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Why can't I create a database in an empty ASP MVC 2 project using Project->Add->New Item->SQL Server

- by Dr Dork

I'm diving head first into ASP MVC and am playing around with creating and manipulating a database. I did a search and found this tutorial for creating a database, however when I follow it, I get this error when trying to add a new database to my fresh, empty ASP MVC 2 project... A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) The only requirement the tutorial mentioned was SQL Server Express, but when I went to download it, it said it was already installed. I'm assuming it was part of the VS 2010 RC I installed and am running. So I don't know what else I need if I am missing something. This is all new to me, so I'm sure I'm missing something obvious here and after I'm done posting this question, I plan to do some more research into the topic of databases and how they work with ASP MVC. In the meantime, I was you could help me answer a couple high level questions... What am I missing/forgetting to do that is causing this error? Any suggestions for good resources/tutorials that focus on using databases with ASP MVC? I've done a lot of database programming in the past, so I'm familiar with the concepts of relational databases and the SQL language. I wish I could find a good resource for learning how to work with them in an ASP dev environment, as well as a good breakdown of all the related technologies used for working with them (i.e. LINQ to SQL). Thanks so much in advance for all your help! I'm going to start researching these questions right now.

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How do I avoid repetition in Java ResourceBundle strings?

- by Trejkaz

We had a lot of strings which contained the same sub-string, from sentences about checking the log or how to contact support, to branding-like strings containing the company or product name. The repetition was causing a few issues for ourselves (primarily typos or copy/paste errors) but it also causes issues in that it increases the amount of text our translator has to translate. The solution I came up with went something like this: public class ExpandingResourceBundleControl extends ResourceBundle.Control { public static final ResourceBundle.Control EXPANDING = new ExpandingResourceBundleControl(); private ExpandingResourceBundleControl() { } @Override public ResourceBundle newBundle(String baseName, Locale locale, String format, ClassLoader loader, boolean reload) throws IllegalAccessException, InstantiationException, IOException { ResourceBundle inner = super.newBundle(baseName, locale, format, loader, reload); return inner == null ? null : new ExpandingResourceBundle(inner, loader); } } ExpandingResourceBundle delegates to the real resource bundle but performs conversion of {{this.kind.of.thing}} to look up the key in the resources. Every time you want to get one of these, you have to go: ResourceBundle.getBundle("com/acme/app/Bundle", EXPANDING); And this works fine -- for a while. What eventually happens is that some new code (in our case autogenerated code which was spat out of Matisse) looks up the same resource bundle without specifying the custom control. This appears to be non-reproducible if you write a simple unit test which calls it with and then without, but it occurs when the application is run for real. Somehow the cache inside ResourceBundle ejects the good value and replaces it with the broken one. I am yet to figure out why and Sun's jar files were compiled without debug info so debugging it is a chore. My questions: Is there some way of globally setting the default ResourceBundle.Control that I might not be aware of? That would solve everything rather elegantly. Is there some other way of handling this kind of thing elegantly, perhaps without tampering with the ResourceBundle classes at all?

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How do I associate Parameters to Command objects in ADO with VBScript?

- by Krashman5k

I have been working an ADO VBScript that needs to accept parameters and incorporate those parameters in the Query string that gets passed the the database. I keep getting errors when the Record Set Object attempts to open. If I pass a query without parameters, the recordset opens and I can work with the data. When I run the script through a debugger, the command object does not show a value for the parameter object. It seems to me that I am missing something that associates the Command object and Parameter object, but I do not know what. Here is a bit of the VBScript Code: ... 'Open Text file to collect SQL query string' Set fso = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") fileName = "C:\SQLFUN\Limits_ADO.sql" Set tso = fso.OpenTextFile(fileName, FORREADING) SQL = tso.ReadAll 'Create ADO instance' connString = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=myserver;UID=MyName;PWD=notapassword; Database=favoriteDB" Set connection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set cmd = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") connection.Open connString cmd.ActiveConnection = connection cmd.CommandText = SQL cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Set paramTotals = cmd.CreateParameter With paramTotals .value = "tot%" .Name = "Param1" End With 'The error occurs on the next line' Set recordset = cmd.Execute If recordset.EOF then WScript.Echo "No Data Returned" Else Do Until recordset.EOF WScript.Echo recordset.Fields.Item(0) ' & vbTab & recordset.Fields.Item(1) recordset.MoveNext Loop End If The SQL string that I use is fairly standard except I want to pass a parameter to it. It is something like this: SELECT column1 FROM table1 WHERE column1 IS LIKE ? I understand that ADO should replace the "?" with the parameter value I assign in the script. The problem I am seeing is that the Parameter object shows the correct value, but the command object's parameter field is null according to my debugger.

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nedmalloc: where does mem<fm come from?

- by Suma

While implementing nedmalloc into my application, I am frequently hitting a situation when nedmalloc refuses to free a block of memory, claiming it did not allocate it. While debugging I have come up to the point I see a particular condition which is failing, all other (including magic numbers) succeed. The condition is this: if((size_t)mem-(size_t)fm>=(size_t)1<<(SIZE_T_BITSIZE-1)) return 0; On Win32 this seems to be equivalent to: if((int)((size_t)mem-(size_t)fm)<0) return 0; Which seems to be the same as: if((size_t)mem<(size_t)fm) return 0; In my case I really see mem < fm. What I do not understand now is, where does this condition come from. I cannot find anything which would guarantee the fm <= m anywhere in code. Yet, "select isn't broken": I doubt it would really be a bug in nedmalloc, most likely I am doing something wrong somewhere, but I cannot find it. Once I turn debugging features of nedmalloc on, the problem goes away. If someone here understands inner working of nedmalloc, could you please explain to me why is fm <= m?

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SQL Joining Two or More from Table B with Common Data in Table A

- by Matthew Frederick

The real-world situation is a series of events that each have two or more participants (like sports teams, though there can be more than two in an event), only one of which is the host of the event. There is an Event db table for each unique event and a Participant db table with unique participants. They are joined together using a Matchup table. They look like this: Event EventID (PK) (other event data like the date, etc.) Participant ParticipantID (PK) Name Matchup EventID (FK to Event table) ParicipantID (FK to Participant) Host (1 or 0, only 1 host = 1 per EventID) What I'd like to get as a result is something like this: EventID ParticipantID where host = 1 Participant.Name where host = 1 ParticipantID where host = 0 Participant.Name where host = 0 ParticipantID where host = 0 Participant.Name where host = 0 ... Where one event has 2 participants and another has 3 participants, for example, the third participant column data would be null or otherwise noticeable, something like (PID = ParticipantID): EventID PID-1(host) Name-1 (host) PID-2 Name-2 PID-3 Name-3 ------- ----------- ------------- ----- ------ ----- ------ 1 7 Lions 8 Tigers 12 Bears 2 11 Dogs 9 Cats NULL NULL I suspect the answer is reasonably straightforward but for some reason I'm not wrapping my head around it. Alternately it's very difficult. :) I'm using MYSQL 5 if that affects the available SQL.

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Strange MSI error when setup.exe is run

- by Martin Jackson

We're using Visual Studio 2008's Setup Project to create an installer for our .NET 3.5 app. We host the .exe and .msi files on a website for our client to access, and produce new ones regularly to provide updates. This has all been fine until recently we've noticed some cases where installing via the .exe fails. The symptoms are: The .exe downloads fine, and runs fine. It appears to download the .msi successfully (the "downloading application files" step plods through happily), but then when it gets to the end of the "preparing to install" step, instead of launching the installer UI it pops up a message saying "This installation package could not be opened. Verify that the package exists and that you can access it, or contact the application vendor to verify that this is a valid Windows Installer package". You'd think that the .msi is just corrupt or something, but running it explicitly (even downloading it from the same location as the .exe to do so) works just fine. This problem is occurring on just some of our machines, which are running a mixture of XP and Windows7. The only pattern I can see in those machines that experience the problem is that they tend to have had the application installed on them longer (i.e. updating the app rather than installing for the first time). It seems to me that it might be something to do with how/where the .exe downloads the .msi to, and perhaps different versions are conflicting there? Has anyone experienced this before? Does anyone know where the installer .exe puts the .msi that it downloads?

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Bit shift and pointer oddities in C, looking for explanations

- by foo

Hi all, I discovered something odd that I can't explain. If someone here can see what or why this is happening I'd like to know. What I'm doing is taking an unsigned short containing 12 bits aligned high like this: 1111 1111 1111 0000 I then want to shif the bits so that each byte in the short hold 7bits with the MSB as a pad. The result on what's presented above should look like this: 0111 1111 0111 1100 What I have done is this: unsigned short buf = 0xfff; //align high buf <<= 4; buf >>= 1; *((char*)&buf) >>= 1; This gives me something like looks like it's correct but the result of the last shift leaves the bit set like this: 0111 1111 1111 1100 Very odd. If I use an unsigned char as a temporary storage and shift that then it works, like this: unsigned short buf = 0xfff; buf <<= 4; buf >>= 1; tmp = *((char*)&buf); *((char*)&buf) = tmp >> 1; The result of this is: 0111 1111 0111 1100 Any ideas what is going on here?

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Handling dependencies with IoC that change within a single function call

- by Jess

We are trying to figure out how to setup Dependency Injection for situations where service classes can have different dependencies based on how they are used. In our specific case, we have a web app where 95% of the time the connection string is the same for the entire Request (this is a web application), but sometimes it can change. For example, we might have 2 classes with the following dependencies (simplified version - service actually has 4 dependencies): public LoginService (IUserRepository userRep) { } public UserRepository (IContext dbContext) { } In our IoC container, most of our dependencies are auto-wired except the Context for which I have something like this (not actual code, it's from memory ... this is StructureMap): x.ForRequestedType().Use() .WithCtorArg("connectionString").EqualTo(Session["ConnString"]); For 95% of our web application, this works perfectly. However, we have some admin-type functions that must operate across thousands of databases (one per client). Basically, we'd want to do this: public CreateUserList(IList<string> connStrings) { foreach (connString in connStrings) { //first create dependency graph using new connection string ???? //then call service method on new database _loginService.GetReportDataForAllUsers(); } } My question is: How do we create that new dependency graph for each time through the loop, while maintaining something that can easily be tested?

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Designing bayesian networks

- by devoured elysium

I have a basic question about Bayesian networks. Let's assume we have an engine, that with 1/3 probability can stop working. I'll call this variable ENGINE. If it stops working, then your car doesn't work. If the engine is working, then your car will work 99% of the time. I'll call this one CAR. Now, if your car is old(OLD), instead of not working 1/3 of the time, your engine will stop working 1/2 of the time. I'm being asked to first design the network and then assign all the conditional probabilities associated with the table. I'd say the diagram of this network would be something like OLD -> ENGINE -> CAR Now, for the conditional probabilities tables I did the following: OLD |ENGINE ------------ True | 0.50 False | 0.33 and ENGINE|CAR ------------ True | 0.99 False | 0.00 Now, I am having trouble about how to define the probabilities of OLD. In my point of view, old is not something that has a CAUSE relationship with ENGINE, I'd say it is more a characteristic of it. Maybe there is a different way to express this in the diagram? If the diagram is indeed correct, how would I go to make the tables? Thanks

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What Happens to Commit Logs on a Branch After Merging?

- by Levi Hackwith

Scenario: Programmer creates a branch for project 'foo' called 'my_foo' at revision 5 Programmer makes multiple changes to multiple files as he works on the 'my_foo' feature. At the end of each major step, say adding several new functions to class, the programmer does an svn commit on the appropriate files therefore committing them to the branch After several weeks and many commits later (each commit having a commit log describing what he did), the programmer merges the branch back into the trunk: #Assume the following is being done from inside a working copy of the trunk: svn merge -r 5:15 file:///path/to/repo/branches/my_foo Hazzah! he's merged all his changes back into trunk! There's much rejoicing and drinking of Mountain Dew. Now let's say another programmer comes along a week later and updates their working copy from revision 5 to revision 15. "Wow", they say. "I wonder what's changed since revision 5". The programmer then does an svn status on their working copy and they get something like this: ------------------------------------------------------------------------ r15 | programmer1 | 2010-03-20 21:27:04 -0400 (Sat, 20 Mar 2010) | 1 line Merging Version 2.0 Changes into trunk ------------------------------------------------------------------------ r5 | programmer2 | 2010-02-15 10:59:55 -0500 (Mon, 15 Feb 2010) | 1 line Added assets/images/tumblr_icon.png to trunk What the heck happened to all the notes that the other programmer put in with all of his commits in his branch? Do those not get pulled over during a merge? Am I crazy or just forgetting something?

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Photoshop CS5 not recognising activeDocument

- by Max Kielland

I wrote a quite big script for Photoshop CS5.1 on my 64bit Vista machine. Now when I run the very same script on my new 64bit Windows 7 machine, Adobe ExtendScript Tool complains about activeDocument (no such element) in this simple script: #target photoshop var pDoc = app.activeDocument; alert("Done!"); I have tried both and without #target and choosing the target in the ExtendedScript Tool. Is there something I have missed, or do I need to install something more. I only installed the 64bit version of Photoshop. Is it so that the 32bit Photoshop has the script extensions? I don't see why I need to install both 32bit and 64bit versions if I'm only going to use the 64bit version. EDIT I installed the 32bit version as well. Tried the same script against 32 and 64 bit, still no difference. SOLVED The mystery is solved. It is embarrassing simple if you interpret the error message more careful. Of course I can't get an activeDocument if there are no documents in Photoshop, duh!?! I interpreted it as the statement activeDocument wasn't recognised, but of course if I have no document there is no such element (as a photoshop document) to give me. I'm used to C++ and would expect the reuslt to be a NULL value or similar if there is a problem to get the document... excuses, excuses ;) Well, if someone else should get into the same problem, here is the answer on my expense :D

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why is the <img> alt attribute not always properly displayed

- by Piero

So I have this php script that output an html table with data about some files (like filename, filesize, etc...) I have this javascript function that displays the picture when you hover a tag belonging to the class "preview". For example, if a filename is: somePic.jpg, when you hover somePic.jpg in the table, the picture will appear next to your mouse. Now not all these files are pictures, some are .mp3, so of course when you hover them, the javascript cannot display the picture. To deal with this case, I added in the tag (generated by the javascript function), an alt attribute: alt='Preview not available for this type of content.' And here is my problem, sometimes it works, but sometimes it doesn't! Sometimes you start hovering .mp3 links, and the alt attribute is displayed, then you hover a picture, the picture is displayed, then you hover an .mp3 again, and the alt isn't displayed anymore, but the "broken image" image (the little red cross) is displayed instead... Sure I could parse the filenames and detect when it's an mp3 and then deal with the case, but I thought the alt attribute was suppose to achieve this... but it's buggy... Any idea? Does anyone already faced this problem?

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Wrong chapter number on page headers except first page

- by okhalid

Hi, I am writing up my thesis in Latex and have a template. It works nicely for every thing else except one. Chapter numbers are correctly incremented on the first page of each chapter but for consecutive pages of each chapter, the header saying "Chapter x - This is a chapter title" have 1 always as chapter number. Following is the code sample from the CLS file which i think is relevant to the headers: \newcommand\btypeout[1]{\bhrule\typeout{\space #1}\bhrule} \def\today{\ifcase\month\or January\or February\or March\or April\or May\or June\or July\or August\or September\or October\or November\or December\fi \space \number\year} \usepackage{setspace} \onehalfspacing \setlength{\parindent}{0pt} \setlength{\parskip}{2.0ex plus0.5ex minus0.2ex} \usepackage{vmargin} \setmarginsrb { 1.5in} % left margin { 0.6in} % top margin { 1.0in} % right margin { 0.8in} % bottom margin { 20pt} % head height {0.25in} % head sep { 9pt} % foot height { 0.3in} % foot sep \raggedbottom \setlength{\topskip}{1\topskip \@plus 5\p@} \doublehyphendemerits=10000 % No consecutive line hyphens. \brokenpenalty=10000 % No broken words across columns/pages. \widowpenalty=9999 % Almost no widows at bottom of page. \clubpenalty=9999 % Almost no orphans at top of page. \interfootnotelinepenalty=9999 % Almost never break footnotes. \usepackage{fancyhdr} \lhead[\rm\thepage]{\fancyplain{}{\sl{\rightmark}}} \rhead[\fancyplain{}{\sl{\leftmark}}]{\rm\thepage} \chead{}\lfoot{}\rfoot{}\cfoot{} \pagestyle{fancy} %% Chapter Heading --------------- \renewcommand{\chaptermark}[1]{\btypeout{\thechapter\space #1}\markboth{\@chapapp\ \thechapter\ #1}{\@chapapp\ \thechapter\ #1}} %%-------------------------------------------------- \renewcommand{\sectionmark}[1]{} \renewcommand{\subsectionmark}[1]{} \def\cleardoublepage{\clearpage\if@twoside \ifodd\c@page\else \hbox{} \thispagestyle{empty} \newpage \if@twocolumn\hbox{}\newpage\fi\fi\fi} Thanks, Omer

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Strange behaviour using Drag and Drop in word 2003 automation in headers

- by Oliver Hanappi

Hi! I am developing a template based addin for Word 2003 which allows the user to drag and drop elements from a listbox into the word document. Unfortunately I'm getting a really strange behaviour when trying to drop elements in the document's header. Open the template and type something in the header Close the header and insert some content on the page Add a page break. Switch to page layout mode where and set zoom level to "Two Pages" Open the header Slowly Drag and Drop an list item from the list box to the header. See multiple Page Setups dialogs occur which cause Word to crash. Here is my code: // in ThisDocument.cs public MyUserControl _control; public void Init() { _control = new MyUserControl(); ActionsPane.Controls.Add(_control); ActionsPane.Visible = true; } // in MyUserControl.cs public void listBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { DoDragDrop("something", DragDropEffects.Copy); } Have I done somethinkg wrong with implementing Drag and Drop? Is there a workaround for this strange behaviour? Thanks in advance, Oliver Hanappi

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Copy an entity in Google App Engine datastore in Python without knowing property names at 'compile'

- by Gordon Worley

In a Python Google App Engine app I'm writing, I have an entity stored in the datastore that I need to retrieve, make an exact copy of it (with the exception of the key), and then put this entity back in. How should I do this? In particular, are there any caveats or tricks I need to be aware of when doing this so that I get a copy of the sort I expect and not something else. ETA: Well, I tried it out and I did run into problems. I would like to make my copy in such a way that I don't have to know the names of the properties when I write the code. My thinking was to do this: #theThing = a particular entity we pull from the datastore with model Thing copyThing = Thing(user = user) for thingProperty in theThing.properties(): copyThing.__setattr__(thingProperty[0], thingProperty[1]) This executes without any errors... until I try to pull copyThing from the datastore, at which point I discover that all of the properties are set to None (with the exception of the user and key, obviously). So clearly this code is doing something, since it's replacing the defaults with None (all of the properties have a default value set), but not at all what I want. Suggestions?

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Installing and using acts-as-taggable-on

- by seaneshbaugh

This is going to be a really dumb question, I just know it, but I'm going to ask anyways because it's driving me crazy. How do I get acts-as-taggable-on to work? I installed it as a gem with gem install acts-as-taggable-on because I can't ever seem to get installing plugins to work, but that's a whole other batch of questions that are all probably really dumb. Anyways, no problems there, it installed correctly. I did ruby script/generate acts_as_taggable_on_migration and rake db:migrate, again no problems. I added acts_as_taggable to the model I want to use tags with, started up the server and then loaded the index for the model just to see if what I've got so far is working and got the following error: undefined local variable or method `acts_as_taggable' for #. I figure that just means I need to do something like require 'acts-as-taggable-on' to my model's file because that's typically what's necessary for gems. So I did that hit refresh and got uninitialized constant ActiveRecord::VERSION. I'm not even going to pretend to begin to know what that means went wrong. Did I go wrong somewhere or there something else I need to do. The installation instructions seem to me like they just assume you generally know what you're doing and don't even begin to explain what to do when things go wrong.

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Question about WeakReferences

- by Impz0r

Hey there, I've got a question regarding WeakReferences. I'm right now in the process of writing a "Resource Manager" who hast to keep references to created texture objects. I have a Dictionary like: Dictionary<uint, WeakReference> Where the first is, as you allready may guessed, the Resource Id and the second param is a WeakReference to the Resource itself. Right now my Resources do have a method to free themselfes from their Owner (i.e. Resource Manager). They do so in calling a method at the Resource Manger while passing a this reference to it. The ResMgr does lookup if it is a resource he keeps bookmark of and if so, does something like this: WeakReference result; if (m_Resources.TryGetValue(ResourceId, out result)) { if (result.IsAlive) return; (result.Target as Resource).free(); // free for good m_Resources.Remove(ResourceId); } The Problem I'm having is that the part after: if (result.IsAlive) is never reached because there are still leftover references to the Resource. The thing is, I do only have one Reference of the Resource in question and it releases itself like: resource.free(); // calls internally its owner (i.e. ResMgr) resource = null; I guess the left over reference would be the "resource" variable, but I cannot set it to null, because I do have to call free first. Quite a dilema... Well what I wanted to achive with this is a Resource Manager who keeps references to its owning Resources and release them ONLY if there is no reference left to not screw up something. Any idea how I may solve this in a clean fashion? Thanks in advance! Mfg Imp

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Buttons OnClick Event not firing when it causes a textboxes onChange event to fire first

- by user48408

I have a few textboxes and button to save their values on a webpage. The onchange event of the textboxes fires some js which adds the changed text to a js array. The ok button when clicked flushes this to the database via a webservice. This works fine except when the onchange event is caused by clicking the ok button. In this scenario the onchange of the textboxes still fires but the onClick event of the button does not. Any ideas? textboxes look something like <input name="ctrlJPView$tbcTabContainer$Details$JP_Details_Address2Text" type="text" value="test" id="ctrlJPView_tbcTabContainer_Details_JP_Details_Address2Text" onchange="addSaveDetails('Jobs###' + document.getElementById('ctrlJPView_tbcTabContainer_Details_JP_Details_Address2Text').value + ');" style="font-size:8pt;Left:110px;Top:29px;Width:420px;Height:13px;Position:absolute;" /> My save button <input type="button" name="ctrlJPView$btnOk" value="OK" onclick="saveAmendments();refreshJobGrids();return false;__doPostBack('ctrlJPView$btnOk','')" id="ctrlJPView_btnOk" class="ControlText" style="width:60px;" /> UPDATE: I guess this comes down to one of two things. 1) Something is happening before the onClick of the button gets called to surpress that call such as an inadvertent return false; or 2) the onClick event isn't firing at all. Now I've rem'd out everything actually inside the functions that are being called beforehand but the problem persists. But if i remove the call altogether it works (???)

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PHP Variable with Array

- by Crays

Hi guys, i'm trying to make a "update user's power" page. It is something similar to those you can find in say, invisionfree forums. I need it to generate a list of members with checkbox [done] Add an option for it [done] What i don't know how to do is to update, to say, give all the selected users the selected power. Then i went searching for something and found most of them uses array to do this, but i never found one that actually explains how it works. The example i took (with my own modification) was this: while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { echo '<tr>'.$id[]=$rows['id'].''; echo '<td width="50px" align="center" class="TableFormCell"><input type="checkbox" name="option[]" /></td>'; echo '<td width="170px" align="center" class="TableFormCell">'.$row['uname'].'</td>'; echo '</tr>'; } I'm not sure what exactly $id[]=$rows['id'] does I know after the row, my option[] would become an array of option[1], option[2], option[3] for what power should be given, i've got no problem with that but on how to update the database i'm got no clue... for($i=0;$i<$count;$i++){ $sql1="UPDATE ninos SET power='$power' WHERE id='$option[$i]'"; $result1=mysql_query($sql1); } So Say i have 5 users, Aye, Bee, Cee, Dee, Eee with IDs of 1,2,3,4,5 how can i make it so that my script would run like $sql1="UPDATE ninos SET power = '$power' Where id='1','2','3','4','5'"; Please help, thanks.

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Rails fields_for parameters for a has_many relation don't yield an Array in params

- by user1289061

I have a model Sensor with has_many and accepts_nested_attributes_for relationships to another model Watch. In a form to update a Sensor, I have something like the following <%= sensor_form.fields_for :watches do |watches_form| %> <%= watches_form.label :label %><br /> <%= watches_form.text_field :label %> <% end %> This is indended to allow editting of the already-created Watches belonging to a Sensor. This call spits form inputs as so: <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][label]" ... /> <input name="sensor[watches_attributes][0][id]" ... /> When this gets submitted, the params object in the Sensor controller gets an assoc like "sensor" => { "id"=>"1", "watches_attributes"=> { "0"=>{"id" => "1", "label" => "foo"}, "1"=>{"id" => "2", "label" => "bar"} } } For a has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for update to work upon the @sensor.update_attributes call, it seems that that attributes key really must map to an Array. From what I've seen in the examples, the combination of has_many, accepts_nested_attributes_for, and sensor_form.fields_for should allow me to pass the resulting params object directly to @sensor.update_attributes and update each related object as intended. Instead the Sensor takes place, with no errors, but the Watch objects are not updated (since "watches_attributes" maps to a Hash instead of an Array?) Have I missed something?

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Putting CAPTCHAs on their own page?

- by mnemosyn

We need to put a captcha image on our ASP.NET MVC 2 based website. We chose reCaptcha and built it in using the way described by Derik Whittaker. The idea there is baiscally to build some abstractions and all you need to do is decorate your Controller with a [ValidateCaptcha] attribute. This works all fine. However, we have a lot of form-widgets in different pages and I don't want to have the captcha floating around everywhere. So I'd like to implement it the way StackOverflow does: Submit a Form -> Challenge Captcha -> Submit Captcha -> Perform Action on original form data. Now, how do I redirect the user to the captcha page while keeping the originally submitted information? I thought of some very ugly hacks (hidden fields w/ base64 encoded form data, etc.) but I think I'm missing something obvious. On the other hand, this sounds as if I wanted to do something in a stateful manner, and I shouldn't?

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What's a good way of building up a String given specific start and end locations?

- by Michael Campbell

(java 1.5) I have a need to build up a String, in pieces. I'm given a set of (sub)strings, each with a start and end point of where they belong in the final string. Was wondering if there were some canonical way of doing this. This isn't homework, and I can use any licensable OSS, such as jakarta commons-lang StringUtils etc. My company has a solution using a CharBuffer, and I'm content to leave it as is (and add some unit tests, of which there are none (?!)) but the code is fairly hideous and I would like something easier to read. As I said this isn't homework, and I don't need a complete solution, just some pointers to libraries or java classes that might give me some insight. The String.Format didn't seem QUITE right... I would have to honor inputs too long and too short, etc. Substrings would be overlaid in the order they appear (in case of overlap). As an example of input, I might have something like: String:start:end FO:0:3 (string shorter than field) BAR:4:5 (String larger than field) BLEH:5:9 (String overlays previous field) I'd want to end up with FO BBLEH 01234567890

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How to move the Windows 7 bootloader to the Windows 7 partition?

- by pauldoo

I recently installed Windows 7 in a triple boot setup alongside XP and Linux. When I was finished and was in the process of restoring the bootloader for Linux I discovered something strange about what Windows 7 had done. I discovered that Windows 7 had not installed a bootloader to it's own partition, and instead had instead set up a bootloader on the pre-existing XP partition that offers a choice between 7 and XP. This behaviour has been noticed by others. Now my booting is slightly odd. I have GRUB on the MBR which lets me choose between Linux and Windows. When I select Windows I have Grub boot to the XP partition where I get the 2nd choice between 7 and XP. Why doesn't the Windows 7 installer put the Windows 7 bootloader on the Windows 7 partition like all previous MS OSs? This is now going to be a real problem for me, as I now want to wipe the XP partition and install something else there (probably another non-MS OS). How can I move the bootloader for Windows 7 onto the Windows 7 partition, thus making it bootable and allowing me to safely wipe the XP partition?

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Random String Generator creates same string on multiple calls

- by rockinthesixstring

Hi there. I've build a random string generator but I'm having a problem whereby if I call the function multiple times say in a Page_Load method, the function returns the same string twice. here's the code ''' <summary>' ''' Generates a Random String' ''' </summary>' ''' <param name="n">number of characters the method should generate</param>' ''' <param name="UseSpecial">should the method include special characters? IE: # ,$, !, etc.</param>' ''' <param name="SpecialOnly">should the method include only the special characters and excludes alpha numeric</param>' ''' <returns>a random string n characters long</returns>' Public Function GenerateRandom(ByVal n As Integer, Optional ByVal UseSpecial As Boolean = True, Optional ByVal SpecialOnly As Boolean = False) As String Dim chars As String() ' a character array to use when generating a random string' Dim ichars As Integer = 74 'number of characters to use out of the chars string' Dim schars As Integer = 0 ' number of characters to skip out of the characters string' chars = { _ "A", "B", "C", "D", "E", "F", _ "G", "H", "I", "J", "K", "L", _ "M", "N", "O", "P", "Q", "R", _ "S", "T", "U", "V", "W", "X", _ "Y", "Z", "0", "1", "2", "3", _ "4", "5", "6", "7", "8", "9", _ "a", "b", "c", "d", "e", "f", _ "g", "h", "i", "j", "k", "l", _ "m", "n", "o", "p", "q", "r", _ "s", "t", "u", "v", "w", "x", _ "y", "z", "!", "@", "#", "$", _ "%", "^", "&", "*", "(", ")", _ "-", "+"} If Not UseSpecial Then ichars = 62 ' only use the alpha numeric characters out of "char"' If SpecialOnly Then schars = 62 : ichars = 74 ' skip the alpha numeric characters out of "char"' Dim rnd As New Random() Dim random As String = String.Empty Dim i As Integer = 0 While i < n random += chars(rnd.[Next](schars, ichars)) System.Math.Max(System.Threading.Interlocked.Increment(i), i - 1) End While rnd = Nothing Return random End Function but if I call something like this Dim str1 As String = GenerateRandom(5) Dim str2 As String = GenerateRandom(5) the response will be something like this g*3Jq g*3Jq and the second time I call it, it will be 3QM0$ 3QM0$ What am I missing? I'd like every random string to be generated as unique.

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purpose of 3rd party mvc ?

- by Honey

ive seen many third party mvcs or frameworks such as codeignitor , cakephp, and so on. what i want to know is what are their purposes? ive created my own framework call it an mvc or framework (in my opinion their all the same). in my framework i have all the classes in one folder called classes and all functions in another. its all organized and when a new project comes in i am able to complete it fast. i have looked at the applications that i mentioned and it seems to have huge articles and tutorials to study. what is the purpose? why not study the main language such as php, javascript/ajax or jquery, and so on then build something that you know the ins and outs of so that any project comes your way you know what to do. ive known some people who use cakephp and for every project they get stuck and need to figure out what to do. another guy i knew worked with joomla and every basic company website that came his way he would reverse engineer joomla to make it work with the site. are people using these applications because they lack knowledge in the languages? or sometimes have no choice but to make a site while lacking language and put something together.

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