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  • iPad: Move UIView with animation, then move it back

    - by Joel
    I have the following code in a UIView subclass that will move it off the screen with an animation: float currentX = xposition; //variables that store where the UIView is located float currentY = yposition; float targetX = -5.0f - self.width; float targetY = -5.0f - self.height; moveX = targetX - currentX; //stored as an instance variable so I can hang on to it and move it back moveY = targetY - currentY; [UIView beginAnimations:@"UIBase Hide" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:duration]; self.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeTranslation(moveX,moveY); [UIView commitAnimations]; It works just great. I've changed targetX/Y to 0 to see if it does indeed move to the specified point, and it does. The problem is when I try and move the view back to where it was originally: moveX = -moveX; moveY = -moveY; [UIView beginAnimations:@"UIBase Show" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:duration]; self.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeTranslation(moveX,moveY); [UIView commitAnimations]; This puts the UIView about 3x as far as it should. So the view usually gets put off the right side of the screen (depending on where it is). Is there something with the CGAffineTransforMakeTranslation function that I should know? I read the documentation, and from what I can tell, it should be doing what I'm expecting it to do. Anyone have a suggestion of how to fix this? Thanks.

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  • Is it possible to seletively color a wrapping TextBlock in Silverlight/WPF

    - by joemoe
    For instance, if I have a TextBlock: "Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisicing elit, sed do eiusmod tempor incididunt ut labore et dolore magna aliqua. Ut enim ad minim veniam, quis nostrud exercitation ullamco laboris nisi ut aliquip ex ea commodo consequat. Duis aute irure dolor in reprehenderit in voluptate velit esse cillum dolore eu fugiat nulla pariatur. Excepteur sint occaecat cupidatat non proident, sunt in culpa qui officia deserunt mollit anim id est laborum." I want the first 10% of this TextBlock, such that the font color should be red, and the rest should be green. This perhaps means it would color the "Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipisici", and part of the "n". Basically pixel-wise font coloring instead of character-wise. Another important behavior is that the percentage respects the wrapping, in that if 50% of the TextBlock contents is colored, it should mean 50% of the text in reading order is colored, and not the first half of the block. For example, this is a similar question (with correct answers), but regarding Label/TextBlocks with no wrapping: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2394421/is-it-possible-to-seletively-color-a-label-in-silverlight

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  • Using db4o with multiple application instances under medium trust

    - by Anders Fjeldstad
    I recently stumbled over the object database engine db4o which I think looks really interesting. I would like to use it in an ASP.NET MVC application that will be deployed to a shared hosting environment under medium trust. Because of the trust level, I'm restricted to using db4o in embedded/in-process mode. That in itself should be no problem, but the hosting provider also transparently runs each web application in multiple (load-balanced) server instances with shared storage, which I would say is normally a very nice feature for a $10/month hoster. However, since an instance of a db4o server with write access (whether in-process or networked) locks the underlying database file, having multiple instances of the application using the same file won't work (or at least I can't see how it would). So the question is: is it possible to use db4o in this specific environment? I have considered letting each application have its own database which is synchronized with a master database using replication (dRS), but that approach will most likely end up with very frequent bi-directional replication (read master changes at beginning of each request, write to master after each change) which I don't think will be very efficient. Summary of the web application/environment characteristics: Read-intensive (but not entirely read-only) Some delay (a few seconds) is acceptible between the time that a change is made and the time when the change shows up in all the application instances' data Must run in medium trust No guarantee that the load-balancer uses "sticky sessions" All suggestions are much appreciated!

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  • ValidationException class version mismatch

    - by suszterpatt
    I have a simple EJB application that I can deploy and test on a local WebLogic instance (v10.3.0.0) without problems. I need to deploy this on a remote WL server (v10.3.3.0), and test it from a local machine. Deployment is successful, but when I try to run any of the clients from JDeveloper, I get this error: <2010.06.02. 16:08:36 CEST> <Error> <RJVM> <BEA-000503> <Incoming message header or abbreviation processing failed java.io.InvalidClassException: org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.ValidationException; local class incompatible: stream classdesc serialVersionUID = 3793659634176227230, local class serialVersionUID = -7605463488982202416 java.io.InvalidClassException: org.eclipse.persistence.exceptions.ValidationException; local class incompatible: stream classdesc serialVersionUID = 3793659634176227230, local class serialVersionUID = -7605463488982202416 at java.io.ObjectStreamClass.initNonProxy(ObjectStreamClass.java:562) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readNonProxyDesc(ObjectInputStream.java:1583) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readClassDesc(ObjectInputStream.java:1496) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readObject0(ObjectInputStream.java:1316) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readObject(ObjectInputStream.java:351) at weblogic.rjvm.ClassTableEntry.readExternal(ClassTableEntry.java:36) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readExternalData(ObjectInputStream.java:1792) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readOrdinaryObject(ObjectInputStream.java:1751) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readObject0(ObjectInputStream.java:1329) at java.io.ObjectInputStream.readObject(ObjectInputStream.java:351) at weblogic.rjvm.InboundMsgAbbrev.readObject(InboundMsgAbbrev.java:65) at weblogic.rjvm.InboundMsgAbbrev.read(InboundMsgAbbrev.java:37) at weblogic.rjvm.MsgAbbrevJVMConnection.readMsgAbbrevs(MsgAbbrevJVMConnection.java:227) at weblogic.rjvm.MsgAbbrevInputStream.init(MsgAbbrevInputStream.java:173) at weblogic.rjvm.MsgAbbrevJVMConnection.dispatch(MsgAbbrevJVMConnection.java:439) at weblogic.rjvm.t3.MuxableSocketT3.dispatch(MuxableSocketT3.java:322) at weblogic.socket.AbstractMuxableSocket.dispatch(AbstractMuxableSocket.java:394) at weblogic.socket.SocketMuxer.readReadySocketOnce(SocketMuxer.java:917) at weblogic.socket.SocketMuxer.readReadySocket(SocketMuxer.java:849) at weblogic.socket.JavaSocketMuxer.processSockets(JavaSocketMuxer.java:283) at weblogic.socket.SocketReaderRequest.run(SocketReaderRequest.java:29) at weblogic.work.ExecuteRequestAdapter.execute(ExecuteRequestAdapter.java:21) at weblogic.kernel.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:145) at weblogic.kernel.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:117) Can anyone explain why I'm getting this error, and what I can do to resolve it?

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  • Issue with VS 2008 designer and usercontrol.

    - by Ram
    Hello, I have created a custom data grid control. I dragged it on windows form and set its properties like column and all & ran the project. It built successfully and I am able to view the grid control on the form. Now if i try to view that form in designer, I am getting following error.. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Instances of this error (1) 1. Hide Call Stack at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.GetMemberTargetObject(XmlElementData xmlElementData, String& member) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.CreateAssignStatement(XmlElementData xmlElement) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.XmlElementData.get_CodeDomElement() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.EndElement(String prefix, String name, String urn) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.Parse(XmlReader reader) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.XML.CodeDomXmlProcessor.ParseXml(String xmlStream, CodeStatementCollection statementCollection, String fileName, String methodName) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomParser.OnMethodPopulateStatements(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.CodeDom.CodeMemberMethod.get_Statements() at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.TypeCodeDomSerializer.Deserialize(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeTypeDeclaration declaration) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager manager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.PerformLoad(IDesignerSerializationManager serializationManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.Design.Serialization.CodeDom.VSCodeDomDesignerLoader.DeferredLoadHandler.Microsoft.VisualStudio.TextManager.Interop.IVsTextBufferDataEvents.OnLoadCompleted(Int32 fReload) If I ignore the exception, form appears blank with no sign of grid control on it. However I can see the code for the grid in the designer file. Any pointer on this would be a great help.

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  • Using IOC in a remoting scenario

    - by Christoph
    I'm struggling with getting IOC to work in a remoting scenario. I have my application server set up to publish Services (SingleCall) which are configured via XML. This works just like this as we all know: RemotingConfiguration.Configure(ConfigFile, true); lets say my service looks like that (pseudocode) public class TourService : ITourService { IRepository _repository; public TourService() { _repository = new SqlServerRepository(); } } But what I rather would like to have sure looks like this: public class TourService : ITourService { IRepository _repository; public TourService(IRepository repository) { _repository = repository; } } On the client side we do something like that (pseudocode again): (ITourService)Activator.GetObject(ITourService, tcp://server/uri); This prompts the server to create a new instance of my TourService class... However this doesn't seem to work out well because the .NET Remoting Infrastructure want's to know the type it should publish but I would rather like to point it to the way how it could retrieve the object it should publish. In other words, route it through the IOC process pipe of - let's say windsor castle - for example. Currently I'm a bit lost on that task...

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  • Tab bar controller inside a navigation controller, or sharing a navigation root view

    - by Daniel Dickison
    I'm trying to implement a UI structured like in the Tweetie app, which behaves as so: the top-level view controller seems to be a navigation controller, whose root view is an "Accounts" table view. If you click on any account, it goes to the second level, which has a tab bar across the bottom. Each tab item shows a different list and lets you drill down further (the subsequent levels don't show the tab bar). So, this seems like the implementation hierarchy is: UINavigationController Accounts: UITableViewController UITabBarController Tweets: UITableViewController Detail view of a tweet/user/etc Replies: UITableViewController ... This seems to work[^1], but appears to be unsupported according to the SDK documentation for -pushViewController:animated: (emphasis added): viewController: The view controller that is pushed onto the stack. It cannot be an instance of tab bar controller. I would like to avoid private APIs and the like, but I'm not sure why this usage is explicitly prohibited even when it seems to work fine. Anyone know the reason? I've thought about putting the tab bar controller as the main controller, with each of the tabs containing separate navigation controllers. The problem with this is that each nav controller needs to share a single root view controller (namely the "Accounts" table in Tweetie) -- this doesn't seem to work: pushing the table controller to a second nav controller seems to remove it from the first. Not to mention all the book-keeping when selecting a different account would probably be a pain. How should I implement this the Right Way? [^1]: The tab bar controller needs to be subclassed so that the tab bar controller's navigation item at that level stays in sync with the selected tab's navigation item, and the individual tab's table controller's need to push their respective detail views to self.tabBarController.navigationController instead of self.navigationController.

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  • Upgrade to Azure 2.2 SDK is causing roles to fail

    - by Jon Leach
    I have 3 worker roles and a web role in my project and I upgraded it to the new 2.2 SDK (required in VS2013). Ever since the upgrade, all of the worker roles are failing and they instantly recycle as soon as they're started. When the roles start, I'm getting these messages: Microsoft.WindowsAzure.ServiceRuntime Information: 200 : Role entrypoint . CALLING OnStart() Microsoft.WindowsAzure.ServiceRuntime Information: 202 : Role entrypoint . COMPLETED OnStart() The thread 0x441c has exited with code 259 (0x103). Microsoft.WindowsAzure.ServiceRuntime Information: 203 : Role entrypoint . CALLING Run() Microsoft.WindowsAzure.ServiceRuntime Warning: 204 : Role entrypoint . COMPLETED Run() ==> ROLE RECYCLING INITIATED Microsoft.WindowsAzure.ServiceRuntime Information: 503 : Role instance recycling is starting The thread 0x2684 has exited with code 259 (0x103) Two things draw my attention: I've started to see a bunch of errors "Cannot find or open the PDB file." But I don't know that this is directly relevant. I'm using VS 2013 and while the project lists the SDK as 2.2, the references within the roles are the 2.1 versions. Do I need to upgrade the components? Why wouldn't the project upgrade these automatically when I pulled the project into VS as it only support 2.2? Any thoughts on how to attach this are appreciated.

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  • Help/Questions About New Team Foundation Server 2010 Installation

    - by user579218
    Hello. Before starting down the TFS2010 installation process, I have a few questions I'm hoping the community can help me with. We're planning on a single-server installation of TFS2010. Initially, we want version/source control and build services, but not reporting or SharePoint. We may add reporting and SharePoint capabilities later. Our environment will be Windows Server 2008 R2 (x64), SQL Server 2008 R2 (x64), Office 2010 (x86), Visual Studio 6 and 2010, and, of course, Team Foundation Server 2010. Can I install TFS2010 on a server that is on our domain? It's not a domain controller, it's just a member server on the domain. Should I install TFS2010 before or after putting the server on the domain? We have six developers that will be logging into their local development computers (which are also on the same domain) using their domain user accounts, do I add each domain user to the TFS2010 server's security groups? If so, which one(s)? Can I or should I use a domain user account as the TFS2010 service account? Or, should I just use Network Service? The TFS2010 install guide notes that none of the service accounts should belong to the Administrators security group, so which security group(s) are recommended for the service account(s)? We're planning on using a local instance of SQL Server 2008 R2 Standard with TFS2010, what service account should we use? Should we use the same domain account as TFS2010 or Local System or ?? The TFS2010 install guide isn't very specific on this. Since we're planning on this server being both the version/source control and build server, should we install our development environments (VS6, VS2010, Access2010) before installing TFS2010? Or does it matter? Thanks in advance for answering these questions.

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  • Getting Nested Object Property Value Using Reflection

    - by Kumar
    I have the following two classes: public class Address { public string AddressLine1 { get; set; } public string AddressLine2 { get; set; } public string City { get; set; } public string State { get; set; } public string Zip { get; set; } } public class Employee { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string MiddleName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } public Address EmployeeAddress { get; set; } } I have an instance of the employee class as follows: var emp1Address = new Address(); emp1Address.AddressLine1 = "Microsoft Corporation"; emp1Address.AddressLine2 = "One Microsoft Way"; emp1Address.City = "Redmond"; emp1Address.State = "WA"; emp1Address.Zip = "98052-6399"; var emp1 = new Employee(); emp1.FirstName = "Bill"; emp1.LastName = "Gates"; emp1.EmployeeAddress = emp1Address; I have a method which gets the property value based on the property name as follows: public object GetPropertyValue(object obj ,string propertyName) { var objType = obj.GetType(); var prop = objType.GetProperty(propertyName); return prop.GetValue(obj, null); } The above method works fine for calls like GetPropertyValue(emp1, "FirstName") but if I try GetPropertyValue(emp1, "Address.AddressLine1") it throws an exception because objType.GetProperty(propertyName); is not able to locate the nested object property value. Is there a way to fix this?

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  • CGContextSetShadow() - shadow direction reversed between iOS 3.0 and 4.0?

    - by Pascal
    I've been using CGContextSetShadowWithColor() in my Quartz drawing code on the iPhone to generate the "stomped in" look for text and other things (in drawRect: and drawLayer:inContext:). Worked perfectly, but when running the exact same code against iOS 3.2 and now iOS 4.0 I noticed that the shadows are all in the opposite direction. E.g. in the following code I set a black shadow to be 1 pixel above the text, which gave it a "pressed in" look, and now this shadow is 1px below the text, giving it a standard shadow. ... CGContextSetShadowWithColor(context, CGSizeMake(0.f, 1.f), 0.5f, shadowColor); CGContextShowGlyphsAtPoint(context, origin.x, origin.y, glyphs, length); ... Now I don't know whether I am (or have been) doing something wrong or whether there has been a change to the handling of this setting. I haven't applied any transformation that would explain this to me, at least not knowingly. I've flipped the text matrix in one instance, but not in others and this behavior is consistent. Plus I wasn't able to find anything about this in the SDK Release Notes, so it looks like it's probably me. What might be the issue?

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  • Issues Connecting to SQLExpress using Oracle SQL Developer

    - by ArtDeveloper
    Hey Guys, I'm trying to create a connection inside Oracle SQL Developer to a SQLExpress database I have Everything I have resides on the same machine so there isn't any network issues I should have to deal with but everytime I follow the instructions and I try to connect I get the following message "Failure - Unable to get information from SQL Server: localhost." I can connect to the SQLExpress DB using the SQL Management Studio and through an ODBC connection. I've installed the third party extensions and I've enabled the TCP protocol on the SQL Server Configuration manager as well as enabled the IP Addresses I'm assuming that the SQLExpress Database is on port 1433 because I didn't change this when I installed but if someone can tell me how to double check that I would appreciate that info as well. I setup the new connection with the following information name: databasename I'm using windows authentication so the username and password aren't filled in host:localhost port:1433/databasename;instance=SQLEXPRESS *databasename - this is replaced with the actual DB name I've just changed the name here to protect the innocent I've spent about a full day on this trying to get it connected and many google attempts where other ppl have had this issue but have gotten it solved through various methods that I've tried and it hasn't resolved my issue. Any information would be much appreciated Thank you in Advance, AD

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  • How can I Fail a WebTest?

    - by craigb
    I'm using Microsoft WebTest and want to be able to do something similar to NUnit's Assert.Fail(). The best i have come up with is to throw new webTestException() but this shows in the test results as an Error rather than a Failure. Other than reflecting on the WebTest to set a private member variable to indicate the failure, is there something I've missed? EDIT: I have also used the Assert.Fail() method, but this still shows up as an error rather than a failure when used from within WebTest, and the Outcome property is read-only (has no public setter). EDIT: well now I'm really stumped. I used reflection to set the Outcome property to Failed but the test still passes! Here's the code that sets the Oucome to failed: public static class WebTestExtensions { public static void Fail(this WebTest test) { var method = test.GetType().GetMethod("set_Outcome", BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance); method.Invoke(test, new object[] {Outcome.Fail}); } } and here's the code that I'm trying to fail: public override IEnumerator<WebTestRequest> GetRequestEnumerator() { this.Fail(); yield return new WebTestRequest("http://google.com"); } Outcome is getting set to Oucome.Fail but apparently the WebTest framework doesn't really use this to determine test pass/fail results.

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  • android: start an intent into a framelayout

    - by user329692
    Hi guys! I have a main activity with this layout file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <Button android:id="@+id/btn_reload" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Reload" /> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/LinearLayout01" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:gravity="center_vertical|center_horizontal" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/ImageView01" android:src="@drawable/logo_head" android:scaleType="fitStart" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout> <FrameLayout android:id="@+id/center" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1"> </FrameLayout> <LinearLayout android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:gravity="center" android:id="@+id/footer" android:layout_weight="2.6" android:background="#ffffff"> </LinearLayout> Basically it is composed by an header, a central part (android:id="@+id/center") and a footer. The footer contains four buttons, created dinamically. At the end it looks like a TabWidget with the tabs at the botton. Each footer's buttons holds an Intent/activity. The question is: How can i start my activity into the FrameLayout? For instance TabHost does this: ..... spec = tabHost .newTabSpec(tabTitle.toLowerCase()) .setIndicator(tabTitle,res.getDrawable(R.drawable.tab_spec)) .setContent(intent); tabHost.addTab(spec); ....

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  • How to Global onRouteRequest directly to onBadRequest?

    - by virtualeyes
    EDIT Came up with this to sanitize URI date params prior to passing off to Play router val ymdMatcher = "\\d{8}".r // matcher for yyyyMMdd URI param val ymdFormat = org.joda.time.format.DateTimeFormat.forPattern("yyyyMMdd") def ymd2Date(ymd: String) = ymdFormat.parseDateTime(ymd) override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { import play.api.i18n.Messages ymdMatcher.findFirstIn(r.uri) map{ ymd=> try { ymd2Date( ymd); super.onRouteRequest(r) } catch { case e:Exception => // kick to "bad" action handler on invalid date Some(controllers.Application.bad(Messages("bad.date.format"))) } } getOrElse(super.onRouteRequest(r)) } ORIGINAL Let's say I want to return a BadRequest result type for all /foo URIs: override def onBadRequest(r: RequestHeader, error: String) = { BadRequest("Bad Request: " + error) } override def onRouteRequest(r: RequestHeader): Option[Handler] = { if(r.uri.startsWith("/foo") onBadRequest("go away") else super.onRouteRequest(r) } Of course does not work, since the expected return type is Option[play.api.mvc.Handler] What's the idiomatic way to deal with this, create a default Application controller method to handle filtered bad requests? Ideally, since I know in onRouteRequest that /foo is in fact a BadRequest, I'd like to call onBadRequest directly. Should note that this is a contrived example, am actually verifying a URI yyyyMMdd date param, and BadRequest-ing if it does not parse to a JodaTime instance -- basically a catch-all filter to sanitize a given date param rather than handling on every single controller method call, not to mention, avoiding cluttering up application log with useless stack traces re: invalid date parse conversions (have several MBs of these junk trace entries accruing daily due to users pointlessly manipulating the uri date in attempts to get at paid subscriber content)

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  • How Do I Use jQuery/JavaScript To Open A Popup Window/Tab (ASPX Login Page) & Then Pass Values To Op

    - by Terry Robinson
    Hi All, We currently have two asp.net 2.x web applications and we need to perform the following functionality: From one application, we want to auto-login to the other web application automatically in a new tab; using the same browser instance/window. So the process is: Open New Window/Tab With Second System URL/Login Page Wait For Popup Window/Tab Page To Load (DOM Ready?) OnPopupDomReady { Get Usename, Password, PIN Controls (jQuery Selectors) and Populate In Code Then Click Login Button (All Programatically). } I am currently using JavaScript to Open the window as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href')); return false; }); }); </script> I would like to use jQuery chaining functionality if possible to extent the method above so that I can attach a DOM Ready event to the popped up page and then use that event to call a method on the code behind of the popped up page to automatically login. Something similar to this (Note: The Following Code Sample Does Not Work, It Is Here To Try And Help Illustrate What We Are Trying To Achieve)... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href').ready(function () { // Use JavaScript (Pref. jQuery Partial Control Name Selectors) To Populate Username/Password TextBoxes & Click Login Button. }) }); }); </script> Our Architecture Is As Follows: We have the source for both products (ASP.NET WebSite[s]) and they are run under different app. pools in IIS. I hope this all makes sense, and if my plan is not going to work, please provide hints ;) Thanks All/Kind Regards, Terry Robinson.

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  • Hibernate JPA 2.0 CriteriaQuery, subset listing and counting at once

    - by Jeroen
    Hello, I recently started using the new Hibernate (EntityManager) 3.5.1 with JPA 2.0, and I was wondering if it was possible to both retrieve a (sub-set) of entities and their count from a single CriteriaQuery instance. My current implementation looks as follows: class HibernateResult<T> extends AbstractResult<T> { /** * Construct a new {@link HibernateResult}. * @param criteriaQuery the criteria query * @param selector the selector that determines the entities to return */ HibernateResult(CriteriaQuery<T> criteriaQuery, Selector selector, EntityManager entityManager) { CriteriaBuilder builder = entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder(); // Count the entities CriteriaQuery<Long> countQuery = builder.createQuery(Long.class); Root<T> path = criteriaQuery.from(criteriaQuery.getResultType()); countQuery.select(builder.count(path)); final int count = entityManager.createQuery(countQuery).getSingleResult().intValue(); this.setCount(count); // List the entities according to selector TypedQuery<T> entityQuery = entityManager.createQuery(criteriaQuery); entityQuery.setFirstResult(selector.getFirstResult()); entityQuery.setMaxResults(selector.getMaxRecords()); List<T> entities = entityQuery.getResultList(); this.setEntities(entities); } } The thing is that I want to count all entities that match my criteria query, but the count method from CriteriaBuilder only seems to take Expression as argument. Is there any quick way of converting my criteria query to an expression?

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  • C# average function without overflow exception

    - by Ron Klein
    .NET Framework 3.5. I'm trying to calculate the average of some pretty large numbers. For instance: using System; using System.Linq; class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var items = new long[] { long.MaxValue - 100, long.MaxValue - 200, long.MaxValue - 300 }; try { var avg = items.Average(); Console.WriteLine(avg); } catch (OverflowException ex) { Console.WriteLine("can't calculate that!"); } Console.ReadLine(); } } Obviously, the mathematical result is 9223372036854775607 (long.MaxValue - 200), but I get an exception there. This is because the implementation (on my machine) to the Average extension method, as inspected by .NET Reflector is: public static double Average(this IEnumerable<long> source) { if (source == null) { throw Error.ArgumentNull("source"); } long num = 0L; long num2 = 0L; foreach (long num3 in source) { num += num3; num2 += 1L; } if (num2 <= 0L) { throw Error.NoElements(); } return (((double) num) / ((double) num2)); } I know I can use a BigInt library (yes, I know that it is included in .NET Framework 4.0, but I'm tied to 3.5). But I still wonder if there's a pretty straight forward implementation of calculating the average of integers without an external library. Do you happen to know about such implementation? Thanks!! UPDATE: The previous example, of three large integers, was just an example to illustrate the overflow issue. The question is about calculating an average of any set of numbers which might sum to a large number that exceeds the type's max value. Sorry about this confusion. I also changed the question's title to avoid additional confusion. Thanks all!!

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  • c# linq to xml to list

    - by WtFudgE
    I was wondering if there is a way to get a list of results into a list with linq to xml. If I would have the following xml for example: <?xml version="1.0"?> <Sports xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <SportPages> <SportPage type="test"> <LinkPage> <IDList> <string>1</string> <string>2</string> </IDList> </LinkPage> </SportPage> </SportPages> </Sports> How could I get a list of strings from the IDList? I'm fairly new to linq to xml so I just tried some stuff out, I'm currently at this point: var IDs = from sportpage in xDoc.Descendants("SportPages").Descendants("SportPage") where sportpage.Attribute("type").Value == "Karate" select new { ID = sportpage.Element("LinkPage").Element("IDList").Elements("string") }; But the var is to chaotic to read decently. Isn't there a way I could just get a list of strings from this? Thanks

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  • CreateProcess doesn't pass command line arguments

    - by mnh
    Hello I have the following code but it isn't working as expected, can't figure out what the problem is. Basically, I'm executing a process (a .NET process) and passing it command line arguments, it is executed successfully by CreateProcess() but CreateProcess() isn't passing the command line arguments What am I doing wrong here?? int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { PROCESS_INFORMATION ProcessInfo; //This is what we get as an [out] parameter STARTUPINFO StartupInfo; //This is an [in] parameter ZeroMemory(&StartupInfo, sizeof(StartupInfo)); StartupInfo.cb = sizeof StartupInfo ; //Only compulsory field LPTSTR cmdArgs = "[email protected]"; if(CreateProcess("D:\\email\\smtp.exe", cmdArgs, NULL,NULL,FALSE,0,NULL, NULL,&StartupInfo,&ProcessInfo)) { WaitForSingleObject(ProcessInfo.hProcess,INFINITE); CloseHandle(ProcessInfo.hThread); CloseHandle(ProcessInfo.hProcess); printf("Yohoo!"); } else { printf("The process could not be started..."); } return 0; } EDIT: Hey one more thing, if I pass my cmdArgs like this: // a space as the first character LPTSTR cmdArgs = " [email protected]"; Then I get the error, then CreateProcess returns TRUE but my target process isn't executed. Object reference not set to an instance of an object

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  • flushing database cache in SWI-Prolog

    - by JPro
    We are using swi-prolog to run our testcases. Whenever the test starts, I am opening the connection to MYSQL database and storing the Name of the Test hat is being done and then closing the DB. These tests run for about 2 days continuously. After the tests are done, the results basically gets stored in folder in the server. There is a predicate in another prolog file that is called to update the results to the MYSQL database. The code is simple, I use odbc library and just call odbc_* predicates to connect and update the mysql by issuing direct queries. The actual problem is : If I try to call the Predicate from the same Prolog window, where the test just got completed, I get an error as updating to the DB server. Although I do not get any error in the connection. If I close the session of that prolog with halt and closing all the open prolog windows , then open an other complete new instance of Prolog and run the predicate the update goes well. I have a feeling that there is some connection reference to the MySQL DB in Prolog database. Is there any way to clear the database in prolog so that I can run the same predicate without closing any existing prolog windows? Any ideas appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Static libpng link with visual studio 2010

    - by Sanctus2099
    Hey guys. I'm trying to add PNG support to my application and thus I want to include libpng. I know it needs zlib and thus I downloaded that as well. I went into the png folder/projects/vstudio and I opened the solution. I compiled it and it went just fine. I added some headers from it into my application and I copied the lib files. My program is a dll written in c++ which is later used from C#. When I run it in C# it complains about not finding my dll (tough if I remove the png part it works fine). I've had this problem before and it usually means a dll dependency is wrong. Now... libpng compiled both some .lib files and some .dll files. The dll files are bigger. My only guess is that it needs the dll files as well but I've seen that people can link to libpng without a dll. So my questions is: How can I compile libpng(and zlib for that instance) into just static libraries and how can I include those in my projects? I've searched around the internet and I couldn't find anything useful.

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  • Objective-C classes, pointers to primitive types, etc.

    - by Toby Wilson
    I'll cut a really long story short and give an example of my problem. Given a class that has a pointer to a primitive type as a property: @interface ClassOne : NSObject { int* aNumber } @property int* aNumber; The class is instantiated, and aNumber is allocated and assigned a value, accordingly: ClassOne* bob = [[ClassOne alloc] init]; bob.aNumber = malloc(sizeof(int)); *bob.aNumber = 5; It is then passed, by reference, to assign the aNumber value of a seperate instance of this type of class, accordingly: ClassOne* fred = [[ClassOne alloc] init]; fred.aNumber = bob.aNumber; Fred's aNumber pointer is then freed, reallocated, and assigned a new value, for example 7. Now, the problem I'm having; Since Fred has been assigned the same pointer that Bob had, I would expect that Bob's aNumber will now have a value of 7. It doesn't, because for some reason it's pointer was freed, but not reassigned (it is still pointing to the same address it was first allocated which is now freed). Fred's pointer, however, has the allocated value 7 in a different memory location. Why is it behaving like this? What am I minsunderstanding? How can I make it work like C++ does?

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  • Clear UIWebView content upon dismissal of modal view (iPhone OS 3.0)

    - by Ricky
    I currently have a UIWebView that is displayed within a modal view. It is basically a detail view that provides a view of a page when the user clicks a link. When the view is dismissed and then brought up again (when the user clicks another link), the previously-loaded content is still visible and the new content loads "on top" of the last content. This makes sense because the instance of the UIWebView persists between sessions and is only released when the memory is needed. However, I would like to completely clear the UIWebView when the modal view is dismissed so that 1) content is cleared and 2) memory is freed. Thus far my research and attempts have not found an answer. These links haven't worked for me: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2184688/is-it-possible-to-free-memory-of-uiwebview http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2311564/reused-uiwebview-showing-previous-loaded-content-for-a-brief-second-on-iphone I've tried [[NSURLCache sharedURLCache] removeAllCachedResponses]; and setting the webView to nil and manually releasing the webView upon modal-view-dismiss to no avail. Any thoughts from the wizened masses?

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  • How to find first non-repetitive character from a string?

    - by masato-san
    I've spent half day trying to figure out this and finally I got working solution. However, I feel like this can be done in simpler way. I think this code is not really readable. Problem: Find first non-repetitive character from a string. $string = "abbcabz" In this case, the function should output "c". The reason I use concatenation instead of $input[index_to_remove] = '' in order to remove character from a given string is because if I do that, it actually just leave empty cell so that my return value $input[0] does not not return the character I want to return. For instance, $str = "abc"; $str[0] = ''; echo $str; This will output "bc" But actually if I test, var_dump($str); it will give me: string(3) "bc" Here is my intention: Given: input while first char exists in substring of input { get index_to_remove input = chars left of index_to_remove . chars right of index_to_remove if dupe of first char is not found from substring remove first char from input } return first char of input Code: function find_first_non_repetitive2($input) { while(strpos(substr($input, 1), $input[0]) !== false) { $index_to_remove = strpos(substr($input,1), $input[0]) + 1; $input = substr($input, 0, $index_to_remove) . substr($input, $index_to_remove + 1); if(strpos(substr($input, 1), $input[0]) == false) { $input = substr($input, 1); } } return $input[0]; }

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