am trying to see if I can simulate the following with Java The user creates a blob by submitting an HTML form that includes one or more file input fields. Your app sets blobstoreService.createUploadUrl() as the destination (action) of this form, passing the function a URL path of a handler in your app. When the user submits the form, the user's browser uploads the specified files directly to the Blobstore. The Blobstore rewrites the user's request and stores the uploaded file data, replacing the uploaded file data with one or more corresponding blob keys, then passes the rewritten request to the handler at the URL path you provided to blobstoreService.createUploadUrl(). This handler can do additional processing based on the blob key. Finally, the handler must return a headers-only, redirect response (301, 302, or 303), typically a browser redirect to another page indicating the status of the blob upload. Set blobstoreService.createUploadUrl as the form action, passing the application path to load when the POST of the form is completed. <body> <form action="<%= blobstoreService.createUploadUrl("/upload") %>" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="file" name="myFile"> <input type="submit" value="Submit"> </form> </body> Note that this is how the upload form would look if it were created as a JSP. The form must include a file upload field, and the form's enctype must be set to multipart/form-data. When the user submits the form, the POST is handled by the Blobstore API, which creates the blob. The API also creates an info record for the blob and stores the record in the datastore, and passes the rewritten request to your app on the given path as a blob key.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: Linq to SQL entity w/ ForeignKey relationship and Default ModelBinder strangeness

    - by Simon
    Once again I'm having trouble with Linq to Sql and the MVC Model Binder. I have Linq to Sql generated classes, to illustrate them they look similar to this: public class Client { public int ClientID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Site { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class User { public int UserID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int? ClientID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Client> Client { get; set; } public int? SiteID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Site> Site { get; set; } } The 'User' has a relationship with the 'Client' and 'Site . The User class has nullable ClientIDs and SiteIDs because the admin users are not bound to a Client or Site. Now I have a view where a user can edit a 'User' object, the view has fields for all the 'User' properties. When the form is submitted, the appropiate 'Save' action is called in my UserController: public ActionResult Save(User user, FormCollection form) { //form['SiteID'] == 1 //user.SiteID == 1 //form['ClientID'] == 1 //user.ClientID == null } The problem here is that the ClientID is never set, it is always null, even though the value is in the FormCollection. To figure out whats going wrong I set breakpoints for the ClientID and SiteID getters and setters in the Linq to Sql designer generated classes. I noticed the following: SiteID is being set, then ClientID is being set, but then the Client EntityRef property is being set with a null value which in turn is setting the ClientID to null too! I don't know why and what is trying to set the Client property, because the Site property setter is never beeing called, only the Client setter is being called. Manually setting the ClientID from the FormCollection like this: user.ClientID = int.Parse(form["ClientID"].ToString()); throws a 'ForeignKeyReferenceAlreadyHasValueException', because it was already set to null before. The only workaround I have found is to extend the generated partial User class with a custom method: Client = default(EntityRef<Client>) but this is not a satisfying solution. I don't think it should work like this? Please enlighten me someone. So far Linq to Sql is driving me crazy! Best regards

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  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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  • Serialize problem with cookie

    - by cagin
    Hi there, I want use cookie in my web project. I must serialize my classes. Although my code can seralize an int or string value, it cant seralize my classes. This is my seralize and cookie code : public static bool f_SetCookie(string _sCookieName, object _oCookieValue, DateTime _dtimeExpirationDate) { bool retval = true; try { if (HttpContext.Current.Request[_sCookieName] != null) { HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.Remove(_sCookieName); } BinaryFormatter bf = new BinaryFormatter(); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); bf.Serialize(ms, _oCookieValue); byte[] bArr = ms.ToArray(); MemoryStream objStream = new MemoryStream(); DeflateStream objZS = new DeflateStream(objStream, CompressionMode.Compress); objZS.Write(bArr, 0, bArr.Length); objZS.Flush(); objZS.Close(); byte[] bytes = objStream.ToArray(); string sCookieVal = Convert.ToBase64String(bytes); HttpCookie cook = new HttpCookie(_sCookieName); cook.Value = sCookieVal; cook.Expires = _dtimeExpirationDate; HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cook); } catch { retval = false; } return retval; } And here is one of my classes: [Serializable] public class Tahlil { #region Props & Fields public string M_KlinikKodu{ get; set; } public DateTime M_AlinmaTarihi { get; set; } private List<Test> m_Tesler; public List<Test> M_Tesler { get { return m_Tesler; } set { m_Tesler = value; } } #endregion public Tahlil() {} Tahlil(DataRow _rwTahlil){} } I m calling my Set Cookie method: Tahlil t = new Tahlil(); t.M_AlinmaTarihi = DateTime.Now; t.M_KlinikKodu = "2"; t.M_Tesler = new List<Test>(); f_SetCookie("Tahlil", t, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I cant see cookie in Cookie folder and Temporary Internet Files but if i will call method like that: f_SetCookie("TRY", 5, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I can see cookie. What is the problem? I dont understand. Thank you for your helps.

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  • Multi-tier applications using L2S, WCF and Base Class

    - by Gena Verdel
    Hi all. One day I decided to build this nice multi-tier application using L2S and WCF. The simplified model is : DataBase-L2S-Wrapper(DTO)-Client Application. The communication between Client and Database is achieved by using Data Transfer Objects which contain entity objects as their properties. abstract public class BaseObject { public virtual IccSystem.iccObjectTypes ObjectICC_Type { get { return IccSystem.iccObjectTypes.unknownType; } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order = 1)] public virtual long ID { //get; //set; get { return _ID; } set { _ID = value; } } } [DataContract] public class BaseObjectWrapper<T> where T : BaseObject { #region Fields private T _DBObject; #endregion #region Properties [DataMember] public T Entity { get { return _DBObject; } set { _DBObject = value; } } #endregion } Pretty simple, isn't it?. Here's the catch. Each one of the mapped classes contains ID property itself so I decided to override it like this [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.TableAttribute(Name="dbo.Divisions")] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute()] public partial class Division : INotifyPropertyChanging, INotifyPropertyChanged { [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_ID", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order=1)] public override long ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } } Wrapper for division is pretty straightforward as well: public class DivisionWrapper : BaseObjectWrapper<Division> { } It worked pretty well as long as I kept ID values at mapped class and its BaseObject class the same(that's not very good approach, I know, but still) but then this happened: private CentralDC _dc; public bool UpdateDivision(ref DivisionWrapper division) { DivisionWrapper tempWrapper = division; if (division.Entity == null) { return false; } try { Table<Division> table = _dc.Divisions; var q = table.Where(o => o.ID == tempWrapper.Entity.ID); if (q.Count() == 0) { division.Entity._errorMessage = "Unable to locate entity with id " + division.Entity.ID.ToString(); return false; } var realEntity = q.First(); realEntity = division.Entity; _dc.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { division.Entity._errorMessage = ex.Message; return false; } } When trying to enumerate over the in-memory query the following exception occurred: Class member BaseObject.ID is unmapped. Although I'm stating the type and overriding the ID property L2S fails to work. Any suggestions?

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  • XML pass values to timer, AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    My timer has three variables that I can trace to the output window, but don't know how to pass them to the timer. How to I pass the XML values to my timer? Purpose I want to test with an XML document, before I try connecting it to an XML socket. myXML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> <COUNT TITLE="starting position">-77777</COUNT> <FCOUNT TITLE="ramp">1000</FCOUNT> </SESSION> myFlash //myTimer 'instance of mytext on stage' /* fields I want to change with XML */ //CHANGE TO 100 var timer:Timer = new Timer(10); //CHANGE TO -77777 var count:int = 0; //CHANGE TO 1000 var fcount:int = 0; timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, incrementCounter); timer.start(); function incrementCounter(event:TimerEvent) { count++; fcount=int(count*count/1000);//starts out slow... then speeds up mytext.text = formatCount(fcount); } function formatCount(i:int):String { var fraction:int = i % 100; var whole:int = i / 100; return ("0000000" + whole).substr(-7, 7) + "." + (fraction < 10 ? "0" + fraction : fraction); } //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(myXML.ROGUE.*); trace(myXML); //TEXT var text:TextField = new TextField(); text.text = myXML.TIMER.*; text.textColor = 0xFF0000; addChild(text); } RESOURCES OReilly's ActionScript 3.0 Cookbook, Chapter 12 Strings, Chapter 20 XML

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  • How to return a property name when comparing two properties at class-level

    - by CodeMonkey
    Hi I have implemented an 'EqualTo' Validation Attribute, that compares two Properties of an object, during ModelBinding in ASP.NET MVC 2. The problem I have is not with it not working, because it does work. The problem is, when I do my request - which is an ajax request - I get back errors to my front-end, where it sets a class on the input fields to indicate invalid input. What it does is iterate through a list of Errors (in a JsonResult), and set a class. This is all dandy. But the ValidationAtrribute I am having trouble with is set at a Class-level, i.e., it's not like other ValidationAttributes where you set something like "[Required]" or something like that. [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple=true, Inherited=false)] public class EqualToAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public String SourceProperty { get; set; } public String MatchProperty { get; set; } public EqualToAttribute(string source, string match) { SourceProperty = source; MatchProperty = match; } public override Boolean IsValid(Object value) { Type objectType = value.GetType(); PropertyInfo[] properties = objectType.GetProperties(); object sourceValue = new object(); object matchValue = new object(); Type sourceType = null; Type matchType = null; int counter = 0; foreach (PropertyInfo propertyInfo in properties) { if (propertyInfo.Name == SourceProperty || propertyInfo.Name == MatchProperty) { if (counter == 0) { sourceValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); sourceType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } if (counter == 1) { matchValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); matchType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } counter++; if (counter == 2) { break; } } } if (sourceType != null && matchType != null) { return sourceValue.ToString().Equals(matchValue.ToString()); //return Convert.ChangeType(sourceValue, sourceType) == Convert.ChangeType(matchValue, matchType); } return false; } private object _typeId = new object(); public override object TypeId { get { return this._typeId; } } } Now this code works, except for the fact that the validation process does not return which Property failed. And I simply can't figure out how to make it return one of the two. In reality I don't care which one it returns.. because both are failing.. Do you have an idea how to make it return the/or both Property/Properties that is/are failing.

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  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • Sitecore E-Commerce Module - Discount/Promotional Codes

    - by Zachary Kniebel
    I am working on a project for which I must use Sitecore's E-Commerce Module (and Sitecore 6.5 rev. 120706 - aka 'Update 5') to create a web-store. One of the features that I am trying to implement is a generic promotional/discount code system - customer enters a code at checkout which grants a discount like 'free shipping', '20% off', etc. At the moment, I am looking for some guidance (a high-level solution, a few pseudo-ideas, some references to review, etc) as to how this can be accomplished. Summary: What I am looking for is a way to detect whether or not the user entered a promo code at a previous stage in the checkout line, and to determine what that promo code is, if they did. Progress Thus Far: I have thoroughly reviewed all of the Sitecore E-Commerce Services (SES) documentation, especially "SES Order Line Extension" documentation (which I believe will have to be modified/extended in order to accomplish this task). Additionally, I have thoroughly reviewed the Sitecore Community article Extending Sitecore E-Commerce - Pricing and believe that it may be a useful guide for applying a discount statically, but does not say much in the way of applying a discount dynamically. After reviewing these documents, I have come up with the following possible high-level solution to start from: I create a template to represent a promotional code, which holds all data relevant to the promotion (percent off, free shipping, code, etc). I then create another template (based on the Product Search Group template) that holds a link to an item within a global "Promotional Code" items folder. Next, I use the Product Search Group features of my new template to choose which products to apply the discount to. In the source code for the checkout I create a class that checks if a code has been entered and, if so, somehow carry it through the rest of the checkout process. This is where I get stuck. More Details: No using cookies No GET requests No changing/creating/deleting items in the Sitecore Database during the checkout process (e.g., no manipulation of fields of a discount item during checkout to signal that the discount has been applied) must stay within the scope of C# Last Notes: I will update this post with any more information that I find/progress that I make. I upgrade all answers that are relevant and detailed, thought-provoking, or otherwise useful to me and potentially useful to others, in addition to any high-level answers that serve as a feasible solution to this problem; even if your idea doesn't help me, if I think it will help someone else I will still upgrade it. Thanks, in advance, for all your help! :)

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  • Hibernate3: Self-Referencing Objects

    - by monojohnny
    Need some help on understanding how to do this; I'm going to be running recursive 'find' on a file system and I want to keep the information in a single DB table - with a self-referencing hierarchial structure: This is my DB Table structure I want to populate. DirObject Table: id int NOT NULL, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, parentid int NOT NULL); Here is the proposed Java Class I want to map (Fields only shown): public DirObject { int id; String name; DirObject parent; ... For the 'root' directory was going to use parentid=0; real ids will start at 1, and ideally I want hibernate to autogenerate the ids. Can somebody provide a suggested mapping file for this please; as a secondary question I thought about doing the Java Class like this instead: public DirObject { int id; String name; List<DirObject> subdirs; Could I use the same data model for either of these two methods ? (With a different mapping file of course). --- UPDATE: so I tried the mapping file suggested below (thanks!), repeated here for reference: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="my.proj.DirObject" table="category"> ... <set name="subDirs" lazy="true" inverse="true"> <key column="parentId"/> <one-to-many class="my.proj.DirObject"/> </set> <many-to-one name="parent" class="my.proj.DirObject" column="parentId" cascade="all" /> </class> ...and altered my Java class to have BOTH 'parentid' and 'getSubDirs' [returning a 'HashSet']. This appears to work - thanks, but this is the test code I used to drive this - I think I'm not doing something right here, because I thought Hibernate would take care of saving the subordinate objects in the Set without me having to do this explicitly ? DirObject dirobject=new DirObject(); dirobject.setName("/files"); dirobject.setParent(dirobject); DirObject d1, d2; d1=new DirObject(); d1.setName("subdir1"); d1.setParent(dirobject); d2=new DirObject(); d2.setName("subdir2"); d2.setParent(dirobject); HashSet<DirObject> subdirs=new HashSet<DirObject>(); subdirs.add(d1); subdirs.add(d2); dirobject.setSubdirs(subdirs); session.save(dirobject); session.save(d1); session.save(d2);

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  • [N]Hibernate: view-like fetching properties of associated class

    - by chiccodoro
    (Felt quite helpless in formulating an appropriate title...) In my C# app I display a list of "A" objects, along with some properties of their associated "B" objects and properties of B's associated "C" objects: A.Name B.Name B.SomeValue C.Name Foo Bar 123 HelloWorld Bar Hello 432 World ... To clarify: A has an FK to B, B has an FK to C. (Such as, e.g. BankAccount - Person - Company). I have tried two approaches to load these properties from the database (using NHibernate): A fast approach and a clean approach. My eventual question is how to do a fast & clean approach. Fast approach: Define a view in the database which joins A, B, C and provides all these fields. In the A class, define properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" Define a hibernate mapping between A and the View, whereas the needed B and C properties are mapped with update="false" insert="false" and do actually stem from B and C tables, but Hibernate is not aware of that since it uses the view. This way, the listing only loads one object per "A" record, which is quite fast. If the code tries to access the actual associated property, "A.B", I issue another HQL query to get B, set the property and update the faked BName and BSomeValue properties as well. Clean approach: There is no view. Class A is mapped to table A, B to B, C to C. When loading the list of A, I do a double left-join-fetch to get B and C as well: from A a left join fetch a.B left join fetch a.B.C B.Name, B.SomeValue and C.Name are accessed through the eagerly loaded associations. The disadvantage of this approach is that it gets slower and takes more memory, since it needs to created and map 3 objects per "A" record: An A, B, and C object each. Fast and clean approach: I feel somehow uncomfortable using a database view that hides a join and treat that in NHibernate as if it was a table. So I would like to do something like: Have no views in the database. Declare properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" in class "A". Define the mapping for A such that NHibernate fetches A and these properties together using a join SQL query as a database view would do. The mapping should still allow for defining lazy many-to-one associations for getting A.B.C My questions: Is this possible? Is it [un]artful? Is there a better way?

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  • How to navigate to another html page?

    - by newbie
    In my application there's a usual login page sending username and password to the server script, where it needs to be authenticated, and in case of an authentic user, the server should redirect to a page student.html. This is my code var ports = 3000; var portt = 3001; var express = require('express'); var student = require('express')(); var teacher = require('express')(); var server_s = require('http').createServer(student); var server_t = require('http').createServer(teacher); var ios = require('socket.io').listen(server_s); var iot = require('socket.io').listen(server_t); var path = require('path'); server_s.listen(ports); server_t.listen(portt); student.use(express.static(path.join(__dirname, 'public'))); student.get('/', function(req,res){ res.sendfile(__dirname + '/login.html'); }); teacher.use(express.static(path.join(__dirname, 'public'))); teacher.get('/', function(req,res){ res.sendfile(__dirname + '/mytry.html'); }); ios.sockets.on('connection', function(socket){ var username, password; socket.on('check',function(data){ username = data[0]; password = data[1]; //************* Database connection and query ************* var mysql = require('mysql'); var connection = mysql.createConnection({ host : 'localhost', user : 'user', password: '*******', database: 'my_db' }); connection.connect(); var qstring = 'SELECT s_id FROM login_student WHERE username='+username+'AND password='+password; connection.query(qstring, function(err, rows, fields) { if (err) { console.log('ERROR: ' + err); socket.emit('login_failure','DB error'); return; } console.log('The solution is: ', rows[0].solution); if (rows>0) //***** Here i want redirection to another page ****** else socket.emit('login_failure','Invalid Username or password'); }); connection.end(); }); }); iot.sockets.on('connection', function(socket){ ; }); }); Can anyone suggest what should I do?

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  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

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  • asp:Button is not calling server-side function

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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  • Help with IF THEN breaking when comparing results from MYSQL query.

    - by roydukkey
    I'm have a problem with an invite system. The if statement seems to break. It shows the message "Fail" but the UPDATE statement still executes. Why do both the THEN and the ELSE excute? $dbConn = new dbConn(); // Check if POST user_username and user_hash are matching and valid; both are hidden for fields $sql = "SELECT user_username " . "FROM table_users " . "WHERE user_id=".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_id"])." " . "AND user_hash='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_hash"])."' " . "AND user_enabled=0;"; $objUser = $dbConn->query($sql); // If result contains 1 or more rows if( mysql_num_rows($objUser) != NULL ){ $objUser = mysql_fetch_assoc($objUser); $ssnUser->login( $objUser["user_username"] ); $sql = "UPDATE table_users SET " . "user_enabled=1, " . "user_first_name='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_first_name"])."', " . "user_last_name='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_last_name"])."', " . "user_password='".mysql_real_escape_string( md5($_POST["user_password"]) )."' " . "WHERE user_id=".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_id"]).";"; $dbConn->query($sql); echo "Success"; header( "Refresh: 5; url=/account/?action=domains" ); } else { echo "Fail"; } This dbConn Class is as follows: class dbConn{ var $username = "xxxx_admin"; var $password = "xxxxxxxx"; var $server = "localhost"; var $database = "xxxx"; var $objConn; function __construct(){ $conn = mysql_connect( $this->server, $this->username, $this->password, true ); if( !$conn ){ die("Could not connect: ".mysql_error() ); } else { $this->objConn = $conn; } unset($conn); } function __destruct(){ mysql_close( $this->objConn ); unset( $this ); } function query( $query, $db = false ){ mysql_select_db( $db != false ? $db : $this->database, $this->objConn ); $result = mysql_query( $query ); unset($query,$db); return $result; } }

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  • Linked lists in Java - help with assignment

    - by user368241
    Representation of a string in linked lists In every intersection in the list there will be 3 fields : The letter itself. The number of times it appears consecutively. A pointer to the next intersection in the list. The following class CharNode represents a intersection in the list : public class CharNode { private char _data; private int _value; private charNode _next; public CharNode (char c, int val, charNode n) { _data = c; _value = val; _next = n; } public charNode getNext() { return _next; } public void setNext (charNode node) { _next = node; } public int getValue() { return _value; } public void setValue (int v) { value = v; } public char getData() { return _data; } public void setData (char c) { _data = c; } } The class StringList represents the whole list : public class StringList { private charNode _head; public StringList() { _head = null; } public StringList (CharNode node) { _head = node; } } Add methods to the class StringList according to the details : (I will add methods gradually according to my specific questions) (Pay attention, these are methods from the class String and we want to fulfill them by the representation of a string by a list as explained above) public int indexOf (int ch) - returns the index in the string it is operated on of the first appeareance of the char "ch". If the char "ch" doesn't appear in the string, returns -1. If the value of fromIndex isn't in the range, returns -1. Pay attention to all the possible error cases. Write what is the time complexity and space complexity of every method that you wrote. Make sure the methods you wrote are effective. It is NOT allowed to use ready classes of Java. It is NOT allowed to move to string and use string operations. Here is my try to write the method indexOf (int ch). Kindly assist me with fixing the bugs so I can move on. public int indexOf (int ch) { int count = 0; charNode pose = _head; if (pose == null ) { return -1; } for (pose = _head; pose!=null && pose.getNext()!='ch'; pose = pose.getNext()) { count++; } if (pose!=null) return count; else return -1; }

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  • How to Fix my jQuery code in IE?? Works in Firefox..

    - by scott jarvis
    I am using jQuery to show/hide a div container (#pluginOptionsContainer), and load a page (./plugin_options.php) inside it with the required POST vars sent. What POST data is sent is based on the value of a select list (#pluginDD) and the click of a button (#pluginOptionsBtn)... It works fine in Firefox, but doesn't work in IE.. The '$("#pluginOptionsContainer").load()' request never seems to finish in IE - I only see the loading message forever... bind(), empty() and append() all seem to work fine in IE.. But not load().. Here is my code: // wait for the DOM to be loaded $(document).ready(function() { // hide the plugin options $('#pluginOptionsContainer').hide(); // This is the hack for IE if ($.browser.msie) { $("#pluginDD").click(function() { this.blur(); this.focus(); }); } // set the main function $(function() { // the button shows hides the plugin options page (and its container) $("#pluginOptionsBtn") .click(function() { // show the container of the plugin options page $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); $('#pluginOptionsContainer').toggle(); }); // set the loading message if user changes selection with either the dropdown or button $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change', function() { $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); }); // then update the page when the plugin is changed when EITHER the plugin button or dropdown or clicked or changed $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change click', function() { // set form fields as vars in js var pid = <?=$pid;?>; var cid = <?=$contentid;?>; var pDD = $("#pluginDD").val(); // add post vars (must use JSON) to be sent into the js var 'dataString' var dataString = {plugin_options: true, pageid: pid, contentid: cid, pluginDD: pDD }; // include the plugin option page inside the container, with the required values already added into the query string $("#pluginOptionsContainer").load("/admin/inc/edit/content/plugin_options.php#pluginTop", dataString); // add this to stop page refresh return false; }); // end submit function }); // end main function }); // on DOM load Any help would be GREATLY appreciated! I hate IE!

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  • Multiple word Auttosuggest using Lucene.Net

    - by eric
    I am currently working on an search application which uses Lucene.Net to index the data from the database to Index file. I have a product catalog which has Name, short and long description, sku and other fields. The data is stored in Index using StandardAnalyzer. I am trying to add auto suggestion for a text field and using TermEnum to get all the keyword terms and its score from the Index. But the terms returned are of single term. For example, if I type for co, the suggestion returned are costume, count, collection, cowboy, combination etc. But I want the suggestion to return phrases. For exmaple, if I search for co, the suggestions should be cowboy costume, costume for adults, combination locks etc. The following is the code used to get the suggestions: public string[] GetKeywords(string strSearchExp) { IndexReader rd = IndexReader.Open(mIndexLoc); TermEnum tenum = rd.Terms(new Term("Name", strSearchExp)); string[] strResult = new string[10]; int i = 0; Dictionary<string, double> KeywordList = new Dictionary<string, double>(); do { //terms = tenum.Term(); if (tenum.Term() != null) { //strResult[i] = terms.text.ToString(); KeywordList.Add(tenum.Term().text.ToString(), tenum.DocFreq()); } } while (tenum.Next() && tenum.Term().text.StartsWith(strSearchExp) && tenum.Term().text.Length > 1); var sortedDict = (from entry in KeywordList orderby entry.Value descending select entry); foreach (KeyValuePair<string, double> data in sortedDict) { if (data.Key.Length > 1) { strResult[i] = data.Key; i++; } if (i >= 10) //Exit the for Loop if the count exceeds 10 break; } tenum.Close(); rd.Close(); return strResult; } Can anyone please give me directions to achive this? Thanks for looking into this.

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  • Java replacement for C macros

    - by thkala
    Recently I refactored the code of a 3rd party hash function from C++ to C. The process was relatively painless, with only a few changes of note. Now I want to write the same function in Java and I came upon a slight issue. In the C/C++ code there is a C preprocessor macro that takes a few integer variables names as arguments and performs a bunch of bitwise operations with their contents and a few constants. That macro is used in several different places, therefore its presence avoids a fair bit of code duplication. In Java, however, there is no equivalent for the C preprocessor. There is also no way to affect any basic type passed as an argument to a method - even autoboxing produces immutable objects. Coupled with the fact that Java methods return a single value, I can't seem to find a simple way to rewrite the macro. Avenues that I considered: Expand the macro by hand everywhere: It would work, but the code duplication could make things interesting in the long run. Write a method that returns an array: This would also work, but it would repeatedly result into code like this: long tmp[] = bitops(k, l, m, x, y, z); k = tmp[0]; l = tmp[1]; m = tmp[2]; x = tmp[3]; y = tmp[4]; z = tmp[5]; Write a method that takes an array as an argument: This would mean that all variable names would be reduced to array element references - it would be rather hard to keep track of which index corresponds to which variable. Create a separate class e.g. State with public fields of the appropriate type and use that as an argument to a method: This is my current solution. It allows the method to alter the variables, while still keeping their names. It has the disadvantage, however, that the State class will get more and more complex, as more macros and variables are added, in order to avoid copying values back and forth among different State objects. How would you rewrite such a C macro in Java? Is there a more appropriate way to deal with this, using the facilities provided by the standard Java 6 Development Kit (i.e. without 3rd party libraries or a separate preprocessor)?

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  • SQLException: incorrect syntax near '2'.

    - by Tobechukwu Ezenachukwu
    whenever I call the "ExecuteNonQuery" command on the following CommandText, I get the above SQLException myCommand.CommandText = "INSERT INTO fixtures (round_id, matchcode, date_utc, time_utc, date_london, time_london, team_A_id, team_A, team_A_country, team_B_id, team_B, team_B_country, status, gameweek, winner, fs_A, fs_B, hts_A, hts_B, ets_A, ets_B, ps_A, ps_B, last_updated) VALUES (" _ & round_id & "," & match_id & "," & date_utc & ",'" & time_utc & "'," & date_london & ",'" & time_london & "'," & team_A_id & ",'" & team_A_name & "','" & team_A_country & "'," & team_B_id & ",'" & team_B_name & "','" & _ team_B_country & "','" & status & "'," & gameweek & ",'" & winner & "'," & fs_A & "," & fs_B & "," & hts_A & "," & hts_B & "," & ets_A & "," & ets_B & "," & ps_A & "," & ps_B & "," & last_updated & ")" But whenever, i remove the last table item - "last_updated", the error disappears. Please help me resolve this issue. Is there any special treatment to be given to datetime fields??? Thanks for your help

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  • Should I create a unique clustered index, or non-unique clustered index on this SQL 2005 table?

    - by Bremer
    I have a table storing millions of rows. It looks something like this: Table_Docs ID, Bigint (Identity col) OutputFileID, int Sequence, int …(many other fields) We find ourselves in a situation where the developer who designed it made the OutputFileID the clustered index. It is not unique. There can be thousands of records with this ID. It has no benefit to any processes using this table, so we plan to remove it. The question, is what to change it to… I have two candidates, the ID identity column is a natural choice. However, we have a process which does a lot of update commands on this table, and it uses the Sequence to do so. The Sequence is non-unique. Most records only contain one, but about 20% can have two or more records with the same Sequence. The INSERT app is a VB6 piece of crud throwing thousands insert commands at the table. The Inserted values are never in any particular order. So the Sequence of one insert may be 12345, and the next could be 12245. I know that this could cause SQL to move a lot of data to keep the clustered index in order. However, the Sequence of the inserts are generally close to being in order. All inserts would take place at the end of the clustered table. Eg: I have 5 million records with Sequence spanning 1 to 5 million. The INSERT app will be inserting sequence’s at the end of that range at any given time. Reordering of the data should be minimal (tens of thousands of records at most). Now, the UPDATE app is our .NET star. It does all UPDATES on the Sequence column. “Update Table_Docs Set Feild1=This, Field2=That…WHERE Sequence =12345” – hundreds of thousands of these a day. The UPDATES are completely and totally, random, touching all points of the table. All other processes are simply doing SELECT’s on this (Web pages). Regular indexes cover those. So my question is, what’s better….a unique clustered index on the ID column, benefiting the INSERT app, or a non-unique clustered index on the Sequence, benefiting the UPDATE app?

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  • Configuring a html page from an original demo page

    - by Wold
    I forked into rainyday.js through github, an awesome javascript program made by maroslaw at this link: https://github.com/maroslaw/rainyday.js. Basically I tried taking his demo page and my own photo city.jpg and changed the applicable fields so that I could run it on my own site, but only the picture loads and the script itself doesn't start to run. I'm pretty new to html and javascript so I'm probably omitting something very simple, but here is the script for the demo code: <script src="rainyday.js"></script> <script> function getURLParameter(name) { return decodeURIComponent((new RegExp('[?|&]' + name + '=' + '([^&;]+?)(&|#|;|$)').exec(location.search)||[,''])[1].replace(/\+/g, '%20'))||null; } function demo() { var image = document.getElementById('background'); image.onload = function () { var engine = null; var preset = getURLParameter('preset') || '1'; if (preset === '1') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.rain([ [1, 2, 8000] ]); engine.rain([ [3, 3, 0.88], [5, 5, 0.9], [6, 2, 1] ], 100); } else if (preset === '2') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.VARIABLE_GRAVITY_ANGLE = Math.PI / 8; engine.rain([ [0, 2, 0.5], [4, 4, 1] ], 50); } else if (preset === '3') { engine = new RainyDay({ element: 'background', blur: 10, opacity: 1, fps: 30, speed: 30 }); engine.trail = engine.TRAIL_SMUDGE; engine.rain([ [0, 2, 0.5], [4, 4, 1] ], 100); } }; image.crossOrigin = 'anonymous'; if (getURLParameter('imgur')) { image.src = 'http://i.imgur.com/' + getURLParameter('imgur') + '.jpg'; } else if (getURLParameter('img')) { image.src = getURLParameter('img') + '.jpg'; } var youtube = getURLParameter('youtube'); if (youtube) { var div = document.getElementById('sound'); var player = document.createElement('iframe'); player.frameborder = '0'; player.height = '1'; player.width = '1'; player.src = 'https://youtube.com/embed/' + youtube + '?autoplay=1&controls=0&showinfo=0&autohide=1&loop=1'; div.appendChild(player); } } </script> This is where I am naming my background and specifying the photo from within the directory. <body onload="demo();"> <div id="sound" style="z-index: -1;"></div> <div id="parent"> <img id='background' alt="background" src="city.jpg" /> </div> </body> The actual code for the whole entire rainyday.js script can be found here: https://github.com/maroslaw/rainyday.js/blob/master/rainyday.js Thanks in advance for any help and advice!

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