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• Properly using Log4r in Ruby Application

  - by Spencer

  I must really be missing something obvious, but I'm having trouble with general use of Log4r in my Ruby application. I am able to log without issue, but the overhead seems clunky the way I have it setup. I'm basically passing the full path to a filename to log in each class in my application. The ruby script that is called pulls the log file from one of the arguments in ARGV which is then passed around and set in each class that I call in ruby. In each class I use the patternFormatter to insert the class/file name into the log statement. Is there a better way to make this work? It feels like no matter what I think of will require something to be passed to each class in my ruby application. I could set the log file in a yaml configuration file instead, but then I would be passing around the configuration file to each class as well. Any advice? If this doesn't make sense I could try and post some more specific code samples to further explain what I mean. Thanks!

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• Strange MSI error when setup.exe is run

  - by Martin Jackson

  We're using Visual Studio 2008's Setup Project to create an installer for our .NET 3.5 app. We host the .exe and .msi files on a website for our client to access, and produce new ones regularly to provide updates. This has all been fine until recently we've noticed some cases where installing via the .exe fails. The symptoms are: The .exe downloads fine, and runs fine. It appears to download the .msi successfully (the "downloading application files" step plods through happily), but then when it gets to the end of the "preparing to install" step, instead of launching the installer UI it pops up a message saying "This installation package could not be opened. Verify that the package exists and that you can access it, or contact the application vendor to verify that this is a valid Windows Installer package". You'd think that the .msi is just corrupt or something, but running it explicitly (even downloading it from the same location as the .exe to do so) works just fine. This problem is occurring on just some of our machines, which are running a mixture of XP and Windows7. The only pattern I can see in those machines that experience the problem is that they tend to have had the application installed on them longer (i.e. updating the app rather than installing for the first time). It seems to me that it might be something to do with how/where the .exe downloads the .msi to, and perhaps different versions are conflicting there? Has anyone experienced this before? Does anyone know where the installer .exe puts the .msi that it downloads?

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• Sweave/R - Automatically generating an appendix that contains all the model summaries/plots/data pro

  - by John Horton

  I like the idea of making research available at multiple levels of detail i.e., abstract for the casually curious, full text for the more interested, and finally the data and code for those working in the same area/trying to reproduce your results. In between the actual text and the data/code level, I'd like to insert another layer. Namely, I'd like to create a kind of automatically generated appendix that contains the full regression output, diagnostic plots, exploratory graphs data profiles etc. from the analysis, regardless of whether those plots/regressions etc. made it into the final paper. One idea I had was to write a script that would examine the .Rnw file and automatically: Profile all data sets that are loaded (sort of like the Hmisc(?) package) Summarize all regressions - i.e., run summary(model) for all models Present all plots (regardless of whether they made it in the final version) The idea is to make this kind of a low-effort, push-button sort of thing as opposed to a formal appendix written like the rest of a paper. What I'm looking for is some ideas on how to do this in R in a relatively simple way. My hunch is that there is some way of going through the namespace, figuring out what something is and then dumping into a PDF. Thoughts? Does something like this already exist?

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• Lazy non-modifiable list in Google Collections

  - by mindas

  I was looking for a decent implementation of a generic lazy non-modifiable list implementation to wrap my search result entries. The unmodifiable part of the task is easy as it can be achieved by Collections.unmodifiableList() so I only need to sort out the the lazy part. Surprisingly, google-collections doesn't have anything to offer; while LazyList from Apache Commons Collections does not support generics. I have found an attempt to build something on top of google-collections but it seems to be incomplete (e.g. does not support size()), outdated (does not compile with 1.0 final) and requiring some external classes, but could be used as a good starting point to build my own class. Is anybody aware of any good implementation of a LazyList? If not, which option do you think is better: write my own implementation, based on google-collections ForwardingList, similar to what Peter Maas did; write my own wrapper around Commons Collections LazyList (the wrapper would only add generics so I don't have to cast everywhere but only in the wrapper itself); just write something on top of java.util.AbstractList; Any other suggestions are welcome.

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• Parsing/Tokenizing a String Containing a SQL Command

  - by Alan Storm

  Are there any open source libraries (any language, python/PHP preferred) that will tokenize/parse an ANSI SQL string into its various components? That is, if I had the following string SELECT a.foo, b.baz, a.bar FROM TABLE_A a LEFT JOIN TABLE_B b ON a.id = b.id WHERE baz = 'snafu'; I'd get back a data structure/object something like //fake PHPish $results['select-columns'] = Array[a.foo,b.baz,a.bar]; $results['tables'] = Array[TABLE_A,TABLE_B]; $results['table-aliases'] = Array[a=TABLE_A, b=TABLE_B]; //etc... Restated, I'm looking for the code in a database package that teases the SQL command apart so that the engine knows what to do with it. Searching the internet turns up a lot of results on how to parse a string WITH SQL. That's not what I want. I realize I could glop through an open source database's code to find what I want, but I was hoping for something a little more ready made, (although if you know where in the MySQL, PostgreSQL, SQLite source to look, feel free to pass it along) Thanks!

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• Problem with .Contains

  - by Rene

  Hello there, I have a little problem which i can't solve. I want to use an SQL-In-Statement in Linq. I've read in this Forum and in other Forums that I have to use the .Contains (with reverse-thinking-notation :-)). As input i have a List of Guids. I first copied them into an array and then did something like that : datatoget = (from p in objectContext.MyDataSet where ArrayToSearch.Contains(p.Subtable.Id.ToString()) select p).ToList(); datatoget is the result in which all records matching the Subtable.Id (which is a Guid) should be stored. Subtable is a Detail-Table from MyData, and the Id is a Guid-Type. I've tried several things (Convert Guid to String, and then using .Contains, etc), but I always get an Exception which says : 'Linq to Entities' doesn't recognize the Method 'Boolean Contains(System.Guid) and is not able to Translate this method into a memory expression. (Something like that, because I'm using the German Version of VS2008) I am using L2E with .NET 3.5 and am programming in C# with VS 2008. I've read several Examples, but it doesn't work. Is it perhaps because of using Guid's instead of strings ? I've also tried to write my own compare-function, but I don't know how to integrate it so that .NET calls my function for comparing.

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• How to synchronize placing an object in JNDI across processes?

  - by indra

  I am trying to place an object in JNDI, so that only one of the progam should be able to place it in JNDI. is there any global lock that can be used in J2EE environment. Is RMI can be used for this purpose? please provide any reference links. Thanks in advance. Also, what is NameAlreadyBoundexception? I am trying to use it as a method to synchronize, i.e, only one program places it in JNDI and if other trying to bind should get that exception. But when i am testing the multiple binding I am not getting the Exception.And second binding is done. look up is giving the second object bound. here is my code: private static String JNDI_NAME = "java:comp/env/test/something"; public class TestJNDI { private static String JNDI_NAME = "java:comp/env/test/something"; public static void main(String[] args) throws NamingException { Hashtable env = new Hashtable(); env.put(Context.INITIAL_CONTEXT_FACTORY,"weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory"); env.put(Context.PROVIDER_URL,"t3://127.0.0.1:7001"); Context ctx = new InitialContext(env); System.out.println("Initial Context created"); String obj1 = "obj1"; String obj2 = "obj2"; try{ ctx.bind(JNDI_NAME, obj1); System.out.println("Bind Sucess"); }catch(NameAlreadyBoundException ne ){ // already bound System.out.println("Name already bound"); } ctx.close(); Context ctx2 = new InitialContext(env); try{ // Second binding to the same name not giving the Exception?? ctx2.bind(JNDI_NAME, obj2); System.out.println("Re Bind Sucess"); }catch(NameAlreadyBoundException ne ){ // already bound System.out.println("Name already bound"); } String lookedUp = (String) ctx2.lookup(JNDI_NAME); System.out.println("LookedUp Object"+lookedUp); ctx2.close(); } }

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• Question about WeakReferences

  - by Impz0r

  Hey there, I've got a question regarding WeakReferences. I'm right now in the process of writing a "Resource Manager" who hast to keep references to created texture objects. I have a Dictionary like: Dictionary<uint, WeakReference> Where the first is, as you allready may guessed, the Resource Id and the second param is a WeakReference to the Resource itself. Right now my Resources do have a method to free themselfes from their Owner (i.e. Resource Manager). They do so in calling a method at the Resource Manger while passing a this reference to it. The ResMgr does lookup if it is a resource he keeps bookmark of and if so, does something like this: WeakReference result; if (m_Resources.TryGetValue(ResourceId, out result)) { if (result.IsAlive) return; (result.Target as Resource).free(); // free for good m_Resources.Remove(ResourceId); } The Problem I'm having is that the part after: if (result.IsAlive) is never reached because there are still leftover references to the Resource. The thing is, I do only have one Reference of the Resource in question and it releases itself like: resource.free(); // calls internally its owner (i.e. ResMgr) resource = null; I guess the left over reference would be the "resource" variable, but I cannot set it to null, because I do have to call free first. Quite a dilema... Well what I wanted to achive with this is a Resource Manager who keeps references to its owning Resources and release them ONLY if there is no reference left to not screw up something. Any idea how I may solve this in a clean fashion? Thanks in advance! Mfg Imp

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• How to run validator from javascript?

  - by David Shochet

  Here is a part of my code: <asp:ListBox ID="lbRD" runat="server" DataSourceID="RDSqlDataSource" onchange="JSFillDetail();" DataTextField="????????" DataValueField="ID" Width="188px" Height="200px"/> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDescription" runat="server" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="txtDescriptionRequiredFieldValidator" runat="server" ErrorMessage="???????? ???????? ???????????? ??? ??????????" ControlToValidate="txtDescription" /> I have a listbox, a textbox and a required field validator on my page. When the user selects something from the listbox, the selected item appears in the textbox using a javascript function. When the page is submitted, the validator reports an error in case the textbox is empty. If after that the user selects something from the listbox, the error message is still displayed, even though the textbox is not empty anymore. How can I make the validator validate the textbox, or even better, to clear the error message from the javascript function that fills the textbox? Thanks, David

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• nedmalloc: where does mem<fm come from?

  - by Suma

  While implementing nedmalloc into my application, I am frequently hitting a situation when nedmalloc refuses to free a block of memory, claiming it did not allocate it. While debugging I have come up to the point I see a particular condition which is failing, all other (including magic numbers) succeed. The condition is this: if((size_t)mem-(size_t)fm>=(size_t)1<<(SIZE_T_BITSIZE-1)) return 0; On Win32 this seems to be equivalent to: if((int)((size_t)mem-(size_t)fm)<0) return 0; Which seems to be the same as: if((size_t)mem<(size_t)fm) return 0; In my case I really see mem < fm. What I do not understand now is, where does this condition come from. I cannot find anything which would guarantee the fm <= m anywhere in code. Yet, "select isn't broken": I doubt it would really be a bug in nedmalloc, most likely I am doing something wrong somewhere, but I cannot find it. Once I turn debugging features of nedmalloc on, the problem goes away. If someone here understands inner working of nedmalloc, could you please explain to me why is fm <= m?

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• How to use URLClassLoader to load a *.class file?

  - by DeletedAccount

  I'm playing around with Reflection and I thought I'd make something which loads a class and prints the names of all fields in the class. I've made a small hello world type of class to have something to inspect: kent@rat:~/eclipsews/SmallExample/bin$ ls IndependentClass.class kent@rat:~/eclipsews/SmallExample/bin$ java IndependentClass Hello! Goodbye! kent@rat:~/eclipsews/SmallExample/bin$ pwd /home/kent/eclipsews/SmallExample/bin kent@rat:~/eclipsews/SmallExample/bin$ Based on the above I draw two conclusions: It exists at /home/kent/eclipsews/SmallExample/bin/IndependentClass.class It works! (So it must be a proper .class-file which can be loaded by a class loader) Then the code which is to use Reflection: (Line which causes an exception is marked) import java.lang.reflect.Field; import java.net.MalformedURLException; import java.net.URL; import java.net.URLClassLoader; public class InspectClass { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public static void main(String[] args) throws ClassNotFoundException, MalformedURLException { URL classUrl; classUrl = new URL("file:///home/kent/eclipsews/SmallExample/bin/IndependentClass.class"); URL[] classUrls = { classUrl }; URLClassLoader ucl = new URLClassLoader(classUrls); Class c = ucl.loadClass("IndependentClass"); // LINE 14 for(Field f: c.getDeclaredFields()) { System.out.println("Field name" + f.getName()); } } } But when I run it I get: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: IndependentClass at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:200) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:188) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:306) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:251) at InspectClass.main(InspectClass.java:14) My questions: What am I doing wrong above? How do I fix it? Is there a way to load several class files and iterate over them?

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• Having a Python package install itself under a different name

  - by cool-RR

  I'm developing a package called garlicsim. (Website.) The package is intended for Python 2.X, but I am also offerring Python 3 support on a different fork called garlicsim_py3.(1) So both of these packages live side by side on PyPI, and Python 3 users install garlicsim_py3, and Python 2 users install garlicsim. The problem is: When third party modules want to use garlicsim, they should have one package name to refer to, not two. Sure, they can do something like this: try: import garlicsim except ImportError: import garlicsim_py3 as garlicsim But I would prefer not to make the developers of these modules do this. Is there a way that garlicsim_py3 will install itself under the alias garlicsim? What I want is for a Python 3 user to be able to import garlicsim and refer to the module all the time as garlicsim, but that it will really be garlicsim_py3. I know that the Distribute project does something like this: They make it so you can import setuptools and it will be redirected into their code. I have no idea how they do it. Any ideas? (1) I've reached the decision to support Python 3 on a fork instead of in the same code base; It's important for me that the code base will be clean, and I would really not want to introduce compatibilty hacks.

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• Finding values from a table that are *not* in a grouping of another table and what group that value

  - by Bkins

  I hope I am not missing something very simple here. I have done a Google search(es) and searched through stackoverflow. Here is the situation: For simplicity's sake let's say I have a table called "PeoplesDocs", in a SQL Server 2008 DB, that holds a bunch of people and all the documents that they own. So one person can have several documents. I also have a table called "RequiredDocs" that simply holds all the documents that a person should have. Here is sort of what it looks like: PeoplesDocs: PersonID DocID -------- ----- 1 A 1 B 1 C 1 D 2 C 2 D 3 A 3 B 3 C RequiredDocs: DocID DocName ----- --------- A DocumentA B DocumentB C DocumentC D DocumentD How do I write a SQL query that returns some variation of: PersonID MissingDocs -------- ----------- 2 DocumentA 2 DocumentB 3 DocumentD I have tried, and most of my searching has pointed to, something like: SELECT DocID FROM DocsRequired WHERE NOT EXIST IN ( SELECT DocID FROM PeoplesDocs) but obviously this will not return anything in this example because everyone has at least one of the documents. Also, if a person does not have any documents then there will be one record in the PeoplesDocs table with the DocID set to NULL. Thank you in advance for any help you can provide, Ben

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• Simple CalendarStore query puts application into infinite loop!?

  - by Frank R.

  Hi, I've been looking at adding iCal support to my new application and everything seemed just fine and worked on my Mac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard development machine without a hitch. Now it looks like depending on what is in your calendar the very simple query below: - (NSArray*) fetchCalendarEventsForNext50Minutes { NSLog(@"fetchCalendarEventsForNext50Minutes"); NSTimeInterval start = [NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate]; NSDate* startDate = [[NSDate alloc] init]; NSDate* endDate = [startDate addTimeInterval: 50.0 * 60.0]; NSPredicate *eventsForTheNext50Minutes = [CalCalendarStore eventPredicateWithStartDate:startDate endDate:endDate calendars:[[CalCalendarStore defaultCalendarStore] calendars]]; // Fetch all events for this year NSArray *events = [[CalCalendarStore defaultCalendarStore] eventsWithPredicate: eventsForTheNext50Minutes]; NSLog( @"fetch took: %f seconds", [NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate] - start ); return events; } produces a beachball thrash even with quite limited events in the calendar store. Am I missing something crucial here? The code snippet is pretty much exactly from the documentation at: // Create a predicate to fetch all events for this year NSInteger year = [[NSCalendarDate date] yearOfCommonEra]; NSDate *startDate = [[NSCalendarDate dateWithYear:year month:1 day:1 hour:0 minute:0 second:0 timeZone:nil] retain]; NSDate *endDate = [[NSCalendarDate dateWithYear:year month:12 day:31 hour:23 minute:59 second:59 timeZone:nil] retain]; NSPredicate *eventsForThisYear = [CalCalendarStore eventPredicateWithStartDate:startDate endDate:endDate calendars:[[CalCalendarStore defaultCalendarStore] calendars]]; // Fetch all events for this year NSArray *events = [[CalCalendarStore defaultCalendarStore] eventsWithPredicate:eventsForThisYear]; It looks like it has something to do with the recurrence rules, but as far as I can see there are no other ways of fetching events from the calendar store anyway. Has anybody else come across this? Best regards, Frank

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• Why would the VB.NET compiler think an interface isn't implemented when it is?

  - by Dan Tao

  I have this happen sometimes, particularly with the INotifyPropertyChanged interface in my experience but I have no idea if the problem is limited to that single interface (which would seem bizarre) or not. Let's say I have some code set up like this. There's an interface with a single event. A class implements that interface. It includes the event. Public Interface INotifyPropertyChanged Event PropertyChanged As PropertyChangedEventHandler End Interface Public Class Person Implements INotifyPropertyChanged Public Event PropertyChanged _ (ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As PropertyChangedEventArgs) _ Implements INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged ' more code below ' End Class Every now and then, when I build my project, the compiler will suddenly start acting like the above code is broken. It will report that the Person class does not implement INotifyPropertyChanged because it doesn't have a PropertyChanged event; or it will say the PropertyChanged event can't implement INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged because their signatures don't match. This is weird enough as it is, but here's the weirdest part: if I just cut out the line starting with Event PropertyChanged and then paste it back in, the error goes away. The project builds. Does anybody have any clue what could be going on here?

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• Putting CAPTCHAs on their own page?

  - by mnemosyn

  We need to put a captcha image on our ASP.NET MVC 2 based website. We chose reCaptcha and built it in using the way described by Derik Whittaker. The idea there is baiscally to build some abstractions and all you need to do is decorate your Controller with a [ValidateCaptcha] attribute. This works all fine. However, we have a lot of form-widgets in different pages and I don't want to have the captcha floating around everywhere. So I'd like to implement it the way StackOverflow does: Submit a Form -> Challenge Captcha -> Submit Captcha -> Perform Action on original form data. Now, how do I redirect the user to the captcha page while keeping the originally submitted information? I thought of some very ugly hacks (hidden fields w/ base64 encoded form data, etc.) but I think I'm missing something obvious. On the other hand, this sounds as if I wanted to do something in a stateful manner, and I shouldn't?

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• handling java exception

  - by Noona

  This questions is related to java exception, why are there some cases that when an exception thrown the program exits even though the exception was caught and there was no exit() statement? my code looks something like this void bindProxySocket(DefaultHttpClientConnection proxyConnection, String hostName, HttpParams params) { if (!proxyConnection.isOpen()) { Socket socket = null; try { socket = new Socket(hostName, 80); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } try { proxyConnection.bind(socket, params); } catch(IOException e) { System.err.println ("couldn't bind socket"); e.printStackTrace(); } } } and then I call this method like this: bindProxySocket(proxyConn, hostName, params1); but, the program exits, although I want to handle the exception by doing something else, can it be because I didn't enclose the method call within a try catch clause? what happens if I catch the exception again even though it's already in the method? and what should I do if i want to clean resources only if an exception occurs and otherwise I want to continue with the program? I am guessing in this case I have to include the whole piece of code until I can clean the resources with in a try statement or can I do it in the handle exception statement? some of these questions are on this specific case, but I would like to get a thorough answer to all my questions for future reference. thanks

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• ASP.net dynamic controls issue when trying to reverse them

  - by Mattias Sandsäter

  I add some DropDownList dynamically to my form. It seems to work as it should when I use ...Controls.Add(dropdownlist), but in an attempt to turn them around and show them in reversed order I have tried to use ....Controls.AddAt(0, dropdownlist) However, this causes some strange behaviour. Before we dig in to the code, is there something I should know about dynamic adding, and more specific the AddAt()-method that usually causes trouble? Short description about what I do I start with a DropDownList (level1), when I choose something there, a new list should be added (level2) and so on. You can say you go your way down in a menu structure. Whenever you want you can change your choice at whatever level you want (of course not on later levels that you dont see yet). So lets say you are down to level 4 (You then have four boxes) and change your choice at level1, when the page reloads you are back to two boxes. http://forums.asp.net/p/885886/927411.aspx It seems that my problem was discussed here, but I didn´t see any solution about how I can acheive my intended behaviour.

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• Converting timestamp to time ago in php e.g 1 day ago, 2 days ago...

  - by cosmicbdog

  hi everyone, i am trying to convert a timestamp of the format: 2009-09-12 20:57:19 and turn it into something like '3 minutes ago' with php. I found a useful script to do this, but I think its looking for a different format to be used as the time variable. The script I'm wanting to modify to work with this format is: function _ago($tm,$rcs = 0) { $cur_tm = time(); $dif = $cur_tm-$tm; $pds = array('second','minute','hour','day','week','month','year','decade'); $lngh = array(1,60,3600,86400,604800,2630880,31570560,315705600); for($v = sizeof($lngh)-1; ($v >= 0)&&(($no = $dif/$lngh[$v])<=1); $v--); if($v < 0) $v = 0; $_tm = $cur_tm-($dif%$lngh[$v]); $no = floor($no); if($no <> 1) $pds[$v] .='s'; $x=sprintf("%d %s ",$no,$pds[$v]); if(($rcs == 1)&&($v >= 1)&&(($cur_tm-$_tm) > 0)) $x .= time_ago($_tm); return $x; } I think on those first few lines its trying to do something that looks like this (different date format math): $dif = 1252809479 - 2009-09-12 20:57:19; How would I go about converting my timestamp into that (unix?) format?

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• Bit shift and pointer oddities in C, looking for explanations

  - by foo

  Hi all, I discovered something odd that I can't explain. If someone here can see what or why this is happening I'd like to know. What I'm doing is taking an unsigned short containing 12 bits aligned high like this: 1111 1111 1111 0000 I then want to shif the bits so that each byte in the short hold 7bits with the MSB as a pad. The result on what's presented above should look like this: 0111 1111 0111 1100 What I have done is this: unsigned short buf = 0xfff; //align high buf <<= 4; buf >>= 1; *((char*)&buf) >>= 1; This gives me something like looks like it's correct but the result of the last shift leaves the bit set like this: 0111 1111 1111 1100 Very odd. If I use an unsigned char as a temporary storage and shift that then it works, like this: unsigned short buf = 0xfff; buf <<= 4; buf >>= 1; tmp = *((char*)&buf); *((char*)&buf) = tmp >> 1; The result of this is: 0111 1111 0111 1100 Any ideas what is going on here?

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• jQuery, unable to store data returned by $.get function.

  - by Deepak Prasanna

  I am trying to turn div#sidebar into a sidebar in my app. My code looks like the one below. $('#sidebar').userProfile(); jQuery.fn.userProfile = function() { $.get('/users/profile', function(data){ $(this).html(data); }); }; It didnt work because, I found the this (inside the $.get function) here contexts to the get request and not $('#sidebar'). Then I tried something like below. $('#sidebar').userProfile(); #This doesnot work jQuery.fn.userProfile = function() { var side_bar = null; $.get('/users/profile', function(data){ side_bar = data; }); $(this).html(side_bar); console.log(side_bar); }; This doesnt work either. In firebug console I see Null which I am setting on top when I am declaring the variable.Atlast I made it work by changing my code to something like below by hardcoding the selector. #This works, but I cannot turn any element to a sidebar which is sick. jQuery.fn.userProfile = function() { $.get('/users/profile', function(data){ $('#sidebar').html(data); }); }; But this is not I wanted because I wanted to turn any element to a sidebar. Where am I goin wrong or which is the correct way of doing it?

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• MVC design question for forms

  - by kenny99

  Hi, I'm developing an app which has a large amount of related form data to be handled. I'm using a MVC structure and all of the related data is represented in my models, along with the handling of data validation from form submissions. I'm looking for some advice on a good way to approach laying out my controllers - basically I will have a huge form which will be broken down into manageable categories (similar to a credit card app) where the user progresses through each stage/category filling out the answers. All of these form categories are related to the main relation/object, but not to each other. Does it make more sense to have each subform/category as a method in the main controller class (which will make that one controller fairly massive), or would it be better to break each category into a subclass of the main controller? It may be just for neatness that the second approach is better, but I'm struggling to see much of a difference between either creating a new method for each category (which communicates with the model and outputs errors/success) or creating a new controller to handle the same functionality. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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• Do overlays work correctly in Emacs for Windows?

  - by Cheeso

  I'm using Flymake on C# code, emacs v22.2.1 on Windows. The Flymake stuff has been working well for me. For those who don't know, you can read an overview of flymake, but the quick story is that flymake repeatedly builds the source file you are currently working on in the background, for the purpose of doing syntax checking. It then highlights the compiler warnings and erros in the current buffer. Flymake didn't work for C# initially, but I "monkey-patched it" and it works nicely now. If you edit C# in emacs, I highly recommend using flymake. The only problem I have is with the UI. Flymake highlights the errors and warnings nicely, and then inserts "overlays" with the full error or warning text. IF I hover the mouse pointer over the highlighted line in code, the overlay pops up. But as you can see, the overlay is truncated, and it doesn't display correctly. Flymake seems to be doing the right thing, it's the overlay part that seems broken. Do overlays work correctly in emacs for Windows? Where do I look to fix this?

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• How do I associate Parameters to Command objects in ADO with VBScript?

  - by Krashman5k

  I have been working an ADO VBScript that needs to accept parameters and incorporate those parameters in the Query string that gets passed the the database. I keep getting errors when the Record Set Object attempts to open. If I pass a query without parameters, the recordset opens and I can work with the data. When I run the script through a debugger, the command object does not show a value for the parameter object. It seems to me that I am missing something that associates the Command object and Parameter object, but I do not know what. Here is a bit of the VBScript Code: ... 'Open Text file to collect SQL query string' Set fso = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") fileName = "C:\SQLFUN\Limits_ADO.sql" Set tso = fso.OpenTextFile(fileName, FORREADING) SQL = tso.ReadAll 'Create ADO instance' connString = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=myserver;UID=MyName;PWD=notapassword; Database=favoriteDB" Set connection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set cmd = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") connection.Open connString cmd.ActiveConnection = connection cmd.CommandText = SQL cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Set paramTotals = cmd.CreateParameter With paramTotals .value = "tot%" .Name = "Param1" End With 'The error occurs on the next line' Set recordset = cmd.Execute If recordset.EOF then WScript.Echo "No Data Returned" Else Do Until recordset.EOF WScript.Echo recordset.Fields.Item(0) ' & vbTab & recordset.Fields.Item(1) recordset.MoveNext Loop End If The SQL string that I use is fairly standard except I want to pass a parameter to it. It is something like this: SELECT column1 FROM table1 WHERE column1 IS LIKE ? I understand that ADO should replace the "?" with the parameter value I assign in the script. The problem I am seeing is that the Parameter object shows the correct value, but the command object's parameter field is null according to my debugger.

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• x86_64 printf segfault after brk call

  - by gmb11

  While i was trying do use brk (int 0x80 with 45 in %rax) to implement a simple memory manager program in assembly and print the blocks in order, i kept getting segfault. After a while i could only reproduce the error, but have no idea why is this happening: .section .data helloworld: .ascii "hello world" .section .text .globl _start _start: push %rbp mov %rsp, %rbp movq $45, %rax movq $0, %rbx #brk(0) should just return the current break of the programm int $0x80 #incq %rax #segfault #addq $1, %rax #segfault movq $0, %rax #works fine? #addq $1, %rax #segfault again? movq $helloworld, %rdi call printf movq $1, %rax #exit int $0x80 In the example here, if the commented lines are uncommented, i have a segfault, but some commands (like de movq $0, %rax) work just fine. In my other program, the first couple printf work, but the third crashes... Looking for other questions, i heard that printf sometimes allocates some memory, and that the brk shouldn't be used, because in this case it corrupts the heap or something... I'm very confused, does anyone know something about that? EDIT: I've just found out that for printf to work you need %rax=0.

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