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  • Why doesn't jquery .load() load a text file from an external website?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    In the example below, when I click the button, it says "Load was performed" but no text is shown. I have a clientaccesspolicy.xml in the root directory and am able to asynchronously load the same file from silverlight. So I would think I should be able to access from AJAX as well. What do I have to change so that the text of the file http://www.tanguay.info/knowsite/data.txt is properly displayed in the #content element? <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); google.setOnLoadCallback(function() { $('#loadButton').click(loadDataFromExernalWebsite); }); function loadDataFromExernalWebsite() { $('#content').load('http://www.tanguay.info/knowsite/data.txt', function() { alert('Load was performed.'); }); } </script> </head> <body> <p>Click the button to load content:</p> <p id="content"></p> <input id="loadButton" type="button" value="load content"/> </body> </html>

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  • A Linker Resolution Problem in a C++ Program

    - by Vlad
    We have two source files, a.cpp and b.cpp and a header file named constructions.h. We define a simple C++ class with the same name (class M, for instance) in each source file, respectively. The file a.cpp looks like this: #include "iostream" #include "constructions.h" class M { int i; public: M(): i( -1 ) { cout << "M() from a.cpp" << endl; } M( int a ) : i( a ) { cout << "M(int) from a.cpp, i: " << i << endl; } M( const M& b ) { i = b.i; cout << "M(M&) from a.cpp, i: " << i << endl; } M& operator = ( M& b ) { i = b.i; cout << "M::operator =(), i: " << i << endl; return *this; } virtual ~M(){ cout << "M::~M() from a.cpp" << endl; } operator int() { cout << "M::operator int() from a.cpp" << endl; return i; } }; void test1() { cout << endl << "Example 1" << endl; M b1; cout << "b1: " << b1 << endl; cout << endl << "Example 2" << endl; M b2 = 5; cout << "b2: " << b2 << endl; cout << endl << "Example 3" << endl; M b3(6); cout << "b3: " << b3 << endl; cout << endl << "Example 4" << endl; M b4 = b1; cout << "b4: " << b4 << endl; cout << endl << "Example 5" << endl; M b5; b5 = b2; cout << "b5: " << b5 << endl; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { test1(); test2(); cin.get(); return 0; } The file b.cpp looks like this: #include "iostream" #include "constructions.h" class M { public: M() { cout << "M() from b.cpp" << endl; } ~M() { cout << "M::~M() from b.cpp" << endl; } }; void test2() { M m; } Finally, the file constructions.h contains only the declaration of the function "test2()" (which is defined in "b.cpp"), so that it can be used in "a.cpp": using namespace std; void test2(); We compiled and linked these three files using either VS2005 or the GNU 4.1.0 compiler and the 2.16.91 ld linker under Suse. The results are surprising and different between the two build environments. But in both cases it looks like the linker gets confused about which definition of the class M it should use. If we comment out the definition of test2() from b.cpp and its invocation from a.cpp, then all the C++ objects created in test1() are of the type M defined in a.cpp and the program executes normally under Windows and Suse. Here is the run output under Windows: Example 1 M() from a.cpp M::operator int() from a.cpp b1: -1 Example 2 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b2: 5 Example 3 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 6 M::operator int() from a.cpp b3: 6 Example 4 M(M&) from a.cpp, i: -1 M::operator int() from a.cpp b4: -1 Example 5 M() from a.cpp M::operator =(), i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b5: 5 M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp If we enable the definition of test2() in "b.cpp" but comment out its invocation from main(), then the results are different. Under Suse, the C++ objects created in test1() are still of the type M defined in a.cpp and the program still seems to execute normally. The VS2005 versions behave differently in Debug or Release mode: in Debug mode, the program still seems to execute normally, but in Release mode, b1 and b5 are of the type M defined in b.cpp (as the constructor invocation proves), although the other member functions called (including the destructor), belong to M defined in a.cpp. Here is the run output for the executable built in Release mode: Example 1 M() from b.cpp M::operator int() from a.cpp b1: 4206872 Example 2 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b2: 5 Example 3 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 6 M::operator int() from a.cpp b3: 6 Example 4 M(M&) from a.cpp, i: 4206872 M::operator int() from a.cpp b4: 4206872 Example 5 M() from b.cpp M::operator =(), i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b5: 5 M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp Finally, if we allow the call to test2() from main, the program misbehaves in all circumstances (that is under Suse and under Windows in both Debug and Release modes). The Windows-Debug version finds a memory corruption around the variable m, defined in test2(). Here is the Windows output in Release mode (test2() seems to have created an instance of M defined in b.cpp): Example 1 M() from b.cpp M::operator int() from a.cpp b1: 4206872 Example 2 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b2: 5 Example 3 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 6 M::operator int() from a.cpp b3: 6 Example 4 M(M&) from a.cpp, i: 4206872 M::operator int() from a.cpp b4: 4206872 Example 5 M() from b.cpp M::operator =(), i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b5: 5 M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M() from b.cpp M::~M() from b.cpp And here is the Suse output. The objects created in test1() are of the type M defined in a.cpp but the object created in test2() is also of the type M defined in a.cpp, unlike the object created under Windows which is of the type M defined in b.cpp. The program crashed in the end: Example 1 M() from a.cpp M::operator int() from a.cpp b1: -1 Example 2 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b2: 5 Example 3 M(int) from a.cpp, i: 6 M::operator int() from a.cpp b3: 6 Example 4 M(M&) from a.cpp, i: -1 M::operator int() from a.cpp b4: -1 Example 5 M() from a.cpp M::operator =(), i: 5 M::operator int() from a.cpp b5: 5 M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp M() from a.cpp M::~M() from a.cpp Segmentation fault (core dumped) I couldn't make the angle brackets appear using Markdown, so I used quotes around the header file name iostream. Otherwise, the code could be copied verbatim and tried. It is purely scholastic. The statement cin.get() at the end of main() was included just to facilitate running the program directly from VS2005 (cause it to display the output window until we could analyze the output). We are looking for a software engineer in Sunnyvale, CA and may offer that position to the programmer capable of providing an intelligent and comprehensive explanation of these anomalies. I can be contacted at [email protected].

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  • Multiple undo managers for a text view

    - by Rui Pacheco
    Hi, I've a text view that gets its content from an attributed string stored in a model object. I list several of these model objects in a drawer and when the user clicks on one the text view swaps its content. I now need to also swap the undo manager for the text view. I initialise an undo manager on my model object and use undoManagerForTextView to return it to the text view, but something's not quite right. Strategically placed logging statements show me that everything's working as planned: on startup a new model object is initialised correctly and a non-null undo manager is always pulled by the text view. But when it comes to actually doing undo, I just can't get the behaviour I want. I open a window, type something and press cmd+z, and undo works. I open a window, type something, select a new model on the table, type something, go back to the first model and try to undo and all I get is a beep. Something on the documentation made me raise an eyebrow, as it would mean that I can't have undo with several model objects: The default undo and redo behavior applies to text fields and text in cells as long as the field or cell is the first responder (that is, the focus of keyboard actions). Once the insertion point leaves the field or cell, prior operations cannot be undone.

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  • Textbox autofill not in correct position in safari

    - by jerjer
    Hello All, Has anyone experience this weird issue on safari? Textbox autofill is not at its correct position, please see screenshot below. I have been searching for answers in google for almost a day, still no luck. This is the built-in autofill feature of safari. Here is the markup: index.php <html> <body> <div id="nav"></div> <div id="content"> <iframe style="width:100%;height:100%" src="add_user.php" frameborder="0"></iframe> </div> .... </body> </html> add_user.php <html> .... <body> <form method="post"> <h3>Add User (Admin only) <div id="msg">Please enter First and Last Name.</div> <ul> <li><label>* Email</label> <input type="text" id="email" /></li> <li><label>* First Name</label> <input type="text" id="fname" /></li> <li><label>* Last Name</label> <input type="text" id="lname" /></li> .... </ul> </form> </body> </html> I am suspecting that this is caused by the iframe, but it works just fine in other browsers. Also I could not change the page design(using iframe) right away for practical reasons. Thanks

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  • Workflow Foundation (WF) -- Why does setting a DependencyProperty to a COM object using SetValue() t

    - by stakx
    Assume that I have a .NET Workflow Foundation (WF) SequenceActivity class with the following property: public IWorkspace Workspace { get; set; } // ^^^^^^^^^^ // important: this is a COM interface type! public static DependencyProperty WorkspaceProperty = DependencyProperty.Register( "Workspace", typeof(IWorkspace), typeof(FoobarActivity)); // <-- this activity class This activity executes some code that sets both of the above like this: this.Workspace = ...; // exact code not relevant; property set to a COM object SetValue(WorkspaceProperty, this.Workspace); The last line (which makes the call to SetValue) results in an ArgumentException for the second parameter (having the value of this.Workspace): Type […].IWorkspace of dependency property Workspace does not match the value's type System.__ComObject.                                           (translated from German, the English exception text might differ slightly) As soon as I register the dependency property with typeof(object) instead of typeof(IWorkspace) as the second parameter, the code executes just fine. However, that would result in the possibility to assign just about any value to the dependency property, and I do not want that. It seems to me that WF dependency properties don't work for COM interop objects.Does anyone have a solution to this?

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  • Base class -> Derived class and vice-versa conversions in C++

    - by Ivan Nikolaev
    Hi! I have the following example code: #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; class Event { public: string type; string source; }; class KeyEvent : public Event { public: string key; string modifier; }; class MouseEvent : public Event { public: string button; int x; int y; }; void handleEvent(KeyEvent e) { if(e.key == "ENTER") cout << "Hello world! The Enter key was pressed ;)" << endl; } Event generateEvent() { KeyEvent e; e.type = "KEYBOARD_EVENT"; e.source = "Keyboard0"; e.key = "SPACEBAR"; e.modifier = "none"; return e; } int main() { KeyEvent e = generateEvent(); return 0; } I can't compile it, G++ throws an error of kind: main.cpp: In function 'int main()': main.cpp:47:29: error: conversion from 'Event' to non-scalar type 'KeyEvent' requested I know that the error is obvious for C++ guru's, but I can't understand why I can't do the conversion from base class object to derived one. Can someone suggest me the solution of the problem that I have? Thx in advice

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  • Visual Studio 2008 project organization for executable and assembly

    - by user304582
    Hi - I am having a problem setting up the following in Visual Studio 2008: a parent project which includes the entrypoint Main() method class and which declares an interface, and a child project which has classes that implement the interface declared in the parent project. I have specified that Parent's Output type is a Console application, and Child's Output type is a Class library. In Child I have add a reference to the Parent as a project, and specified that Child depends on Parent and that the build order should be Parent, then Child. The build succeeds, and as far I can tell, the right things show up in the Child/bin/debug directory: Parent.exe and Child.dll. However, if I run Parent.exe, then at the point when it should load a class from the Child.dll, it fails with the error message: exception executing operation System.TypeLoadException: Could not load type 'Child.some.class' from assembly 'Parent, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'. I guess I'm confused as to how to get the Parent and Child projects to play together. I plan on having more child projects that use the same framework that is set up in the Parent, and so I do not want to move the entrypoint class down into the Child project. If I try to specify that the Child project is also a Console application, then the build process fails because there is no Main() entrypoint class in the child (even though the Parent project is included as a reference). Any help would be welcome! Thanks, Martin

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  • Is there a difference between plain text emails, and multipart emails with only plain text?

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I'm using Rails to send emails and I just want to send a plain text email (there is no corresponding HTML part). I've noticed that if I just have one file named email.text.plain.erb it actually generates a multipart email with one part (the plain text part) like this: Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary=mimepart_4c04a2d34c4bb_690a4e56b0362 --mimepart_4c04a2d34c4bb_690a4e56b0362 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 Content-Transfer-Encoding: Quoted-printable Content-Disposition: inline text of the email here... --mimepart_4c04a2d34c4bb_690a4e56b0362-- But if I take out the text.plain part and name it email.erb ActionMailer generates a regular plain text email without multipart like this: Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 text of the email here... Both work fine most of the time (so this is kind of nitpicky), but I guess my question is whether the second one is more correct. My goal here is just to make sure deliverability is as high as possible across a wide variety of devices and email clients. I've read that plain text emails can have slightly better deliverability rates than html and was just curious if throwing in this multipart (even if it only contained a plain text part) might throw off some of the dumber email clients. Thanks for your help!

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  • jquery access sibling TD in table

    - by Rob
    I have the following HTML Code. What I'm try to do is to have the div named javaRatingDiv to be displayed once the checkbox with the name java is checked. I can't seem to figure out how to navigate to the next TD in a table via jquery. <div id="languages"> <table style="width:inherit"> <tr style="height:50px; vertical-align:top"> <td>Select the languages that you are familiar with and rate your knowledge:</td> </tr> <tr> <table style="width:75%;" align="center"> <tr id="tableRow"> <td id="firstTD"><input type="checkbox" name="java" value="java" />&nbsp;Java</td> <td id="secondTD" style="width:200px;"> <div id="javaRatingDiv" style="display:none"> <input name="javaRating" type="radio" value="1" class="star"/> <input name="javaRating" type="radio" value="2" class="star"/> </div> </td> </tr> </table> </tr> </table> </div>

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  • FasterCSV Parsing issue?

    - by Schroedinger
    G'day guys, I'm currently using fastercsv to construct ActiveRecord elements and I can't for the life of me see this bug (tired), but for some reason when it creates, if in the rake file i output the column I want to save as the element value, it puts out correctly, as either a Trade or a Quote but when I try to save it into the activerecord, it won't work. FasterCSV.foreach("input.csv", :headers => true) do |row| d = DateTime.parse(row[1]+" "+row[2]) offset = Rational(row[3].to_i,24) o = d.new_offset(offset) t = Trade.create( :name => row[0], :type => row[4], :time => o, :price => row[6].to_f, :volume => row[7].to_i, :bidprice => row[10].to_f, :bidsize => row[11].to_i, :askprice => row[14].to_f, :asksize => row[15].to_i ) end Ideas? Name and Type are both strings, every other value works except for type. Have I missed something really simple?

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  • Style Trigger on Attached Property

    - by vanja.
    I have created my own Attached Property like this: public static class LabelExtension { public static bool GetSelectable(DependencyObject obj) { return (bool)obj.GetValue(SelectableProperty); } public static void SetSelectable(DependencyObject obj, bool value) { obj.SetValue(SelectableProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Selectable. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty SelectableProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached("Selectable", typeof(bool), typeof(Label), new UIPropertyMetadata(false)); } And then I'm trying to create a style with a trigger that depends on it: <!--Label--> <Style TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Util:LabelExtension.Selectable" Value="True"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <TextBox IsReadOnly="True" Text="{TemplateBinding Content}" /> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> But I'm getting a run time exception: Cannot convert the value in attribute 'Property' to object of type 'System.Windows.DependencyProperty'. Error at object 'System.Windows.Trigger' in markup file How can I access the value of the attached property in a style trigger? I have tried using a DataTrigger with a RelativeSource binding but it wasn't pulling the value through.

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  • how to compile with llvm and g++?

    - by Sriram
    Hi, I use a fedora-11 system and recently I installed llvm ( sudo yum -y install llvm llvm-docs llvm-devel ). When I search for llvm I get them in /usr/bin. some of the links to the binaries are broken(llvm-gcc,llvm-g++,llvm-cpp,etc.) the include files are found within /usr/include/llvm and libs at /usr/lib/llvm. How to compile them using g++? I tried to compile the kaleidoscope code given in the tutorial (http://llvm.org/docs/tutorial/LangImpl3.html) as per directed, but it fails to compile.. I get this... toy.cpp:5:30: error: llvm/LLVMContext.h: No such file or directory toy.cpp:352: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp: In member function ‘virtual llvm::Value* NumberExprAST::Codegen()’: toy.cpp:358: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp: In member function ‘virtual llvm::Value* BinaryExprAST::Codegen()’: toy.cpp:379: error: ‘getDoubleTy’ is not a member of ‘llvm::Type’ toy.cpp:379: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp: In member function ‘llvm::Function* PrototypeAST::Codegen()’: toy.cpp:407: error: ‘getDoubleTy’ is not a member of ‘llvm::Type’ toy.cpp:407: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp:408: error: ‘getDoubleTy’ is not a member of ‘llvm::Type’ toy.cpp: In member function ‘llvm::Function* FunctionAST::Codegen()’: toy.cpp:454: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: toy.cpp:543: error: ‘LLVMContext’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp:543: error: ‘Context’ was not declared in this scope toy.cpp:543: error: ‘getGlobalContext’ was not declared in this scope I cannot find the LLVMContext.h file too. so i guess this might be a version problem. what should i do to make it work? some help would be good! thanks in advance... :)

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  • Map enum in JPA with fixed values ?

    - by Kartoch
    I'm looking for the different ways to map an enum using JPA. I especially want to set the integer value of each enum entry and to save only the integer value. @Entity @Table(name = "AUTHORITY_") public class Authority implements Serializable { public enum Right { READ(100), WRITE(200), EDITOR (300); private int value; Right(int value) { this.value = value; } public int getValue() { return value; } }; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "AUTHORITY_ID") private Long id; // the enum to map : private Right right; } A simple solution is to use the Enumerated annotation with EnumType.ORDINAL: @Column(name = "RIGHT") @Enumerated(EnumType.ORDINAL) private Right right; But in this case JPA maps the enum index (0,1,2) and not the value I want (100,200,300). Th two solutions I found do not seem simple... First Solution A solution, proposed here, uses @PrePersist and @PostLoad to convert the enum to an other field and mark the enum field as transient: @Basic private int intValueForAnEnum; @PrePersist void populateDBFields() { intValueForAnEnum = right.getValue(); } @PostLoad void populateTransientFields() { right = Right.valueOf(intValueForAnEnum); } Second Solution The second solution proposed here proposed a generic conversion object, but still seems heavy and hibernate-oriented (@Type doesn't seem to exist in JEE): @Type( type = "org.appfuse.tutorial.commons.hibernate.GenericEnumUserType", parameters = { @Parameter( name = "enumClass", value = "Authority$Right"), @Parameter( name = "identifierMethod", value = "toInt"), @Parameter( name = "valueOfMethod", value = "fromInt") } ) Is there any other solutions ? I've several ideas in mind but I don't know if they exist in JPA: use the setter and getter methods of right member of Authority Class when loading and saving the Authority object an equivalent idea would be to tell JPA what are the methods of Right enum to convert enum to int and int to enum Because I'm using Spring, is there any way to tell JPA to use a specific converter (RightEditor) ?

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  • How to generate comments in hbm2java created POJO?

    - by jschoen
    My current setup using hibernate uses the hibernate.reveng.xml file to generate the various hbm.xml files. Which are then turned into POJOs using hbm2java. We spent some time while designing our schema, to place some pretty decent descriptions on the Tables and there columns. I am able to pull these descriptions into the hbm.xml files when generating them using hbm2jhbmxml. So I get something similar to this: <class name="test.Person" table="PERSONS"> <comment>The comment about the PERSONS table.</comment> <property name="firstName" type="string"> <column name="FIRST_NAME" length="100" not-null="true"> <comment>The first name of this person.</comment> </column> </property> <property name="middleInitial" type="string"> <column name="MIDDLE_INITIAL" length="1"> <comment>The middle initial of this person.</comment> </column> </property> <property name="lastName" type="string"> <column name="LAST_NAME" length="100"> <comment>The last name of this person.</comment> </column> </property> </class> So how do I tell hbm2java to pull and place these comments in the created Java files? I have read over this about editing the freemarker templates to change the way code is generated. I under stand the concept, but it was not to detailed about what else you could do with it beyond there example of pre and post conditions.

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  • Sharepoint survey: How to identify the question fields when fetching survey information from the Lis

    - by paul
    I am wanting to access survey information via the Lists web service and display the questions contained in the survey. The result contains a large number of Field nodes some of which are the questions in the survey. The other fields contain other information such as author, last changed etc. How can I pick out the questions? I had thought that all non-questions would be hidden but this is not the case. Here is my code as it is at the moment. It returns about 16 items. The survey has 6 questions... // read question definitions string[] HandleTypes = new string[] { "Number", "DateTime", "Text", "Choice", "GridChoice", "Boolean" }; var query = from n in node.Descendants(ns+"Field") where (n.Attribute("Hidden") == null || n.Attribute("Hidden").Value.ToLower() == "true") && (n.Attribute("Type") != null && HandleTypes.Contains(n.Attribute("Type").Value)) select new Question(n.Attribute("ID").Value) { Text = n.Attribute("DisplayName").Value, QuestionType = n.Attribute("Type").Value, Element = n }; Ideas anyone?

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  • JavaScript To Clear Form Field On Submit Before Form Submission To Perl Script

    - by Russell C.
    We have a very long form that has a number of fields and 2 different submit buttons. When a user clicks the 1st submit button ("Photo Search") the form should POST and our script will do a search for matching photos based on what the user entered in the text input ("photo_search_text") next to the 1st submit button and reload the entire form with matching photos added to the form. Upon clicking the 2nd submit button ("Save Changes") at the end of the form, it should POST and our script should update the database with the information the user entered in the form. Unfortunately the layout of the form makes it impossible to separate it into 2 separate forms. I checked the entire form POST and unfortunately the submitted fields are identical to the perl script processing the form submission no matter which submit button is clicked so the perl script can't differentiate which action to perform based on which submit button is pushed. The only thing I can think of is to update the onclick action of the 2nd submit button so it clears the "photo_search_text" field before the form is submitted and then only perform a photo search if that fields has a value. Based on all this, my question is what does the JavaScript look that could clear out the "photo_search_text" field when someone clicks on the 2nd submit button? Here is what I've tried so far none of which has worked successfully: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onsubmit="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.getElementById('photo_search_text')='';" value="Save Changes"> We also use JQuery on the site so if there is a way to do this with jQuery instead of plain JavaScript feel free to provide example code for that instead. Lastly, if there is another way to handle this that I'm not thinking of any and all suggestions would be welcome. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Character Encoding: â??

    - by akaphenom
    I am trying to piece together the mysterious string of characters â?? I am seeing quite a bit of in our database - I am fairly sure this is a result of conversion between character encodings, but I am not completely positive. The users are able to enter text (or cut and paste) into a Ext-Js rich text editor. The data is posted to a severlet which persists it to the database, and when I view it in the database i see those strange characters... is there any way to decode these back to their original meaning, if I was able to discover the correct encoding - or is there a loss of bits or bytes that has occured through the conversion process? Users are cutting and pasting from multiple versions of MS Word and PDF. Does the encoding follow where the user copied from? Thank you website is UTF-8 We are using ms sql server 2005; SELECT serverproperty('Collation') -- Server default collation. Latin1_General_CI_AS SELECT databasepropertyex('xxxx', 'Collation') -- Database default SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS and the column: Column_name Type Computed Length Prec Scale Nullable TrimTrailingBlanks FixedLenNullInSource Collation text varchar no -1 yes no yes SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS The non-Unicode equivalents of the nchar, nvarchar, and ntext data types in SQL Server 2000 are listed below. When Unicode data is inserted into one of these non-Unicode data type columns through a command string (otherwise known as a "language event"), SQL Server converts the data to the data type using the code page associated with the collation of the column. When a character cannot be represented on a code page, it is replaced by a question mark (?), indicating the data has been lost. Appearance of unexpected characters or question marks in your data indicates your data has been converted from Unicode to non-Unicode at some layer, and this conversion resulted in lost characters. So this may be the root cause of the problem... and not an easy one to solve on our end.

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  • Post a form from asp to asp.Net

    - by Atomiton
    I have a classic asp application. I want to post a contest form from that page to an Asp.Net form. The reason is that I want to use a lot of logic i have built into an Asp.Net page for validation before entering into the database and I don't know asp very well. Not to mention asp.Net being more secure. What's the best way to accomplish this goal? My thoughts are as follows: My asp Page: <html> <body> <form action="/Contests/entry.aspx" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" size="20" /> Last Name: <input type="text" name="lname" size="20" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> aspx page is running in a Virtual Directory and would handle anything posted to it. Is this possible, or does aspx prevent this kind of thing? I ( preferably ) don't want to create the form in aspx as my colleague wants to have control of the page and build the html himself and I don't want the hassle of constantly changing it. Are there caveats I need to consider? What roadblocks will I run into? How do I access the Posted Form Values? Request.Form?

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  • Unable to read in my custom .config section

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, NOTE: this is very very similar to this SO question, but I need some more help. i'm trying to make the following section in my .config file, but i get an exception when trying to access this section. .config file <configSections> <section name="foos" type="Ackbar.Mvc.Models.Foo.FooCollection, Ackbar.Mvc" requirePermission="false"/> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <foos> <add name="aaa" something="zzz"/> <add name="bbb" something="yyy"/> <add name="ccc" something="xxx"/> </foos> Ok, so this means i need to make two classes classes public class FooCollection : ConfigurationElementCollection { ... with my custom overrides, etc. ... } and public class FooElement : ConfigurationElement { [ConfigurationProperty("Name", IsRequired = true)] public string Name { .. } [ConfigurationProperty("Something ", IsRequired = true)] public string Something { .. } [ConfigurationProperty("IsDefault ", IsRequired = false, DefaultValue = false)] public bool IsDefault { .. } } Kewl. Now, when i do the following .... var whatever = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("foos") is throws the following exception :- An error occurred creating the configuration section handler for foos: Type 'Ackbar.Mvc.Models.Foos.FooCollection' does not inherit from 'System.Configuration.IConfigurationSectionHandler'. Can someone please help me? I don't want to wrap the collection INSIDE a parent section. Cheers :)

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  • Trying to use linq to search based on table with hierarchical data.

    - by Steph
    Duplicate many times over (and also these) I have a table called Types that has the following columns. ID Level Name ParentID (The ID of the parent row) and a table called ParentObject which has the following columns. ID TypeID there are 4 different level (possibly to be expanded to more). So if I had ID: 1 Level: 0 Name: Level0 ParentID: null ID: 2 Level: 1 Name: Level1 ParentID: 1 ID: 3 Level: 2 Name: Level2 ParentID: 2 ID: 4 Level: 3 Name: Level3 ParentID: 3 ID: 5 Level: 4 Name: Level4 ParentID: 4 In the ParentObject table I store the tree by just storing the lowest level ID. So if the ID i have is 4, I know that the tree actually goes Level0 - Level1 - Level2 - Level3 Basically, I need to be able to search all objects for a certain Type, or Type Level 2 for example in a linq statement. Say that the TypeID stored in the ParentObject table is 4, so Level3. But I actually want to search for all ParentObjects where the Level 2 type has an ID of 3. What would be the best way to do this since the id stored could be a level1 or a level2, etc.? Preferably in one linq statement if possible.

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  • Synchronize DataGrid and DataForm in Silverlight 3

    - by SpiralGray
    I've been banging my head against the wall for a couple of days on this and it's time to ask for help. I've got a DataGrid and DataForm on the same UserControl. I'm using an MVVM approach so there is a single ViewModel for the UserControl. That ViewModel has a couple of properties that are relevant to this discussion: public ObservableCollection<VehicleViewModel> Vehicles { get; private set; } public VehicleViewModel SelectedVehicle { get { return selectedVehicle; } private set { selectedVehicle = value; OnPropertyChanged( "SelectedVehicle" ); } } In the XAML I've got the DataGrid and DataForm defined as follows: <data:DataGrid SelectionMode="Single" ItemsSource="{Binding Vehicles}" SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedVehicle, Mode=TwoWay}" AutoGenerateColumns="False" IsReadOnly="True"> <dataFormToolkit:DataForm CurrentItem="{Binding SelectedVehicle}" /> So as the SelectedItem changes on the DataGrid it should push that change back to the ViewModel and when the ViewModel raises the OnPropertyChanged the DataForm should refresh itself with the information for the newly-selected VehicleViewModel. However, the setter for SelectedVehicle is never being called and in the Output window of VS I'm seeing the following error: System.Windows.Data Error: ConvertBack cannot convert value 'xxxx.ViewModel.VehicleViewModel' (type 'xxxx.ViewModel.VehicleViewModel'). BindingExpression: Path='SelectedVehicle' DataItem='xxxx.ViewModel.MainViewModel' (HashCode=31664161); target element is 'System.Windows.Controls.DataGrid' (Name=''); target property is 'SelectedItem' (type 'System.Object').. System.MethodAccessException: xxxx.ViewModel.MainViewModel.set_SelectedVehicle(xxxx.ViewModel.VehicleViewModel) It sounds like it's having a problem converting from a VehicleViewModel to an object (or back again), but I'm confused as to why that would be (or even if I'm on the right track with that assumption). Each row/item in the DataGrid should be a VehicleViewModel (because the ItemsSource is bound to an ObservableCollection of that type), so when the SelectedItem changes it should be dealing with an instance of VehicleViewModel. Any insight would be appreciated.

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  • Two Way Data Binding With a Object in WPF,Image Control

    - by Candy
    Sorry, my English is not very good, I have a object "Stuffs" "Stuffs" have a Property “Icon” now: xaml <Button Click="Button_Click"><Image Width="80" Height="80" Source="{Binding Path=Icon,Converter={StaticResource ImageConverter}}"/></Button> cs private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { IconFloder.Title = "Icon"; String IconFloderPath = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + ItemIconFloder; if (!System.IO.Directory.Exists(IconFloderPath)) System.IO.Directory.CreateDirectory(IconFloderPath); IconFloder.InitialDirectory = IconFloderPath; IconFloder.Filter = "Image File|*.jpeg"; IconFloder.ValidateNames = true; IconFloder.CheckPathExists = true; IconFloder.CheckFileExists = true; if (IconFloder.ShowDialog() == true) { HideImage.Text = ItemIconFloder + "\\" + IconFloder.SafeFileName; ((sender as Button).Content as Image).Source = new ImageConverter().Convert(ItemIconFloder + "\\" + IconFloder.SafeFileName, Type.GetType("System.Windows.Media.ImageSource"), null, new System.Globalization.CultureInfo("en-US")) as ImageSource; } } class ImageConverter:IValueConverter { public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { if (value is string&&!String.IsNullOrEmpty(value.ToString())) { try { return new BitmapImage(new Uri(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory + value)); } catch { } } return null; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, CultureInfo culture) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I would like to click buttons, change the picture, Also change Data Binding Stuffs.Icon But failed,I have no idea?I need help? I do not know whether I speak clearly

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  • Improving Performance of Crystal Reports using Stored Procedures

    - by mjh41
    Recently I updated a Crystal Report that was doing all of its work on the client-side (Selects, formulas, etc) and changed all of the logic to be done on the server-side through Stored Procedures using an Oracle 11g database. Now the report is only being used to display the output of the stored procedures and nothing else. Everything I have read on this subject says that utilizing stored procedures should greatly reduce the running time of the report, but it still takes roughly the same amount of time to retrieve the data from the server. Is there something wrong with the stored procedure I have written, or is the issue in the Crystal Report itself? Here is the stored procedure code along with the package that defines the necessary REF CURSOR. CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE SP90_INVENTORYDATA_ALL ( invdata_cur IN OUT sftnecm.inv_data_all_pkg.inv_data_all_type, dCurrentEndDate IN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE%type, dCurrentStartDate IN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE%type ) AS BEGIN OPEN invdata_cur FOR SELECT vw_METADATA.CREATIONTIME, vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE, vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS, vw_METADATA.CASENUMBER, (CASE WHEN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE < dCurrentStartDate AND ( (vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS is null OR vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS != 'Closed') OR TO_DATE(vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, 'MM/DD/YYYY') >= dCurrentStartDate) then 1 else 0 end) InventoryBegin, (CASE WHEN (to_date(vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE, 'MM/DD/YYYY') BETWEEN dCurrentStartDate AND dCurrentEndDate) AND vw_METADATA.RESRESOLUTIONDATE is not null AND vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS is not null then 1 else 0 end) CaseClosed, (CASE WHEN vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE BETWEEN dCurrentStartDate AND dCurrentEndDate then 1 else 0 end) CaseCreated FROM vw_METADATA WHERE vw_METADATA.CASEENTRCVDDATE <= dCurrentEndDate ORDER BY vw_METADATA.CREATIONTIME, vw_METADATA.CASESTATUS; END SP90_INVENTORYDATA_ALL; And the package: CREATE OR REPLACE PACKAGE inv_data_all_pkg AS TYPE inv_data_all_type IS REF CURSOR RETURN inv_data_all_temp%ROWTYPE; END inv_data_all_pkg;

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  • Error displaying a WinForm in Design mode with a custom control on it.

    - by George
    I have a UserControl that is part of a Class library. I reference this project from my solution. This adds a control from the referenced project to my toolbox. I add tghe control to a form. Everything looks good, I compile all and run. Perfect... But when I close the .frm with the control on it and re-open it, I get this error. The code continues to run. It may have something to do with namespaces. The original namespace was simply "Design" and this was ambiguous and conflicting so i decided to rename it. I think that's when my problems began. To prevent possible data loss before loading the designer, the following errors must be resolved: 2 Errors Ignore and Continue Why am I seeing this page? Could not find type 'Besi.Winforms.HtmlEditor.Editor'. Please make sure that the assembly that contains this type is referenced. If this type is a part of your development project, make sure that the project has been successfully built using settings for your current platform or Any CPU. Instances of this error (1) 1. There is no stack trace or error line information available for this error. Help with this error Could not find an associated help topic for this error. Check Windows Forms Design-Time error list Forum posts about this error Search the MSDN Forums for posts related to this error The variable 'Editor1' is either undeclared or was never assigned. Go to code Instances of this error (1) 1. BesiAdmin frmOrder.Designer.vb Line:775 Column:1 Show Call Stack at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.Error(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String exceptionText, String helpLink) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeExpression(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String name, CodeExpression expression) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeExpression(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String name, CodeExpression expression) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeStatement(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeStatement statement) Help with this error MSDN Help Forum posts about this error Search the MSDN Forums for posts related to this error

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  • Using datetime float representation as primary key

    - by devanalyst
    From my experience I have learn that using an surrogate INT data type column as primary key esp. an IDENTITY key column offers better performance than using GUID or char/varchar data type column as primary key. I try to use IDENTITY key as primary key wherever possible. But recently I came across a schema where the tables were horizontally partitioned and were managed via a Partitioned view. So the tables could not have an IDENTITY column since that would make the Partitioned View non updatable. One work around for this was to create a dummy 'keygenerator' table with an identity column to generate IDs for primary key. But this would mean having a 'keygenerator' table for each of the Partitioned View. My next thought was to use float as a primary key. The reason is the following key algorithm that I devised DECLARE @KEY FLOAT SET @KEY = CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 SET @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY Heres how it works. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE()) gives float representation of current datetime since internally all datetime are represented by SQL as a float value. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 converts the float representation into complete decimal value i.e. all digits are pushed to right side of ".". @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY adds the Employee ID which is an integer to this decimal value. The logic is that the Employee ID is guaranteed to be unique across sessions since an employee cannot connect to an application more than once at the same time. And for the same employee each time a key will be generated the current datetime will be unique. In all an unique key across all employee sessions and across time. So for Emp Ids 11 and 12, I have key values like 12.40046693321566357, 11.40046693542361111 But my concern whether float data type as primary key offer benefits compared to choosing GUID or char/varchar as primary keys. Also important thing is because of partitioning the float column is going to be part of a composite key.

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