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• Is there a Standard or Best Practice for Perl Progams, as opposed to Perl Modules?

  - by swestrup

  I've written any number of perl modules in the past, and more than a few stand-alone perl programs, but I've never released a multi-file perl program into the wild before. I have a perl program that is almost at the beta stage and is going to be released open source. It requires a number of data files, as well as some external perl modules -- some I've written myself, and some from CPAN -- that I'll have to bundle with it so as to ensure that someone can just download my program and install it without worrying about hunting for obscure modules. So, it sounds to me like I need to write an installer to copy all the files to standard locations so that a user can easily install everything. The trouble is, I have no idea what the standard practice would be for this. I have found lots of tutorials on perl module standards, but none on perl program standards. Does anyone have any pointers to standard paths, installation proceedures, etc, for perl programs? This is going to be complicated by the fact that the program is multi-platform. I've been testing it in Linux, but its designed to work equally well in Windows.

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• Design pattern to use instead of multiple inheritance

  - by mizipzor

  Coming from a C++ background, Im used to multiple inheritance. I like the feeling of a shotgun squarely aimed at my foot. Nowadays, I work more in C# and Java, where you can only inherit one baseclass but implement any number of interfaces (did I get the terminology right?). For example, lets consider two classes that implement a common interface but different (yet required) baseclasses: public class TypeA : CustomButtonUserControl, IMagician { public void DoMagic() { // ... } } public class TypeB : CustomTextUserControl, IMagician { public void DoMagic() { // ... } } Both classes are UserControls so I cant substitute the base class. Both needs to implement the DoMagic function. My problem now is that both implementations of the function are identical. And I hate copy-and-paste code. The (possible) solutions: I naturally want TypeA and TypeB to share a common baseclass, where I can write that identical function definition just once. However, due to having the limit of just one baseclass, I cant find a place along the hierarchy where it fits. One could also try to implement a sort of composite pattern. Putting the DoMagic function in a separate helper class, but the function here needs (and modifies) quite a lot of internal variables/fields. Sending them all as (reference) parameters would just look bad. My gut tells me that the adapter pattern could have a place here, some class to convert between the two when necessery. But it also feels hacky. I tagged this with language-agnostic since it applies to all languages that use this one-baseclass-many-interfaces approach. Also, please point out if I seem to have misunderstood any of the patterns I named. In C++ I would just make a class with the private fields, that function implementation and put it in the inheritance list. Whats the proper approach in C#/Java and the like?

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• Dynamically load Jquery into .js page

  - by RussP

  Please excuse me if I'm simple here, I want to create a simple widget that people can access from their websites - e.g by copy/past something like <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> <div id="test"></div> anywhere in their web pages. where is dynamically filled via Jquery and the functions in/on test2.js. I can do it if JQuery is actually "printed" on the page of test2.js, but I cannot get any JQuery functions to work if I try to include/call JQuery dynamically. How do you call JQuery via javascript and then get it to work with the functions on the page? And/Or is there an easy way to add the <div id="test"></div> dynamically aswell? Sure I can body.append etc. but that only adds at the bottom of the page. Is there a way to .append in the position where the script include <script language="javascript" src="test2.js"></script> is actually placed? Hope I make sence.

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• How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

  - by emzero

  Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

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• iTextSharp last version doesnot support metadata?

  - by zp chen

  Console.WriteLine("Chapter 1 example 6: Meta Information"); // step 1: creation of a document-object Document document = new Document(); try { // step 2: // we create a writer that listens to the document // and directs a PDF-stream to a file PdfWriter.GetInstance(document, new FileStream("Chap0106.pdf", FileMode.Create)); // step 3: we add some metadata and open the document document.AddTitle("Hello World example"); document.AddSubject("This example explains step 6 in Chapter 1"); document.AddKeywords("Metadata, iText, step 6, tutorial"); document.AddCreator("My program using iText#"); document.AddAuthor("Bruno Lowagie"); document.AddHeader("Expires", "0"); document.Open(); // step 4: we add a paragraph to the document document.Add(new Paragraph("Hello World")); } catch (DocumentException de) { Console.Error.WriteLine(de.Message); } catch (IOException ioe) { Console.Error.WriteLine(ioe.Message); } // step 5: we close the document document.Close(); I am just copy the iTextSharp.tutorial. I get the pdf file Chap0106.pdf but metadata show nothing... I am use vs2008 xp system

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• Simple HTML problem with href

  - by pallab

  I am trying to create images hyperlinked to some URL's and hyperlinks donot seem to work. I am using the code as given below at http://windchimes.co.in/index_w%20-%20Copy.html Can you tell me why the hyperlinks to the icons are not workking? <td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;><a href="http://windchimes.co.in/blog" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="blog" alt="blog" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-blog.gif"></a></td><td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;> <a href="http://www.linkedin.com/groups?gid=120310" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="linkedin" alt="linkedin" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-linkedin.gif"></a></td><td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;> <a href="http://www.facebook.com/group.php?gid=72425590275" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="facebook" alt="facebook" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-facebook.gif"></a></td><td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;> <a href="http://twitter.com/windchimesindia" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="twitter" alt="twitter" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-twitter.gif"></a></td><td width="29" style="padding-bottom: 42px;> <a href="http://www.youtube.com/user/Windchimesindia" target="_blank"><img align="middle" title="Youtube" alt="Youtube" src="http://dl.dropbox.com/u/529534/windchimes/icon-youtube.gif"></a><td>

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• Iterating through controls on a Windows Form

  - by icemanind

  I seem to have some weird issue going on that I am sure will turn out to be a simple thing. I have a Windows Form and on the form I have 1 panel called MainPanel and inside MainPanel, I got another panel with a button inside and a label that is inside MainPanel, but not in the second panel. 2 controls. What I am trying to do is copy all the controls inside MainPanel over to another panel object. I am using the following C# code to do this: GUIPanel gp = new GUIPanel(); foreach (System.Windows.Forms.Control ctrl in gp.Controls["MainPanel"].Controls) { m_OptionsControl.Controls.Add(ctrl); } When I run this code, it copies over the panel with the button, but not the label. What's even more odd is when I set a breakpoint and run it through the debugger, and I type "?gp.Controls["MainPanel"].Controls.Count" in the immediate window, it returns 2, just like it should. However, when stepping through the code, it only executes the foreach loop once. What am I missing here?

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• Access problems with System.Diagnostics.Process in webservice

  - by Martin

  Hello everyone. I have problems with executing a process in a webservice method on a Windows Server 2003 machine. Here is the code: Dim target As String = "C:\dnscmd.exe" Dim fileInfo As System.IO.FileInfo = New System.IO.FileInfo(target) If Not fileInfo.Exists Then Throw New System.IO.FileNotFoundException("The requested file was not found: " + fileInfo.FullName) End If Dim startinfo As New System.Diagnostics.ProcessStartInfo("C:\dnscmd.exe") startinfo.UseShellExecute = False startinfo.Arguments = "\\MYCOMPUTER /recordadd mydomain.no " & dnsname & " CNAME myhost.mydomain.no" startinfo.UserName = "user1" Dim password As New SecureString() For Each c As Char In "secretpassword".ToCharArray() password.AppendChar(c) Next startinfo.Password = password Process.Start(startinfo) I know the process is being executed because i use processmonitor.exe on the server and it tells me that c:\dnscmd.exe is called with the right parameters Full command line value from procmon is: "C:\dnscmd.exe" \MYCOMPUTER /recordadd mydomain.no mysubdomain CNAME myhost.mydomain.no The user of the created process on the server is NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM. BUT, the dns entry will not be added! Here is the weird thing: I KNOW the user (user1) I authenticate with has administrative rights (it's the same user I use to log on the machine with), but the user of the process in procmon says NT AUTHORITY\SYSTEM (which is not the user i use to authenticate). Weirdest: If i log on to the server, copy the command line value read from the procmon logging, and paste it in a command line window, it works! Reading procmon after this shows that user1 owns the dnscmd process. Why doesn't user1 become owner of the process started with system.diagnostics.process? Is the reason why the command doesn't work?

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• Command not write in buffer with Expect

  - by Romuald

  Hello, I try to backup a Linkproof device with expect script and i have some trouble. It's my first script in expect and i have reach my limits ;) #!/usr/bin/expect spawn ssh @IPADDRESS expect "username:" # Send the username, and then wait for a password prompt. send "@username\r" expect "password:" # Send the password, and then wait for a shell prompt. send "@password\r" expect "#" # Send the prebuilt command, and then wait for another shell prompt. send "system config immediate\r" #Send space to pass the pause expect -re "^ *--More--\[^\n\r]*" send "" expect -re "^ *--More--\[^\n\r]*" send "" expect -re "^ *--More--\[^\n\r]*" send "" # Capture the results of the command into a variable. This can be displayed, or written to disk. sleep 10 expect -re .* set results $expect_out(buffer) # Copy buffer in a file set config [open linkproof.txt w] puts $config $results close $config # Exit the session. expect "#" send "logout\r" expect eof The content of the output file: The authenticity of host '@IP (XXX.XXX.XXX.XXX)' can't be established. RSA key fingerprint is XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX. Are you sure you want to continue connecting (yes/no)? @username Please type 'yes' or 'no': @password Please type 'yes' or 'no': system config immediate Please type 'yes' or 'no': Like you can see, the result of the command is not in the file. Could you, please, help me to understantd why ? Thanks for your help. Romuald

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• Open Source: Why not release into Public Domain?

  - by Goosey

  I have recently been wondering why so little code is ever released as 'Public Domain'. MIT and BSD licenses are becoming extremely popular and practically only have the restriction of license propagation. The reasons I can think of so far are: Credit - aka Prestige, Street-cred, 'Props', etc. Authors don't want usage of the code restricted, but they also want credit for creating the code. Two problems with this reason. I have seen projects copy/paste the MIT or BSD license without adding the 'Copyright InsertNameHere' thereby making it a tag-along license that doesn't give them credit. I have talked to authors who say they don't care about people giving them credit, they just want people to use their code. Public Domain would make it easier for people to do so. License Change - IANAL, but I believe by licensing their code, even with an extremely nonrestrictive license, this means they can change the license on a later revision? This reason is not good for explaining most BSD/MIT licensed code which seems to have no intent of ever becoming more restrictive. AS IS - All licenses seem to have the SCREAMING CAPS declaration saying that the software is 'as is' and that the author offers no implied or express warranty. IANAL, but isn't this implied in public domain? Am I missing some compelling reason? The authors I have talked to about this basically said something along the lines of "BSD/MIT just seems like what you do, no one does public domain". Is this groupthink in action, or is there a compelling anti-public domain argument? Thanks EDIT: I am specifically asking about Public Domain vs BSD/MIT/OtherEquallyUnrestrictiveLicense. Not GPL. Please understand what these licenses allow, and this includes: Selling the work, changing the work and not 'giving the changes back', and incorporating the work in a differently (such as commercially) licensed work. Thank You to everyone who has replied who understands what BSD/MIT means.

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• Three.js: texture to datatexture

  - by Alessandro Pezzato

  I'm trying to implement a delayed webcam viewer in javascript, using Three.js for WebGL capabilities. I need to store frames grabbed from webcam, so they can be shown after some time (some milliseconds to some seconds). I'm able to do this without Three.js, using canvas and getImageData(). You can find an example on jsfidle. I'm trying to find a way to do this without canvas, but using Three.js Texture or DataTexture object. Here an example of what I'm trying. The problem is that I cannot find how to copy the image from a Texture (image is of type HTMLVideoElement) to another. In rotateFrames() function the older frame should be lost and newer should replace, like in a FIFO. But the line frames[i].image = frames[i + 1].image; is just copying the reference, not the texture data. I guess DataTexture should do this, but I'm not able to get a DataTexture out of a Texture or HTMLVideoElement. Any idea?

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• Running directx SDK samples on a Windows Mobile 6.1 device

  - by Sil

  I tried to run the directx samples from ..\Windows Mobile 6 SDK\Samples\PocketPC\CPP\win32\directx\d3dm\tutorials on a Samsung Omnia and on the emulator and it doesn't work because of a deployment error. I am using Microsoft Visual Studio 2008 and have installed Windows Mobile SDK Standard and Professional refresh. The device is correctly plugged in and set up for active sync (I know this because other samples work, also a creating Win32 smart device application and running it works). When I try to run a directx sample application it compiles without errors but the message: " There were deployment errors, Continue? Yes/No" appears If I manually copy the application from the debug folder to the device and run it from there, it works. The same deployment error message appears if I try it on an emulator. Other applications are deploying successfully. Is there any way to make the deployment work? Maybe there is an obscure option I need to set... What I do is: Connect the Mobile device to the PC, Open Visual Studio 2008, Open a directx sample project, Click Run (in Debug or Release mode).

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• .NET Sockets Buffer Overflow No Error

  - by Michael Covelli

  I have one thread that is receiving data over a socket like this: while (sock.Connected) { // Receive Data (Block if no data) recvn = sock.Receive(recvb, 0, rlen, SocketFlags.None, out serr); if (recvn <= 0 || sock == null || !sock.Connected) { OnError("Error In Receive, recvn <= 0 || sock == null || !sock.Connected"); return; } else if (serr != SocketError.Success) { OnError("Error In Receive, serr = " + serr); return; } // Copy Data Into Tokenizer tknz.Read(recvb, recvn); // Parse Data while (tknz.MoveToNext()) { try { ParseMessageAndRaiseEvents(tknz.Buffer(), tknz.Length); } catch (System.Exception ex) { string BadMessage = ByteArrayToStringClean(tknz.Buffer(), tknz.Length); string msg = string.Format("Exception in MDWrapper Parsing Message, Ex = {0}, Msg = {1}", ex.Message, BadMessage); OnError(msg); } } } And I kept seeing occasional errors in my parsing function indicating that the message wasn't valid. At first, I thought that my tokenizer class was broken. But after logging all the incoming bytes to the tokenizer, it turns out that the raw bytes in recvb weren't a valid message. I didn't think that corrupted data like this was possible with a tcp data stream. I figured it had to be some type of buffer overflow so I set sock.ReceiveBufferSize = 1024 * 1024 * 8; and the parsing error never, ever occurs in testing (it happens often enough to replicate if I don't change the ReceiveBufferSize). But my question is: why wasn't I seeing an exception or an error state or something if the socket's internal buffer was overflowing before I changed this buffer size?

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• Programmatically modifying a file on Windows Server 2008 (Web Ed.)

  - by Tom

  I have written a .NET 2008 application, incorporating Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel, that modifies an existing Excel 2007 spreadsheet. It works perfectly on my WinXP development computer. When I upload the app to a Microsoft Web Server 2008, it opens the file and reads from the file, but when the app tries to save the file, it throws this exception: "System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x800A03EC): 'july2009.xlsx' is read-only. To save a copy, click OK, then give the workbook a new name in the Save As dialog box." The file is NOT read-only, nor is it opened by any other user or app. The app and the Excel file both reside on the D: (data-only) drive. My first instinct was to look at file permissions. When nothing else worked, I literally created a temporary Group, added EVERY user and security entity to it and granted the group full control of the entire D: drive. No luck. Then I tried manually elevating the permission by running my app as administrator. No luck. Finally, I copied the file to my XP development computer and ran the app there. Of course it worked perfectly. Can anyone please tell me how to give my program permission to edit a file on Server 2008? Thanks!

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• Possible to Inspect Innards of Core C# Functionality

  - by Nick Babcock

  I was struck today, with the inclination to compare the innards of Buffer.BlockCopy and Array.CopyTo. I am curious to see if Array.CopyTo called Buffer.BlockCopy behind the scenes. There is no practical purpose behind this, I just want to further my understanding of the C# language and how it is implemented. Don't jump the gun and accuse me of micro-optimization, but you can accuse me of being curious! When I ran ILasm on mscorlib.dll I received this for Array.CopyTo .method public hidebysig newslot virtual final instance void CopyTo(class System.Array 'array', int32 index) cil managed { // Code size 0 (0x0) } // end of method Array::CopyTo and this for Buffer.BlockCopy .method public hidebysig static void BlockCopy(class System.Array src, int32 srcOffset, class System.Array dst, int32 dstOffset, int32 count) cil managed internalcall { .custom instance void System.Security.SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) } // end of method Buffer::BlockCopy Which, frankly, baffles me. I've never run ILasm on a dll/exe I didn't create. Does this mean that I won't be able to see how these functions are implemented? Searching around only revealed a stackoverflow question, which Marc Gravell said [Buffer.BlockCopy] is basically a wrapper over a raw mem-copy While insightful, it doesn't answer my question if Array.CopyTo calls Buffer.BlockCopy. I'm specifically interested in if I'm able to see how these two functions are implemented, and if I had future questions about the internals of C#, if it is possible for me to investigate it. Or am I out of luck?

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• Why might stable_sort be affecting my hashtable values?

  - by zebraman

  I have defined a struct ABC to contain an int ID, string NAME, string LAST_NAME; My procedure is this: Read in a line from an input file. Parse each line into first name and last name and insert into the ABC struct. Also, the struct's ID is given by the number of the input line. Then, push_back the struct into a vector masterlist. I am also hashing these to a hashtable defined as vector< vector , using first name and last name as keywords. That is, If my data is: Garfield Cat Snoopy Dog Cat Man Then for the keyword cash hashes to a vector containing Garfield Cat and Cat Man. I insert the structs into the hashtable using push_back again. The problem is, when I call stable_sort on my masterlist, my hashtable is affected for some reason. I thought it might be happening since the songs are being ordered differently, so I tried making a copy of the masterlist and sorting it and it still affects the hashtable though the original masterlist is unaffected. Any ideas why this might be happening?

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• mod_rewrite/GoDaddy problem

  - by John Deerhake

  Ok, so I really don't know much about mod_rewrite and I'm looking over the apache docs and still not figuring this out. Here is my htaccess (which is mostly just copy & pasted from a site I found): .htaccess in base dir: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ public/ [L] RewriteRule (.*) public/$1 [L] </IfModule> .htaccess in /public dir: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [PT,L] </IfModule> Basically I'm using the above htaccess files on my current test server and it works great and exactly like I would expect (everything gets seamlessly redirected to public dir). Now when I throw this on my GoDaddy hosting account i get "Internal Server Errror". I've done some searching and I'm fairly certain I should be able to use mod_rewrite with GoDaddy. I suspect this is because I'm not using the base directory to host the site in. The site is in in the folder html/myapp/ (where html is the base directory) and i have a subdomain set up in GoDaddy to look in that folder.

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• How to connect remote EJB module from application client

  - by Zeck

  Hi guys, I have a EJB module in remote Glassfish server and application client in my computer. I want to connect from the application client to the remote EJB. Here is the my EJB interface: @Remote public interface BookEJBRemote { public String getTitle(); } Here is the my ejb: @Stateless public class BookEJB implements BookEJBRemote { @Override public String getTitle() { return "Twenty Thousand Leagues Under the Sea"; } } I have several questions : Can I use Dependency Injection in the remote application client to connect to the ejb? If so what can i do to achieve this. Do i need to configure in the sun-ejb-jar.xml and sun-application-client.xml? In other words, if i use DI like @EJB MyEJBRemote ejb; How application client container know what ejb to be injected? Where should i specify the information? How can i run the application client? I tried to run package-appclient in the glassfish server to get appclient.jar and copy it to my computer. Then i type appclient.jar -client myAppClient.jar . It didn't work. How do i point the target server? if i cannot use DI in the client then i guess i have to use JNDI lookup. Do i need to configure jndi name in sun-ejb-jar.xml or in the sun-application-client.xml? No matter how i try i never manage to run application client ? Can you guys put some working example? And thank you for every advises and examples?

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• Extension Method for copying properties form object to another, with first attempt

  - by James

  Hi All, Im trying to write an extension method that I can use to copy values from one object property to another object of a different type, as long as the property names and types match exactly. This is what I have: public static T CopyFrom<T>(this T toObject, object fromObject) { var fromObjectType = fromObject.GetType(); var fromProperties = fromObjectType.GetProperties(); foreach (PropertyInfo toProperty in toObject.GetType().GetProperties()) { PropertyInfo fromProperty = fromObjectType.GetProperty(toProperty.Name); if (fromProperty != null) // match found { // check types var fromType = fromProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; var toType = toProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; if (toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType)) { toProperty.SetValue(toObject, fromProperty.GetValue(fromObject, null), null); } } } return toObject; } This is working great for non boxed types, but Nullable<T> returns false when I call toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType) because its type is Nullable<T> and is not the underlying type T. I read here that GetType() should unbox the Nullable<T> so it returns T but if I call that on PropertyInfo.PropertyType I get ReflectedMemberInfo and not the type T im looking for. I think im missing something obvious here, so I thought I would throw it open to SO to get some advice. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Jamee

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• Why does the .NET tab in the 'Add Reference' dialog in Visual Studio not list the contents of the GA

  - by abroun

  Duplicate of: Getting assemblies to show in the .NET tab of Add Reference So, I'm using Visual C# 2008 Express Edition and I've just been on a bit of a detour as I found out that my assumption that the .NET tab of the 'Add Reference' dialog lists the contents of the GAC was incorrect. This was a bit of a problem for me as the assembly that I wanted to reference from my project was only available in the GAC. (It was Microsoft.XNA.Framework v2.0 obtained from the XNA 2.0 redistributalbe and as far as I could see it installed only into the GAC). I worked round the problem by setting the reference to Microsoft.XNA.Framework manually in the .csproj file and then getting a copy of the dll out of the cache. I was then able to create a directory for the DLL, add it to Visual Studio's list of assembly directories in the registry and then voila! I could see it in the .NET tab. This all seems like a bit of a faff to me and I don't think that my initial assumption (that the .NET tab shows the contents of the GAC) was that unreasonable or would be that uncommon. Can someone who knows more than me tell me why the contents of the GAC aren't shown? The documentation just says that they are not, but is there a good reason? is there actually a way to get the entire contents of the GAC to be listed? A tick box I've missed somewhere? Any info much appreciated.

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• Connection reset when calling disconnect() using enterprisedt's ftp java framework

  - by Frederik Wordenskjold

  I'm having trouble disconnecting from a ftp-server, using the enterprisedt java ftp framework. I can simply not call disconnect() on a FileTransferClient object without getting an error. I do not do anything, besides connecting to the server, and then disconnecting: // create client log.info("Creating FTP client"); ftp = new FileTransferClient(); // set remote host log.info("Setting remote host"); ftp.setRemoteHost(host); ftp.setUserName(username); ftp.setPassword(password); // connect to the server log.info("Connecting to server " + host); ftp.connect(); log.info("Connected and logged in to server " + host); // Shut down client log.info("Quitting client"); ftp.disconnect(); log.info("Example complete"); When running this, the log reads: INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.216 : Creating FTP client INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.263 : Setting remote host INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.263 : Connecting to server x INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.979 : Connected and logged in to server x INFO [test] 28 maj 2010 16:57:20.979 : Quitting client ERROR [FTPControlSocket] 28 maj 2010 16:57:21.026 : Read failed ('' read so far) And the stacktrace: com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.ControlChannelIOException: Connection reset at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.readLine(FTPControlSocket.java:1029) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.readReply(FTPControlSocket.java:1089) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPControlSocket.sendCommand(FTPControlSocket.java:988) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FTPClient.quit(FTPClient.java:4044) at com.enterprisedt.net.ftp.FileTransferClient.disconnect(FileTransferClient.java:1034) at test.main(test.java:46) It should be noted, that I without problems can connect, and do stuff with the server, like getting a list of files in the current working directory. But I cant, for some reason, disconnect! I've tried using both active and passive mode. The above example is by the way copy/pasted from their own example. I cannot fint ANYTHING related to this by doing a Google-search, so I was hoping you have any suggestions, or experience with this issue.

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• How to find that Mutex in C# is acquired?

  - by TN

  How can I find from mutex handle in C# that a mutex is acquired? When mutex.WaitOne(timeout) timeouts, it returns false. However, how can I find that from the mutex handle? (Maybe using p/invoke.) UPDATE: public class InterProcessLock : IDisposable { readonly Mutex mutex; public bool IsAcquired { get; private set; } public InterProcessLock(string name, TimeSpan timeout) { bool created; var security = new MutexSecurity(); security.AddAccessRule(new MutexAccessRule(new SecurityIdentifier(WellKnownSidType.WorldSid, null), MutexRights.Synchronize | MutexRights.Modify, AccessControlType.Allow)); mutex = new Mutex(false, name, out created, security); IsAcquired = mutex.WaitOne(timeout); } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { if (IsAcquired) mutex.ReleaseMutex(); } #endregion } Currently, I am using my own property IsAcquired to determine whether I should release a mutex. Not essential but clearer, would be not to use a secondary copy of the information represented by IsAcquired property, but rather to ask directly the mutex whether it is acquired by me. Since calling mutex.ReleaseMutex() throws an exception if it is not acquired by me. (By acquired state I mean that the mutex is in not-signaled state when I am owning the mutex.)

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• How do I best remove the unicode characters that XHTML regards as non-valid using php?

  - by Andrew Stacey

  I run a forum designed to support an international mathematics group. I've recently switched it to unicode for better support of international characters. In debugging this conversion, I've discovered that not all unicode characters are considered as valid XHTML (the relevant website appears to be http://www.w3.org/TR/unicode-xml/). One of the steps that the forum software goes through before presenting the posts to the browser is an XHTML validation/sanitisation step. It seems a reasonable idea that at that stage it should remove any unicode characters that XHTML doesn't like. So my question is: Is there a standard (or best) way of doing this in PHP? (The forum is written in PHP, by the way.) I guess that the failsafe would be a simple str_replace (if that's also the best, do I need to do anything extra to make sure it works properly with unicode?) but that would involve me having to go through the XHTML DTD (or the above-referenced W3 page) carefully to figure out what characters to list in the search part of str_replace, so if this is the best way, has someone already done that so that I can steal, err, copy, it? (Incidentally, the character that caused the problem was U+000C, the 'formfeed', which (according to the W3 page) is valid HTML but invalid XHTML!)

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• Splitting MS Access Database - Front End Part Location

  - by kristof

  One of the best practices as specified by Microsoft for Access Development is splitting Access application into 2 parts; Front End that hold all the object except tables and the Back End that holds the tables. The msdn page links there to the article Splitting Microsoft Access Databases to Improve Performance and Simplify Maintainability that describes the process in details. It is recommended that in multi user environment the Back End is stored on the server/shared folder while the Front End is distributed to each user. That implies that each time there are any changes made to the front end they need to be deployed to every user machine. My question is: Assuming that the users themselves do not have rights to modify the Front End part of the application what would be the drawbacks/dangers of leaving this on the server as well next to the Back End copy? I can see the performance issues here, but are there any dangers here like possible corruptions etc? Thank you EDIT Just to clarify, the scenario specified in question assumes one Front End stored on the server and shared by users. I understand that the recommendation is to have FE deployed to each user machine, but my question is more about what are the dangers if that is not done. E.g. when you are given an existing solution that uses the approach of both FE and BE on the server. Assuming the the performance is acceptable and the customer is reluctant to change the approach would you still push the change? And why exactly? For example the danger of possible data corruption would definitely be the strong enough argument, but is that the case? It is a part of follow up of my previous question From SQL Server to MS Access 2007

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• Creating a content management system for dedicated use

  - by whitstone86

  I've been trying to create a specialised CMS, as none of the current open-source ones fit my needs for this project. I did my research on Google, tried multiple times but haven't got very far with this project. I'm trying to create a CMS for a TV/episode guide which is similar to this: (for some that don't have the :// just copy-and-paste and add it after http in the URL) http library.digiguide.com/lib/programmenextshowing/Police%2C+Camera%2C+Action!-12578 (one such example) - where records expire and delete from the database after expiration. This is the design I'm trying to emulate: http library.digiguide.com/lib/programme/24-84241/Drama/ - the programme http://library.digiguide.com/lib/episode/Under+Surveillance-714873 - a typical episode, could use .htaccess to remove php from name http library.digiguide.com/lib/programmenextshowing/24-84241 - paginated episode display (using script that I found in search here possibly) I don't have access to cron job as it's on Windows/Apache, so that's out the question for this one. I'm not sure how to go about this successfully, anyone got any advice? (Note:Although the linked site runs in ASP.NET, it's the design and feel of it I'm trying to emulate, except in PHP. I've managed to emulate that site's design, but with my own tweaks to it.)

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