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  • Visual Studio + Database Edition + CDC = Deploy Fail

    - by Ben
    Hi All, I've got a database using change data capture (CDC) that is created from a Visual Studio database project (GDR2). My problem is that I have a stored procedure that is analyzing the CDC information and then returning data. How is that a problem you ask? Well, the order of operation is as follows. Pre-deployment Script Tables Indexes, keys, etc. Procedures Post-deployment Script Inside the post-deployment script is where I enable CDC. Here-in lies the problem. The procedure that is acting on the CDC tables is bombing because they don't exist yet! I've tried to put the call to sys.sp_cdc_enable_table in the script that creates the table, but it doesn't like that. Error 102 TSD03070: This statement is not recognized in this context. C:...\Schema Objects\Schemas\dbo\Tables\Foo.table.sql 20 1 Foo Is there a better/built-in way to enable CDC such that it's references are available when the stored procedures are created? Is there a way to run a script after tables are created but before other objects are created? How about a way to create the procedure dependencies be damned? Or maybe I'm just doing things that shouldn't be done?!?! Now, I have a work around. Comment out the sproc body Deploy (CDC is created) Uncomment sproc Deploy Everything is great until the next time I update a CDC tracked table. Then I need to comment out the 'offending' procedure. Thanks for reading my question and thanks for your help!

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  • RichFaces a4j:support parameter passing

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello I have a number of rich:inplaceInput tags in RichFaces which represent numbers in an array. The validator allows integers only. When a user clicks in an input and changes a value, how can I get the bean to sort the array given the new number and reRender the list of rich:inplaceInput tags so that they're in numerical order? EG <a4j:region> <rich:dataTable value="#{MyBacking.config}" var="feed" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" width="100%" border="0" columns="5" id="Admin"> ... <a4j:repeat... <a4j:region id="MsgCon"> <rich:inplaceInput value="#{h.id}" validator="#{MyBacking.validateID}" id="andID" showControls="true"> <a4j:support event="onviewactivated" action="#{MyBacking.sort}" reRender="Admin" /> </rich:inplaceInput> </a4j:region> </a4j:repeat> </data:Table> </a4j:region> Note I do NOT want to use dataTable sort functions. The table is complicated and I've specified id="Admin" (ie the whole table) to reRender as I've not found a way to send more localised values to the backing bean through the inplaceInput. This question is about how to use a4j:support action attribute to call the sort method so that when the reRender rerenders the component, it outputs the list in sorted order. I have the sort method working ok when I click a button to sort, but I want to have the list sorted automatically as soon as a new valid value is entered into the inplaceInput component. Thanks

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  • Eclipselink: Create objects from JOIN query

    - by Raven
    Hi, I have a SQL query SELECT * FROM Thing AS a JOIN Thing_Property AS b ON a.id=b.Thing_ID JOIN Property AS c ON b.properties_ID = c.id JOIN Item AS d ON c.item_ID = d.id ORDER BY a.name, d.name and I Eclipselink to create my object model with it. Here is the model: @SuppressWarnings("serial") @Entity public class Thing implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.TABLE) private int id; private String name; @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @PrivateOwned private List<Property> properties = new ArrayList<Property>(); ... // getter and setter following here } public class Property implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.TABLE) private int id; @OneToOne private Item item; private String value; ... // getter and setter following here } public class Item implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.TABLE) private int id; private String name; .... // getter and setter following here } // Code end but I can not figure out, how to make Eclipselink create the model from that query. Can you help?

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  • PHP: What is an efficient way to parse a text file containing very long lines?

    - by Shaun
    I'm working on a parser in php which is designed to extract MySQL records out of a text file. A particular line might begin with a string corresponding to which table the records (rows) need to be inserted into, followed by the records themselves. The records are delimited by a backslash and the fields (columns) are separated by commas. For the sake of simplicity, let's assume that we have a table representing people in our database, with fields being First Name, Last Name, and Occupation. Thus, one line of the file might be as follows [People] = "\Han,Solo,Smuggler\Luke,Skywalker,Jedi..." Where the ellipses (...) could be additional people. One straightforward approach might be to use fgets() to extract a line from the file, and use preg_match() to extract the table name, records, and fields from that line. However, let's suppose that we have an awful lot of Star Wars characters to track. So many, in fact, that this line ends up being 200,000+ characters/bytes long. In such a case, taking the above approach to extract the database information seems a bit inefficient. You have to first read hundreds of thousands of characters into memory, then read back over those same characters to find regex matches. Is there a way, similar to the Java String next(String pattern) method of the Scanner class constructed using a file, that allows you to match patterns in-line while scanning through the file? The idea is that you don't have to scan through the same text twice (to read it from the file into a string, and then to match patterns) or store the text redundantly in memory (in both the file line string and the matched patterns). Would this even yield a significant increase in performance? It's hard to tell exactly what PHP or Java are doing behind the scenes.

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  • Avoid loading unnecessary data from db into objects (web pages)

    - by GmGr
    Really newbie question coming up. Is there a standard (or good) way to deal with not needing all of the information that a database table contains loaded into every associated object. I'm thinking in the context of web pages where you're only going to use the objects to build a single page rather than an application with longer lived objects. For example, lets say you have an Article table containing id, title, author, date, summary and fullContents fields. You don't need the fullContents to be loaded into the associated objects if you're just showing a page containing a list of articles with their summaries. On the other hand if you're displaying a specific article you might want every field loaded for that one article and maybe just the titles for the other articles (e.g. for display in a recent articles sidebar). Some techniques I can think of: Don't worry about it, just load everything from the database every time. Have several different, possibly inherited, classes for each table and create the appropriate one for the situation (e.g. SummaryArticle, FullArticle). Use one class but set unused properties to null at creation if that field is not needed and be careful. Give the objects access to the database so they can load some fields on demand. Something else? All of the above seem to have fairly major disadvantages. I'm fairly new to programming, very new to OOP and totally new to databases so I might be completely missing the obvious answer here. :)

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  • Modify MySQL INSERT statement to omit the insertion of certain rows

    - by dave
    I'm trying to expand a little on a statement that I received help with last week. As you can see, I'm setting up a temporary table and inserting rows of student data from a recently administered test for a few dozen schools. When the rows are inserted, they are sorted by the score (totpct_stu, high to low) and the row_number is added, with 1 representing the highest score, etc. I've learned that there were some problems at school #9999 in SMITH's class (every student made a perfect score and they were the only students in the district to do so). So, I do not want to import SMITH's class. As you can see, I DELETED SMITH's class, but this messed up the row numbering for the remainder of student at the school (e.g., high score row_number is now 20, not 1). How can I modify the INSERT statement so as to not insert this class? Thanks! DROP TEMPORARY TABLE IF EXISTS avgpct ; CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE avgpct_1 ( sch_code VARCHAR(3), schabbrev VARCHAR(75), teachername VARCHAR(75), totpct_stu DECIMAL(5,1), row_number SMALLINT, dummy VARCHAR(75) ); -- ---------------------------------------- INSERT INTO avgpct SELECT sch_code , schabbrev , teachername , totpct_stu , @num := IF( @GROUP = schabbrev, @num + 1, 1 ) AS row_number , @GROUP := schabbrev AS dummy FROM sci_rpt WHERE grade = '05' AND totpct_stu >= 1 -- has a valid score ORDER BY sch_code, totpct_stu DESC ; -- --------------------------------------- -- select * from avgpct ; -- --------------------------------------- DELETE FROM avgpct_1 WHERE sch_code = '9999' AND teachername = 'SMITH' ;

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  • Correlate GROUP BY and LEFT JOIN on multiple criteria to show latest record?

    - by Sunbird
    In a simple stock management database, quantity of new stock is added and shipped until quantity reaches zero. Each stock movement is assigned a reference, only the latest reference is used. In the example provided, the latest references are never shown, the stock ID's 1,4 should have references charlie, foxtrot respectively, but instead show alpha, delta. How can a GROUP BY and LEFT JOIN on multiple criteria be correlated to show the latest record? http://sqlfiddle.com/#!2/6bf37/107 CREATE TABLE stock ( id tinyint PRIMARY KEY, quantity int, parent_id tinyint ); CREATE TABLE stock_reference ( id tinyint PRIMARY KEY, stock_id tinyint, stock_reference_type_id tinyint, reference varchar(50) ); CREATE TABLE stock_reference_type ( id tinyint PRIMARY KEY, name varchar(50) ); INSERT INTO stock VALUES (1, 10, 1), (2, -5, 1), (3, -5, 1), (4, 20, 4), (5, -10, 4), (6, -5, 4); INSERT INTO stock_reference VALUES (1, 1, 1, 'Alpha'), (2, 2, 1, 'Beta'), (3, 3, 1, 'Charlie'), (4, 4, 1, 'Delta'), (5, 5, 1, 'Echo'), (6, 6, 1, 'Foxtrot'); INSERT INTO stock_reference_type VALUES (1, 'Customer Reference'); SELECT stock.id, SUM(stock.quantity) as quantity, customer.reference FROM stock LEFT JOIN stock_reference AS customer ON stock.id = customer.stock_id AND stock_reference_type_id = 1 GROUP BY stock.parent_id

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  • Same query has nested loops when used with INSERT, but Hash Match without.

    - by AaronLS
    I have two tables, one has about 1500 records and the other has about 300000 child records. About a 1:200 ratio. I stage the parent table to a staging table, SomeParentTable_Staging, and then I stage all of it's child records, but I only want the ones that are related to the records I staged in the parent table. So I use the below query to perform this staging by joining with the parent tables staged data. --Stage child records INSERT INTO [dbo].[SomeChildTable_Staging] ([SomeChildTableId] ,[SomeParentTableId] ,SomeData1 ,SomeData2 ,SomeData3 ,SomeData4 ) SELECT [SomeChildTableId] ,D.[SomeParentTableId] ,SomeData1 ,SomeData2 ,SomeData3 ,SomeData4 FROM [dbo].[SomeChildTable] D INNER JOIN dbo.SomeParentTable_Staging I ON D.SomeParentTableID = I.SomeParentTableID; The execution plan indicates that the tables are being joined with a Nested Loop. When I run just the select portion of the query without the insert, the join is performed with Hash Match. So the select statement is the same, but in the context of an insert it uses the slower nested loop. I have added non-clustered index on the D.SomeParentTableID so that there is an index on both sides of the join. I.SomeParentTableID is a primary key with clustered index. Why does it use a nested loop for inserts that use a join? Is there a way to improve the performance of the join for the insert?

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  • Saving Abstract and Sub classes to database

    - by bretddog
    Hi, I have an abstract class "StrategyBase", and a set of sub classes, StrategyA/B/C etc. The sub classes use some of the properties of the base class, and have some individual properties. My question is how to save this to a database. I'm currently using SqlCE, and Linq-To-Sql by creating entity classes automatically with SqlMetal.exe. I've seen there are three solutions shown in this question, but I'm not able to see how these solutions will work or not with SqlMetal/entity classes. Though it seems to me the "concrete table inheritance" would probably work without any manual modifying. What about the other two, would they be problematic? For "Single Table Inheritance" wouldn't all classes get all variables, even though they don't need them? And for the "Class table inheritance" solution I can't really see at all how that will map into the entity-classes for a useful purpose. I may note that I extend these partial entity classes for making the classes of my business objects. I may also consider moving to EntityFramework instead of SqlMetal/Linq2Sql, so would be nice also to know if that makes any difference to what schema is easy to implement. One likely important thing to note is that I will constantly be develop new strategies, which makes me have to modify the program code, and probably the database shcema; when adding a new strategy. Sorry the question is a bit "all over the place", but hopefully it's some clear advantages/disadvantages here that you may be able to advice. ? Cheers!

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  • UITableView only pushes to one controller

    - by Mitochondria
    So I have my UITableView, with 2 sections and 1 cell in each, and if I click the first one, it works, then the second one, it goes to the first controller. RootViewController is a navigationController, trying to push to ViewControllers. Here's the code for the tableView: // Customize the number of sections in the table view. - (NSInteger)numberOfSectionsInTableView:(UITableView *)tableView { return 2; } // Customize the number of rows in the table view. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { if(section == 0) return 1; else return 1; } - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section{ if(section == 0){ return @"Terminal/SSH Guides"; }else{ return @"Cydia Tutorials"; } } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Set up the cell... if(indexPath.section == 0){ cell.text = @"Changing Password for root"; } else { cell.text = @"Hiding Sections"; } return cell; } - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { id newController; switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: newController = [[rootpassword alloc] initWithNibName:@"rootpassword" bundle:nil]; break; case 1: newController = [[hidingsections alloc] initWithNibName:@"hidingsections" bundle:nil]; break; default: break; } [self.navigationController pushViewController:newController animated:TRUE]; [tableView deselectRowAtIndexPath:indexPath animated:TRUE]; } I'm also having trouble adding more sections and rows/cells to sections. Thanks.

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  • [PHP] Kohana-v3 ORM parent relationship

    - by VDVLeon
    Hi all, I just started with the version 3 of the Kohana Framework. I have worked a little with the $_has_many etc. Now I have the table pages. The primary key is pageID. The table has a column called parentPageID. Now I want to make a ORM model who, when accesed like this $page->parent->find() returns the page identified by parentPageID. I have the following already: // Settings protected $_table_name = 'pages'; protected $_primary_key = 'pageID'; protected $_has_one = array( 'parent' => array( 'model' => 'page', 'foreign_key' => 'parentPageID', ), ); But that does not work, it simply returns the first page from the table. Last query says this: SELECT `pages`.* FROM `pages` ORDER BY `pages`.`pageID` ASC LIMIT 1 Does somebody know how to solve this? I know this can: $parent = $page->parent->find($page->parentPageID); but it must be and can be cleaner (I think).

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  • Copying a subset of data to an empty database with the same schema

    - by user193655
    I would like to export part of a database full of data to an empty database. Both databases has the same schema. I want to maintain referential integrity. To simplify my cases it is like this: MainTable has the following fields: 1) MainID integer PK 2) Description varchar(50) 3) ForeignKey integer FK to MainID of SecondaryTable SecondaryTable has the following fields: 4) MainID integer PK (referenced by (3)) 5) AnotherDescription varchar(50) The goal I'm trying to accomplish is "export all records from MainTable using a WHERE condition", for example all records where MainID < 100. To do it manually I shuold first export all data from SecondaryTable contained in this select: select * from SecondaryTable ST outer join PrimaryTable PT on ST.MainID=PT.MainID then export the needed records from MainTable: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100. This is manual, ok. Of course my case is much much much omre complex, I have 200+ tables, so donig it manually is painful/impossible, I have many cascading FKs. Is there a way to force the copy of main table only "enforcing referntial integrity". so that my query is something like: select * from MainTable where MainID < 100 WITH "COPYING ALL FK sources" In this cases also the field (5) will be copied. ====================================================== Is there a syntax or a tool to do this? Table per table I'd like to insert conditions (like MainID <100 is only for MainTable, but I have also other tables).

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  • how to retrieve informatin from deleted row

    - by JM
    How can I retrie infromation from delete rows. I delete some rows from table in dataset, then I use method GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted) to get deleted rows. I try delete rows in original table on server side, but it finished with this errors. System.Data.DeletedRowInaccessibleException: Deleted row information cannot be accessed through the row. What is correct way? Here is my code, any advice? Thank you everybody Dataset ds = //get dataset from client side //get changes DataTable delRows = ds.Tables[0].GetChanges(DataRowState.Deleted); //try delete rows in table in DB if (delRows != null) { string connStr = WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["Employees"].ConnectionString; conn = new SqlConnection(connStr); conn.Open(); for (int i = 0; i < delRows.Rows.Count; i++) { string cmdText = string.Format("DELETE Tab1 WHERE Surname=@Surname"); cmd = new SqlCommand() { Connection = conn, CommandText = cmdText }; //here is problem, I need get surnames from rows which was deleted var sqlParam = new SqlParameter(@"Surname", SqlDbType.VarChar) { Value = delRows.Rows[i][1].ToString() }; cmd.Parameters.Add(sqlParam); cmd.CommandText = cmdText; cmd.Connection = conn; cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } }

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  • Determine modifier key state without an InputEvent object in Java

    - by heycam
    I need to determine the current state of the Shift key, but at the time I need the state I don't have an InputEvent object around. I need something like java.awt.Toolkit.getLockingKeyState(int) that works for Shift, not just the locking keys like VK_CAPS_LOCK. Is there a way I can do this without listening to input events and storing the for later when I need to check the state? Thanks!

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  • Atomically maintaining a counter using Sub-sonic ActiveRecord

    - by cantabilesoftware
    I'm trying to figure out the correct way to atomically increment a counter in one table and use that incremented value as an pseudo display-only ID for a record in another. What I have is a companies table and a jobs table. I want each company to have it's own set of job_numbers. I do have an auto increment job_id, but those numbers are shared across all companies. ie: the job numbers should generally increment without gaps for each company. ie: companies(company_id, next_job_number) jobs(company_id, job_id, job_number) Currently I'm doing this (as a method on the partial job class): public void SaveJob() { using (var scope = new System.Transactions.TransactionScope()) { if (job_id == 0) { _db.Update<company>() .SetExpression("next_job_number").EqualTo("next_job_number+1") .Where<company>(x => x.company_id == company_id) .Execute(); company c = _db.companies.SingleOrDefault(x => x.company_id == company_id); job_number = c.next_job_number; } // Save the job this.Save(); scope.Complete(); } } It seems to work, but I'm not sure if there are pitfalls here? It just feels wrong, but I'm not sure how else to do it. Any advice appreciated.

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  • Help with HTML hyperlink please

    - by liz
    Hello, Can someone help me with this problem: I have a table in a jsp page, with the text in one column being hyperlinks. Whenever anyone of these hyperlinks is clicked the whole table should refresh and repopulate based on the value of the hyperlink clicked. My problem is currently when the hyperlink is clicked the page refreshes with an empty table. I have the following line of HTML code for performing this in my jsp page: <TD><A href="http://localhost:8080/pmweb/gui.jsp" onclick="getResults(param)">hyperlinktext</A></TD>; Below is my getResults function in javascript in the same JSP page: <script type="text/javascript"> var httpRequest; function getResults(param) { var url = "http://localhost:8080/pmweb/api/GetResultsByParam?param=" + param; httpRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); httpRequest.open("GET", url, true); httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() {processRequest(); } ; httpRequest.send(null); } I have verified that the getResults function above is working fine itself. When I debugged it I noticed that this getResults function is not entered when the hyperlink is clicked. Anyone know how to get the hyperlink calling the javascript function properly? Thanks very much in advance!

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  • jQuery.addClass not adding a class

    - by John Nolan
    Just why is my style not being applied in the jquery below. It aslo only adds the table in FireFox $.each(data.AdvisorPerformances, function(i) { $("#advisorPerfomance").append("<tr>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].Advisor + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PackInCount + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PacksInValue + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PacksOutCount + "</td>" + "<td> " + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PaymentsInCount + "</td>" + "<td>" + data.AdvisorPerformances[i].PaymentsInValue + "</td>" + "</tr>"); }); $("#advisorPerfomance").append("</table>"); $("#advisorPerfomance").addClass("NOTAPPLIEDSTYLE"); Also is there a better way to add a table?

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  • Pls help working with Dropdownlist in scroll window.

    - by Rahul
    Hi all, Data is stored in the database table with the field document type and document id. And displayed in the scrollwindow, scrollwindow is editable. Data displayed like this: In scrollwindow dropdown items are quote, order, invoice etc. And suppose for Quote type document id is QTE100, and for order is ORD100 etc. In this format data is displayed in the scrollwindow. Here my query is at run time when user change the document type say for Quote to Order warning message should display like “This range is not valid”. And since the scrollwindow editable when user select any new document type from dropdown list system should allow to add that new document type and should not display any message. Pls somebody help me how can I achieve this???pls………pls…......pls For this I have written this code in dropdown document change event. Document Type Site_Scroll Document Type_CHG: warning "The range entered isn't valid."; clear window 'Document Type Site_Scroll'; fill window 'Document Type Site_Scroll' table sop_site_line_temp; But whenever I am changing any document from existing one getting the warning message like “This range is not valid” this is expected, but after changing when the window is filled again by temp table focus is setting to document type dropdown list. One more thing whenever I am going to select any new document type from document type I am getting the same warning message which is not expected, system should allow user to select new document type without giving any warning message. Pls….somebody give me some idea or pls modify my code….

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  • Nhibernate - stuck with detached criteria (asp.net mvc 1 with nhibernate 2) c#

    - by Jen
    OK so I can't find a good example of this so I can better understand how to use detached criteria (assuming that's what I want to use in the first place). I have 2 tables. Placement and PlacementSupervisor My PlacementSupervisor table has a FK of PlacementID which relates to Placement.PlacementID - though my nhibernate model class has PlacementSupervisor . Placement (rather than specifically specifying a property of placement ID - not sure if this is important). What I am trying to do is - if values are passed through for the supervisor ID I want to restrict placements with that supervisor id. Have tried: ICriteria query = m_PlacementRepository.QueryAlias("p") .... if (criteria.SupervisorId > 0 && !string.IsNullOrEmpty(criteria.SupervisorTypeId)) { DetachedCriteria entityQuery = DetachedCriteria.For<PlacementSupervisor>("sup") .Add(Restrictions.And( Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorId", criteria.SupervisorId), Restrictions.Eq("sup.supervisorTypeId", criteria.SupervisorTypeId) )) .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .AddPropertyAlias("Placement.PlacementId", "PlacementId") ); query.Add(Subqueries.PropertyIn("p.PlacementId", entityQuery)); } Which just gives me the error: Could not find a matching criteria info provider to: (sup.supervisorId = 5 and sup.supervisorTypeId = U) Firstly supervisorTypeId is a string. Secondly I don't understand how to achieve what I'm trying to do so have just been trying various combinations of projections, and property aliases and subquery options..as I don't get how I'm supposed to join to another table/entity when the FK key sits in the second table. Can someone point me in the right direction. It seems like such an easy thing to do from a data perspective that hopefully I'm just missing something obvious!!

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  • what is a RoR best practice? match by id or different column?

    - by Omnipresent
    I had a terrible morning. Lots of emails floating around about why things don't work. Upon investigating I found that there is a data mismatch which is causing errors. Scenario Customer and Address are two tables. Customer contains class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_one :address, :foreign_key => "id" end Address Contains class Address < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :customer, :foreign_key => "cid" end So the two tables match on id which is the default and that column is auto incremented. Problem on the edit Page we have some code like this. params[:line1] = @customer.first.address.line1 It fails because no matching record is found for a customer in the address table. I don't know why this is happening. It seems that over time a lot of records did not get added to Address table. Now problem is that when a new Customer is added (say with id 500) the Address will be added with some other id (say 425) ...now you don't know which address belongs to which customer. Question Being new to Rails, I am asking whether it is always considered good to create an extra column for joining of the records, rather than depending on the column that is automatically incremented? If I had a seperate column in Address table where I would manually insert the recently added customers id then this issue would not have come up.

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  • Swipe left/right to push next/previous details view

    - by Youssef
    I am working on a ios application, using storyboard. I have a simple table view with rows. Each row has a "key" string to identify it. When the user clicks on a row I push the next view "DetailsViewController" and pass the "key" as a parameter in the prepareForSegue method. The data in the second view will change based on the "key" passed. In the "DetailsViewController" I want to add a swipe gesture, when the user swipes right, I want to push the next details view. It will be as if he clicked on the next row in the table view. So to rephrase, the user has 2 ways of switching between items: he can click the item in the table view and the details view will show, he can then go back and select another item. Or he can click on a row, and in the details view he can swipe left and right to see the previous/next item. i added the uigesture recognizer: UISwipeGestureRecognizer *recognizer; recognizer = [[UISwipeGestureRecognizer alloc] initWithTarget:self action:@selector(handleSwipe:)]; [recognizer setDirection:UISwipeGestureRecognizerDirectionRight]; [[self view] addGestureRecognizer:recognizer]; - (void) handleSwipe:(UISwipeGestureRecognizer *) sender { //I want to go to the next item in the tableview } I hope I was clear. Thank you.

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  • Conversion failed when converting the varchar value to int

    - by onedaywhen
    Microsoft SQL Server 2008 (SP1), getting an unexpected 'Conversion failed' error. Not quite sure how to describe this problem, so below is a simple example. The CTE extracts the numeric portion of certain IDs using a search condition to ensure a numeric portion actually exists. The CTE is then used to find the lowest unused sequence number (kind of): CREATE TABLE IDs (ID CHAR(3) NOT NULL UNIQUE); INSERT INTO IDs (ID) VALUES ('A01'), ('A02'), ('A04'), ('ERR'); WITH ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); The error is, 'Conversion failed when converting the varchar value 'RR' to data type int.' I can't understand why the value ID = 'ERR' should be being considered for conversion because the predicate ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' should have removed the invalid row from the resultset. When the base table is substituted with an equivalent CTE the problem goes away i.e. WITH IDs (ID) AS ( SELECT 'A01' UNION ALL SELECT 'A02' UNION ALL SELECT 'A04' UNION ALL SELECT 'ERR' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); Why would a base table cause this error? Is this a known issue? UPDATE @sgmoore: no, doing the filtering in one CTE and the casting in another CTE still results in the same error e.g. WITH FilteredIDs (ID) AS ( SELECT ID FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM FilteredIDs ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 );

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  • Why is the colspan not working properly in this script? js bug or IE ?

    - by Perpetualcoder
    This question is related to this question I asked a little while back. The updated code is posted here. This to note is that i am looking to create a HTML table dynamically that looks similar to this: <table> <tbody> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="3" align="right">Header</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Col1</td> <td>Col3</td> <td>Col4</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> I can get this done in markup but when I do it in js the colspan does not seem to work in IE7. Any hep will be greatly appreciated.

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  • jquery change event not working with IE6

    - by manivineet
    It is indeed quite unfortunate that my client still uses IE6. using jquery 1.4.2 The problem is that I open a window using a click event and do some edit operation in the new window. I have a 'change' event attached to the row of a table which has input fields. Now when the window loads for the first time and I make a change in the input for the FIRST time, the change event does not fire. however, on a second try it starts working. I have noticed that I e.g. I run a dummy page, i.e. create a new page(i work with visual studio) and run that page individually , the 'change' event works just fine. what it going on? and what can i do, besides going back to 1.3.2 (by the way that doesn't work either, but haven't fully tested it yet) <!--HTML--> <table id="tbReadData"> <tr class="nenDataRow" id="nenDr2"> <td> <input type="text" class="nenMeterRegister" value="1234" /> </td> <tr /> <table> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('#tbReadData').find('tr').change(function() { alert('this works'); } }); </script>

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