Search Results

Search found 21480 results on 860 pages for 'soap client'.

Page 418/860 | < Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >

  • Phonegap Android application exiting - but not really - when home button is pressed

    - by Lucas T
    I have created an Phonegap 1.5/Android application. My client reports that, when he leaves the app using the Home button, and then relaunches it using the app icon, the app relaunches from the start instead of resuming. However, when he holds the home button, the app appears in the running apps, and when he accesses the app through this menu, the app resumes in the expected way. I thought this could be linked to the app being automatically closed by the OS due to a lack of memory, but if that was the case the app shouldn't appear in the running apps. I could not reproduce the bug on my Sony Ericsson XPERIA with Android 2.3.4, the client has experienced this behaviour on a Motorola Defy and on another phone (i'll add the reference of the other phone and the OS versions as soon as I get them). The initialization process of the app is declared this way : window.addEventListener('load', function(){ document.addEventListener('deviceready', _onDeviceReady, false); }, false); Could this be fixed by attaching the processes to other events (although I doubt it, the app really seems to be relaunched from the start) ? Is there a declaration to make in the Android Manifest to prevent this behavior ? Is that a known bug in some Android phones/versions ?

    Read the article

  • AIX specific socket programming query

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, Question 1 From SUSE man pages, I get the below details for socket connect options If the initiating socket is connection-mode, then connect() shall attempt to establish a connection to the address specified by the address argument. If the connection cannot be established immediately and O_NONBLOCK is not set for the file descriptor for the socket, connect() shall block for up to an unspecified timeout interval until the connection is established. If the timeout interval expires before the connection is established, connect() shall fail and the connection attempt shall be aborted. If connect() is interrupted by a signal that is caught while blocked waiting to establish a connection, connect() shall fail and set errno to [EINTR], but the connection request shall not be aborted, and the connection shall be established asynchronously. Question : Is the above contents valid for AIX OS (especially the connection time-out, timed wait ...etc)?Because I do not see it in AIX man pages (5.1 and 5.3) Question 2 I have a client socket whose attributes are a. SO_RCVTIMEO ,SO_SNDTIMEO are set for 5 seconds. b. AF_INET and SOCK_STREAM. c. SO_LINGER with linger on and time is 5 seconds. d. SO_REUSEADDR is set. Note that the client socket is not O_NONBLOCK. Question : Now since O_NONBLOCK is not set and SO_RCVTIMEO and SO_SNDTIMEO is set for 5 seconds, does it mean a. connect in NON Blocking or Blocking? b. If blocking, is it timed blocking or "infinite" time blocking? c. If it is infinite, How do I establish a "connect" system call which is O_BLOCKING with timeout to t secs. Sorry if the questions are be very naive. Thanks in advance for your input.

    Read the article

  • How can I map to a field that is joined in via one of three possible tables

    - by Mongus Pong
    I have this object : public class Ledger { public virtual Person Client { get; set; } // .... } The Ledger table joins to the Person table via one of three possible tables : Bill, Receipt or Payment. So we have the following tables : Ledger LedgerID PK Bill BillID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Receipt ReceiptID PK, LedgerID, ClientID Payment PaymentID PK, LedgerID, ClientID If it was just the one table, I could map this as : Join ( "Bill", x => { x.ManyToOne ( ledger => ledger.Client, mapping => mapping.Column ( "ClientID" ) ); x.Key ( l => l.Column ( "LedgerID" ) ); } ); This won't work for three tables. For a start the Join performs an inner join. Since there will only ever be one of Bill, Receipt or Payment - an inner join on these tables will always return zero rows. Then it would need to know to do a Coalesce on the ClientID of each of these tables to know the ClientID to grab the data from. Is there a way to do this? Or am I asking too much of the mappings here?

    Read the article

  • Invalid Argument javascript error only on certain computers

    - by Jen
    Getting an error whenever we click a particular button/link on our site. It is generating a javascript "Invalid Argument" error. I know in the other posts it is typically because it is a syntax error in the javascript however it only just seems to have started happening and it doesn't happen on all pcs. ie. in our client's environment if I remote onto their web server and view the uat website I get the javascript error. If I remote onto their sql server and view the uat website I don't get the javascript error. If it was a syntax error then I would always get the error wouldn't I? both browsers are the same version of IE6 (yeah I know...) :) I have tried deleting temporary internet files - including viewing the files and deleting them myself - but no joy. client uses citrix.. and they're all getting the error :( Any ideas would be appreciated - Thanks! :) Update - Sorry I haven't posted specific code as there is too much to post (and I'm not sure where the error is occurring). The "button" launches a new window which in turn opens up a couple of aspx pages and calls lots of javascript. So the window opens ok, and there's a function that gets called to resize the window - but before it calls the resizing of the window/content it throws the invalid argument error. Am busy trying to get alerts to trigger to see if I can see where it's falling over but so far no luck. Again not sure why this error doesn't occur when I use a particular PC (same browser version)

    Read the article

  • How to optimize paging for large in memory database

    - by snakefoot
    I have an application where the entire database is implemented in memory using a stl-map for each table in the database. Each item in the stl-map is a complex object with references to other items in the other stl-maps. The application works with a large amount of data, so it uses more than 500 MByte RAM. Clients are able to contact the application and get a filtered version of the entire database. This is done by running through the entire database, and finding items relevant for the client. When the application have been running for an hour or so, then Windows 2003 SP2 starts to page out parts of the RAM for the application (Eventhough there is 16 GByte RAM on the machine). After the application have been partly paged out then a client logon takes a long time (10 mins) because it now generates a page fault for each pointer lookup in the stl-map. I can see it is possible to tell Windows to lock memory in RAM, but this is generally only recommended for device drivers, and only for "small" amounts of memory. I guess a poor mans solution could be to loop through the entire memory database, and thus tell Windows we are still interested in keeping the datamodel in RAM. I guess another poor mans solution could be to disable the pagefile completely on Windows. I guess the expensive solution would be a SQL database, and then rewrite the entire application to use a database layer. Then hopefully the database system will have implemented means to for fast access. Are there other more elegant solutions ?

    Read the article

  • Legacy application creates dialogs in non-ui thread.

    - by Frater
    I've been working support for a while on a legacy application and I've noticed a bit of a problem. The system is an incredibly complex client/server with standard and custom frameworks. One of the custom frameworks built into the application involves validating workflow actions. It finds potential errors, separates them into warnings and errors, and passes the results back to the client. The main difference between warnings and errors is that warnings ask the user if they wish to ignore the error. The issue I have is that the dialog for this prompt is created on a non-ui thread, and thus we get cross-threading issues when the dialog is shown. I have attempted to invoke the showing of the dialog, however this fails because the window handle has not been created. (InvokeRequired returns false, which I assume in this case means it cannot find a decent handle in its parent tree, rather than that it doesn't require it.) Does anyone have any suggestions for how I can create this dialog and get the UI thread to set it up and call it?

    Read the article

  • looking for advise on importing excel into mysql with php

    - by Ole Media
    Alright, see if I can pick your brains from you all. I'm currently working on a project where all the information comes from different clients, the only thing in common is that the received data is done with excel. The excel spread sheet that they present is just a bunch of references and codes, and the problem than I'm facing is that I need the references and codes to be entered in certain format in order for the website to work. The perfect situation will be to go to each client and teach how I would need the data, but I can't do that because of the large number of clients, and more importantly I will be interrupting their work flow. Each client has its own codes and reference model and they are not willing to change their process The good news is that there is a standard pattern for the codes, but I'm talking close to 200 thousand codes with a bunch of combination. They way that we are currently solving the problem is that we have a person who checks each excel sheet received, runs a few macros, and manually fixes those codes in which the macro was not able to fix. The person that is doing this, is already burn out and frustrated and I would like to automatize this process with php. Suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Android: Having trouble getting html from webpage

    - by Kyle
    Hi, I'm writing an android application that is supposed to get the html from a php page and use the parsed data from thepage. I've searched for this issue on here, and ended up using some code from an example another poster put up. Here is my code so far: HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(url); try { Log.d("first","first"); HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); String html = ""; Log.d("second","second"); InputStream in = response.getEntity().getContent(); Log.d("third","third"); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); Log.d("fourth","fourth"); StringBuilder str = new StringBuilder(); String line = null; Log.d("fifth","fifth"); while((line = reader.readLine()) != null) { Log.d("request line",line); } in.close(); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block Log.d("error", "error"); } Log.d("end","end"); } Like I said before, the url is a php page. Whenever I run this code, it prints out the first first message, but then prints out the error error message and then finally the end end message. I've tried modifying the headers, but I've had no luck with it. Any help would be greatly appreciated as I don't know what I'm doing wrong. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • "date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC')" not the same time as "now() at time zone 'UTC'" in po

    - by sirlark
    I'm writing a web based front end to a database (PHP/Postgresql) in which I need to store various dates/times. The times are meant to be always be entered on the client side in the local time, and displayed in the local time too. For storage purposes, I store all dates/times as integers (UNIX timestamps) and normalised to UTC. One particular field has a restriction that the timestamp filled in is not allowed to be in the future, so I tried this with a database constraint... CONSTRAINT not_future CHECK (timestamp-300 <= date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC')) The -300 is to give 5 minutes leeway in case of slightly desynchronised times between browser and server. The problem is, this constraint always fails when submitting the current time. I've done testing, and found the following. In PostgreSQL client: SELECT now() -- returns correct local time SELECT date_part('epoch', now()) -- returns a unix timestamp at UTC (tested by feeding the value into the date function in PHP correcting for its compensation to my time zone) SELECT date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC') -- returns a unix timestamp at two time zone offsets west, e.g. I am at GMT+2, I get a GMT-2 timestamp. I've figured out obviously that dropping the "at time zone 'UTC'" will solve my problem, but my question is if 'epoch' is meant to return a unix timestamp which AFAIK is always meant to be in UTC, why would the 'epoch' of a time already in UTC be corrected? Is this a bug, or I am I missing something about the defined/normal behaviour here.

    Read the article

  • PXELinux and compressed kernels/images

    - by Yvan JANSSENS
    Is it possible to boot compressed kernels with a compressed initrd with PXELinux? First, a little background: We created a custom Linux distro, for diskless OpenCL computing nodes. We want those nodes to fetch their OS from the network. Our Distro is composed out of a kernel (duh) and a large initrd which is loaded into RAM and everything is executed from there. We chose to run everything off the initrd for two reasons: NFS was not an option to serve the filesystem's extra contents Fast file access from RAM. No persistent storage needed, data and config is pulled dynamically through a SOAP service. Now our initrd is about 450M in size. At our network speeds, it takes about two to three minutes to load a single client. Will compression speed up te downloading, and if yes, which one should be used? Is LZMA supported by PXELinux, or do we need to stick to bzip2 or gzip? Because of the 2-3 minutes loading time, booting 15 nodes over the same network link takes quite a lot of time. We decided not to use hard drives or CD/DVD drives, for financial reasons (cheapest HDD @ €30 times 15 is a lot of money saved ;-) ) So, our question is: what compression options are available for this setup? And how do we do this? Thank you for your time! Yvan Janssens

    Read the article

  • Apache with multiple domains, single IP, VirtualHost is catching the wrong traffic

    - by apuschak
    I have a SOAP web service I am providing on a apache web server. There are 6 different clients (IPs) that request data and 3 of them are hitting the wrong domain. I am trying to find a way to log which domain name the requests are coming from. Details: ServerA is the primary ServerB is the backup domain1.com - the domain the web service is on domain2.com - a seperate domain that server seperate content on ServerB ServerA is standalone for now with its own IP and DNS from domain1.com. This works for everyone. ServerB is a backup for the web service, but it already hosts domain2.com. I added entries into the apache configuration file like: <VirtualHost *:443> ServerName domain2.com DocumentRoot /var/www/html/ CustomLog logs/access_log_domain2443 common ErrorLog logs/ssl_error_log_domain2443 LogLevel debug SSLEngine on ... etc SSL directives ... </VirtualHost> I have these for both 80 and 443 for domain1 and domain2 with domain1 being second. The problem is when we switch DNS for domain1 from ServerA to ServerB, 3 out of the 6 clients show up in the debug logs as hitting domain2.com instead of domain1.com and fail their web service request because domain2.com is first in the apache configuration file and catching all requests that don't match other virtualhosts, namely domain1.com. I don't know if they are hitting www.domain1.com, domain1.com (although I added entries for both) or using the external IP address or something else. Is there a way to see which URL they are hitting not just the page request or someother way to see why the first domain is catching traffic meant for the second listed domain? In the meantime, I've put domain1.com higher in the apache configuration than domain2.com. Now it catches the requests for all clients and works, however I don't know what it is catching and would like to make domain2.com the first entry again with a correct entry for domain1.com, for however they are hitting it. Thank you for your help! Andrew

    Read the article

  • How to use JSF h:messages better?

    - by gurupriyan.e
    My Objective is to use h:messages to convey user - error and confirmation messages.The CSS styles to show these two different messages are different, In fact I would like to use an image beside the confirmation message. for Eg: <tr> <td><img/></td><td><h:msg></td> </td>. So I tried to add messages to the Faces Context based on 2 different client ids <tr> <td height="5"> <h:messages style="color:darkred" id="error_message" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td width="89%" class="InfoMsg" align="center"> <h:messages id="confirm_message" /> </td> </tr> and in the java layer FacesMessage facesMessage = new FacesMessage(Constants.saveMessageConfirm); FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().addMessage(Constants.STATIC_CONFIRM_MSG_CLIENT_ID, facesMessage); But, even if i add messages to client Id confirm_message - and only to confirm_message - and not to error_message - The message is shown twice in 2 different styles (refer the HTML above) 2 Questions : 1) What is the problem here? 2) If I want to show the image inside a td in the second tr and conditionaly show that second tr when confirm messages are present - what is the best way? Thanks,

    Read the article

  • WCF newbie - how to install and use a SSL certificate?

    - by Shaul
    This should be a snap for anyone who's done it before... I'm trying to set up a self-hosted WCF service using NetTcpBinding. I got a trial SSL certificate from Thawte and successfully installed that in my IIS store, and I think I've got it correctly set up in the service - at least it doesn't exception out on me! Now, I'm trying to connect the client (this is still all on my dev machine), and it's giving me an error, "Message = "The X.509 certificate CN=ssl.mydomain.com, OU=For Test Purposes Only. No assurances., OU=IT, O=My Company, L=My Town, S=None, C=IL chain building failed. The certificate that was used has a trust chain that cannot be verified. Replace the certificate or change the certificateValidationMode. A certificate chain processed, but terminated in a root certificate which is not trusted by the trust provider." Ooookeeeey... now what? Client code (I want to do this in code, not app.config): var baseAddress = "localhost"; var factory = new DuplexChannelFactory<IMyWCFService>(new InstanceContext(SiteServer.Instance)); factory.Endpoint.Address = new EndpointAddress("net.tcp://{0}:8000/".Fmt(baseAddress)); var binding = new NetTcpBinding(SecurityMode.Message); binding.Security.Message.ClientCredentialType = MessageCredentialType.UserName; factory.Endpoint.Binding = binding; var u = factory.Credentials.UserName; u.UserName = userName; u.Password = password; return factory.CreateChannel()

    Read the article

  • Mongodb - how to deserialze when a property has an Interface return type

    - by Mark Kelly
    I'm attempting to avoid introducing any dependencies between my Data layer and client code that makes use of this layer, but am running into some problems when attempting to do this with Mongo (using the MongoRepository) MongoRepository shows examples where you create Types that reflect your data structure, and inherit Entity where required. Eg. [CollectionName("track")] public class Track : Entity { public string name { get; set; } public string hash { get; set; } public Artist artist { get; set; } public List<Publish> published {get; set;} public List<Occurence> occurence {get; set;} } In order to make use of these in my client code, I'd like to replace the Mongo-specific types with Interfaces, e.g: [CollectionName("track")] public class Track : Entity, ITrackEntity { public string name { get; set; } public string hash { get; set; } public IArtistEntity artist { get; set; } public List<IPublishEntity> published {get; set;} public List<IOccurenceEntity> occurence {get; set;} } However, the Mongo driver doesn't know how to treat these interfaces, and I understandably get the following error: An error occurred while deserializing the artist property of class sf.data.mongodb.entities.Track: No serializer found for type sf.data.IArtistEntity. --- MongoDB.Bson.BsonSerializationException: No serializer found for type sf.data.IArtistEntity. Does anyone have any suggestions about how I should approach this?

    Read the article

  • TFS2010 API - Which server event fires when checkin notes are changed?

    - by user3708981
    I've written a TFS plugin that impliments the ISubscribe interface, and creates an external ticket base off of the contents of a check-in note. What I would like to do, if when I go back through older TFS check-ins in VS and edit a check-in note, the plugin would process that event and create an external ticket retroactively. What event / SubscribedType do I need to subscribe to in order for ProcessEvents to fire? My stubbed out code - using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Client; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Common; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Client; // From C:\Program Files\Microsoft Team Foundation Server 2010\Tools\ using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.Framework.Server; using Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server; using Changeset = Microsoft.TeamFoundation.VersionControl.Server.Changeset; public class EmbeddedWorkItemEventHandler : ISubscriber { const string EVENT_NAME = "TicketEvent"; const string APP_LOG = "Application"; public Type[] SubscribedTypes() { return new Type[1] { typeof(CheckinNotification) }; // What else do I need here? } public string Name { get { return EVENT_NAME; } } public SubscriberPriority Priority { get { return SubscriberPriority.Normal; } } public EventNotificationStatus ProcessEvent(TeamFoundationRequestContext requestContext, NotificationType notificationType, object notificationEventArgs, out int statusCode, out string statusMessage, out ExceptionPropertyCollection properties) { // Create the event source, if it doesn't exist if (!System.Diagnostics.EventLog.SourceExists(EVENT_NAME)) { System.Diagnostics.EventLog.CreateEventSource(EVENT_NAME, APP_LOG); } statusCode = 0; properties = null; statusMessage = String.Empty; string ErrorLine = ""; try { // Here we'll validate the Ticket name if (notificationType == NotificationType.DecisionPoint && notificationEventArgs is CheckinNotification) { //Check-in blocking logic here. } else if (notificationType == NotificationType.Notification && notificationEventArgs is CheckinNotification) { // Tickets on check-in here. } } Catch { // Error checking } return EventNotificationStatus.ActionPermitted; }

    Read the article

  • Android Socket Connection

    - by DrCoPe
    I'm guessing this will be such a newbee question but I hit a wall and... I am running the jWebSocket (http://jwebsocket.org) stand-alone server. For a client I am using Weberknecht (http://code.google.com/p/weberknecht/) And Eclipse is my IDE of choice. Now, when I start the server and run the Weberknecht client like a normal Java application I get a connection. Granted, the connection is quickly dropped because the handshake needs to be configured but at least the server shows me a connection was attempted. However, when I use the exact same code in my hello world Android app I get nothing :( I am also not seeing any console outputs even thought I used both Log.i and Log.v Log.i(TAG, "YEI! connectToWS 1!"); Log.v(TAG, "YEI! connectToWS 1!"); Maybe I am calling the connect method in the wrong place? @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); connectToWS(); ... Any help would be GREATLY appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Compiling a C++ application on Windows 7, but execute it on Win2003 Server

    - by dabs
    I have a C++ application (quite complex, multiple projects) in Visual Studio 2008, that produces a single dll. Recently I switched to Windows 7, but had previously been compiling under Windows XP. Suddenly the dll in question cannot be loaded by another application, i.e. on a machine running Windows 2003 Server. I've been trying various things: I've installed the VC9.0 redistributable package on the server Also copied various .dll's from that package to the application folder The project is of course compiled in release mode When I run depends.exe on the client machine, I do get the following error: "Error: The Side-by-Side configuration information for "my_dll.dll" contains errors. This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem (14001). Warning: At least one module has an unresolved import due to a missing export function in a delay-load dependent module." and the icon for shlwapi.dll has a red overlay icon. This didn't happen when I was compiling under WinXP, so I'm guessing that there really is no problem with the .dll's on the client machine, but somewhere there is a reference to that particular version of some dll. Does anyone know what would be the best way to resolve this? Regards, Daníel

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate Mappings ClassMap<Entities>....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I was going through fluent hibernate getting started tutorial.... In my asp.net mvc web application i have created Entities and Mapping folder as they stated... I created an entity class and i tried to map it my mapping class using this, using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Mappings { public class ClientMap : ClassMap<Client> { } } I cant able to find a ClassMap keyword in my autosuggest list why? This is my entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities { public class Client { public int ClientId { get; set; } public string ClientName { get; set; } public string ClientMobNo { get; set; } public string ClientAddress { get; set; } public DateTime CreatedDate { get; set; } public byte IsDeleted { get; set; } public int CreatedBy { get; set; } } } I have added all references to my project...Am i missing some thing...

    Read the article

  • MEF: Satisfy part on an Export using and Export from the composed part.

    - by Pop Catalin
    Hi, I have the following scenario in Silverlight 4: I have a notifications service Snippet [InheritedExport] public interface INotificationsService : IObservable<ReceivedNotification> { void IssueNotifications(IEnumerable<ClientIssuedNotification> notifications); } and and implementation of this service Snippet [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class ClientNotificationService : INotificationsService { [Import] IPlugin Plugin { get; set; } ... } How can I say to MEF that the Plugin property of the ClientNotificationService must be provided by the importing class that imports the INotificationsService. For example: Snippet public class Client { [Export] IPlugin Current { get; set; } [Import] INotificationService NotificationService; } How can I say that I want MEF to satisfy the ClientNotificationService.Plugin part with the exported IPlugin by the Client class. Basically I want the NotificationService, to receive a Unique ID provided by the importing class, whenever it is created and composed to a new class, or if there's and alternative method, like using meta data to do this I'd appreciate any insights. I've been struggling with this for a while. Thanks

    Read the article

  • deserializing multiple types from a stream

    - by clanier9
    I have a card game program, and so far, the chat works great back and forth over the TCPClient streams between host and client. I want to make it do this with serializing and deserializing so that I can also pass cards between host and client. I tried to create a separate TCPClient stream for the passing of cards but it didn't work and figured it may be easier to keep one TCPClient stream that gets the text messages as well as cards. So I created a class, called cereal, which has the properties for the cards that will help me rebuild the card from an embedded database of cards on the other end. Is there a way to make my program figure out whether a card has been put in the stream or if it's just text in the stream so I can properly deserialize it to a string or to a cereal? Or should I add a string property to my cereal class and when that property is filled in after deserializing to the cereal, i'll know it's just text (if that field is empty after deserializing i'll know it's a card)? I'm thinking a try catch, where it tries to deserialize to a string, and if it fails it will catch and cast as a cereal. Or am I just way off base with this and should choose another route? I'm using visual studio 2011, am using a binaryformatter, and am new to serializing/deserializing.

    Read the article

  • How to control the "flow" of an ASP.NET MVC (3.0) web app that relies on Facebook membership, with Facebook C# SDK?

    - by Chad
    I want to totally remove the standard ASP.NET membership system and use Facebook only for my web app's membership. Note, this is not a Facebook canvas app question. Typically, in an ASP.NET app you have some key properties & methods to control the "flow" of an app. Notably: Request.IsAuthenticated, [Authorize] (in MVC apps), Membership.GetUser() and Roles.IsUserInRole(), among others. It looks like [FacebookAuthorize] is equivalent to [Authorize]. Also, there's some standard work I do across all controllers in my site. So I built a BaseController that overrides OnActionExecuting(FilterContext). Typically, I populate ViewData with the user's profile within this action. Would performance suffer if I made a call to fbApp.Get("me") in this action? I use the Facebook Javascript SDK to do registration, which is nice and easy. But that's all client-side, and I'm having a hard time wrapping my mind around when to use client-side facebook calls versus server-side. There will be a point when I need to grab the user's facebook uid and store it in a "profile" table along with a few other bits of data. That would probably be best handled on the return url from the registration plugin... correct? On a side note, what data is returned from fbApp.Get("me")?

    Read the article

  • Compiling my Boost/NTL program with c++ on Linux.

    - by Martin Lauridsen
    Hi SO, I wrote a client program and a server program, that uses the NTL library and Boost::Asio, to do client/server communication for an integer factorization application, in C++. Both sides consist of several headers and cpp files. Both project compile fine individually on Windows in Visual Studio. All I did, was add the include path of NTL and Boost to both projects: Additional include paths: "D:\Downloads\WinNTL-5_5_2\include";D:\boost_1_42_0 Furthermore, for both projects, I added the two library paths to both projects in VS: Additional library directories: D:\boost_1_42_0\stage\lib;"D:\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ntl\Debug" And added under Additional dependencies: ntl.lib As said, it compiles fine on Windows. But when I put the code on a Linux machine provided by university, I try to compile with the following statement c++ -I/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/NTL-5.4.2/include -I/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/boost_1_43_0/include client_protocol.cpp mpqs_client.cpp mpqs_sieve.cpp mpqs_helper.cpp -o mpqs_helper -L/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/NTL-5.4.2/lib -lntl -L/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/gmp-4.2.1/lib -lgmp -lm -L/appl/htopopt/Linux_x86_64/boost_1_43_0/lib -lboost_system -static Upon doing this, I get a huuuge error, which I posted here. Any idea how to fix this, please??

    Read the article

  • Ruby 1.9: turn these 4 arrays into hash of key/value pairs

    - by randombits
    I have four arrays that are coming in from the client. Let's say that there is an array of names, birth dates, favorite color and location. The idea is I want a hash later where each name will have a hash with respective attributes: Example date coming from the client: [name0, name1, name2, name3] [loc0, loc1] [favcololor0, favcolor1] [bd0, bd1, bd2, bd3, bd4, bd5] Output I'd like to achieve: name0 => { location => loc0, favcolor => favcolor0, bd => bd0 } name1 => { location => loc1, favcolor => favcolor1, bd => bd1 } name2 => { location => nil, favcolor => nil, bd => bd2 } name3 => { location => nil, favcolor => nil, bd => bd3 } I want to have an array at the end of the day where I can iterate and work on each particular person hash. There need not be an equivalent number of values in each array. Meaning, names are required.. and I might receive 5 of them, but I only might receive 3 birth dates, 2 favorite colors and 1 location. Every missing value will result in a nil. How does one make that kind of data structure with Ruby 1.9?

    Read the article

  • .NET - Unable to get values from Value property of HtmlInputHidden

    - by user245123
    I have a custom control that inherits from .NET's CompositeControl class. This control overrides the CreateChildControls in order to build its child controls dynamically. I need the page to post back after a couple different javascript events occur on the client side. In order to accomplish this, I create two hidden controls on the page so I can set their values with javascript, submit the page, and read the values out on server side. Here's is the code I use to create these two hiddens: Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() hdEventName = New HiddenField() Controls.Add(hdEventName) hdEventName.ID = "hdEventName" hdEventArgs = New HiddenField() Controls.Add(hdEventArgs) hdEventArgs.ID = "hdEventValue" ' other controls ' ... End Sub When a javascript event occurs I set the value attribute of the two hiddens and submit the page, like so: hdEventName.value = 'EventName'; hdEventArgs.value = 'arg1,arg2'; document.forms[0].submit(); In the OnLoad method of my control, I attempt to check the Value property of the hdEventName and hdEventArgs controls, but it is always empty. However, Page.Request.Form(hdEventName.UniqueID) and Page.Request.Form(hdEventArgs.UniqueID) return correct values. The actual HTML in the markup also shows correct values after the page posts back. Why is the Value property of the HtmlInputHiddens disconnected from the actual value that appears on the client?

    Read the article

  • Why is a DataViewManager not sorting?

    - by Alarion
    First off, a quick rundown of what the code is doing. I have two tables: Companies and Clients. There is a one to many relationship between Companies and Clients (one company can have many clients). In some processing logic, I have both tables loaded into a DataSet - each are DataTables. I have added a DataRelation to set the relationship, and it works when I use GetChildRows on a record from the Companies table. However, I need to sort the records returned. After googling around some it looks like the DataViewManager is the way to go, and I have examined several basic examples. However, I cannot get my rows sorted. Am I missing something, or am I not using this how it is supposed to be used? Example code: Dim ldvmManager As New DataViewManager(mdsData) ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Sort = "comName ASC" ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").ApplyDefaultSort = False ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").Sort = "entLastName ASC, entFirstName ASC" For Each mdrCurrentCompany in ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Table.Rows Dim ldrClients() as DataRow = mdrCurrentCompany.GetChildRows("CompaniesClients") Next No matter what I do, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with a 'B' and the second has one that starts with a 'A'. From there, the order is all mixed up. If I use my entire data instead of the subset I was using to test with, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with 'J'. It seems like it is still using whatever default sort was being used before I tried to use the DataViewManager. Any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424 425  | Next Page >