Search Results

Search found 12126 results on 486 pages for 'property hiding'.

Page 435/486 | < Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >

  • How would I compare two Lists(Of <CustomClass>) in VB?

    - by Kumba
    I'm working on implementing the equality operator = for a custom class of mine. The class has one property, Value, which is itself a List(Of OtherClass), where OtherClass is yet another custom class in my project. I've already implemented the IComparer, IComparable, IEqualityComparer, and IEquatable interfaces, the operators =, <>, bool and not, and overriden Equals and GetHashCode for OtherClass. This should give me all the tools I need to compare these objects, and various tests comparing two singular instances of these objects so far checks out. However, I'm not sure how to approach this when they are in a List. I don't care about the list order. Given: Dim x As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar"), New OtherClass("baz")} Dim y As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("baz"), New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar")} Then (x = y).ToString should print out True. I need to compare the same (not distinct) set of objects in this list. The list shouldn't support dupes of OtherClass, but I'll have to figure out how to add that in later as an exception. Not interested in using LINQ. It looks nice, but in the few examples I've played with, adds a performance overhead in that bugs me. Loops are ugly, but they are fast :) A straight code answer is fine, but I'd like to understand the logic needed for such a comparison as well. I'm probably going to have to implement said logic more than a few times down the road.

    Read the article

  • Defining and using controller methods in ember.js

    - by OriginalEXE
    first of all, I am total noob when it comes to OOP in JS, this is new to me so treat me like a noob. I am building my first ember.js application and I am stuck (not the first time but I would get unstuck by myself, this is a tough one though). I have two models: forms entries Entries is of course in (one to many) relationship to forms, so each form can have as many properties. Form properties: id : DS.attr( 'number' ), title : DS.attr( 'string' ), views : DS.attr( 'number' ), conversion : DS.attr( 'number' ), entries : DS.hasMany( 'entry' ) Entry properties: id : DS.attr( 'number' ), parent_id: DS.belongsTo( 'form' ) Now, I have forms route that displays all forms in tabled view, and each table row has some info like form id, name etc. and that works great. What I wanted to do is display the number of entries each form has. I figured I should do that via controller, so here is my controller now: // Form controller App.FormController = Ember.ObjectController.extend({ entriescount: function() { var entries = this.get( 'store').find( 'entry' ); return entries.filterBy( 'parent_id', this.get( 'id' ) ).get( 'length' ); }.property( '[email protected]_id') }); Now for some reason, when I use {{entriescount}} in {{#each}} loop, this returns nothing. It also returns nothing in single form route. Note that in both cases, {{title}} for example works. I am wondering, am I going the right way by using controller for this, and how do I get controller to output the data. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Creating UTF-8 files in Java from a runnable Jar

    - by RuntimeError
    I have a little Java project where I've set the properties of the class files to UTF-8 (I use a lot of foreign characters not found on the default CP1252). The goal is to create a text file (in Windows) containing a list of items. When running the class files from Eclipse itself (hitting Ctrl+F11) it creates the file flawlessly and opening it in another editor (I'm using Notepad++) I can see the characters as I wanted. +--------------------------------------------------+ ¦ Universidade2010 (18/18)¦ ¦ hidden: 0¦ +--------------------------------------------------¦ But, when I export the project (using Eclipse) as a runnable Jar and run it using 'javaw -jar project.jar' the new file created is a mess of question marks ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? ? Universidade2010 (19/19)? ? hidden: 0? ???????????????????????????????????????????????????? I've followed some tips on how to use UTF-8 (which seems to be broken by default on Java) to try to correct this so now I'm using Writer w = new OutputStreamWriter(fos, "UTF-8"); and writing the BOM header to the file like in this question already answered but still without luck when exporting to Jar Am I missing some property or command-line command so Java knows I want to create UTF-8 files by default ?

    Read the article

  • How to configure a NSPopupButton for displaying multiple values in a TableView?

    - by jekmac
    Hi there! I'm using two entities A and B with to-many-to-many relationship. Lets say I got an entity A with attribute aAttrib and a to-many relationship aRelat to another entity B with attribute bAttrib and a to-many relationship bRelat with entity A. Now I am building an interface with two tables one for entity A and another for entity B. The table for entity B has two columns one for bAttrib and one for the relationship aRelat. The aRelat-column should be a NSPopupButtonCell to display multiple aAttrib values. I'd like to set all the bindings in InterfaceBuilder in Table Column Bindings: -- I have two NSArrayController each for one entity: Object Controller Mode:Entity Array Controller Bindings: Parameters Managed Object Context bind to File's Owner -- One Table Cloumn with a PopUpButtonCell: TableCloumnBindings Content bind to Entity A with ControllerKey arrangedObjects; Content Values bind to Entity A with ModelKeyPath aAttrib Selected Object bind to Entity B with ModelKeyPath bRelat I know that this configuration doesn't allow multiple value setting. But I don't know how to do the right one. Getting the following message: HIToolbox: ignoring exception 'Unacceptable type of value for to-many relationship: property = "bRelat"; desired type = NSSet; given type = NSCFString; value = testValue.' that raised inside Carbon event dispatch... Does anyone have any idea?

    Read the article

  • How to query an .NET assembly's required framework (not CLR) version?

    - by Bonfire Burns
    Hi, we are using some kind of plug-in architecture in one of our products (based on .NET). We have to consider our customers or even 3rd party devs writing plug-ins for the product. The plug-ins will be .NET assemblies that are loaded by our product at run-time. We have no control about the quality or capabilities of the external plug-ins (apart from checking whether they implement the correct interfaces). So we need to implement some kind of safety check while loading the plug-ins to make sure that our product (and the hosting environment) can actually host the plug-in or deliver a meaningful error message ("The plug-in your are loading needs .NET version 42.42 - the hosting system is only on version 33.33."). Ideally the plug-ins would do this check internally, but our experience regarding their competence is so-so and in any case our product will get the blame, so we want to make sure that this "just works". Requiring the plug-in developers to provide the info in the metadata or to explicitly provide the information in the interface is considered "too complicated". I know about the Assembly.ImageRuntimeVersion property. But to my knowledge this tells me only the needed CLR version, not the framework version. And I don't want to check all of the assembly's dependencies and match them against a table of "framework version vs. available assemblies". Do you have any ideas how to solve this in a simple and maintainable fashion? Thanks & regards, Bon

    Read the article

  • Cannot serialize this List<T> extension

    - by Jaxidian
    I'm trying to push a subset of a collection of data through WCF to be consumed by WCF - think paged data. As such, I want this collection to have one page's worth of data as well as a total number of results. I figured this should be trivial by creating a custom object that extends List. However, everything I do results in my TotalNumber property coming across as 0. All of the data gets serialized/deserialized just fine but that single integer won't come across at all. Here's my first attempt that failed: [Serializable] public class PartialList<T> : List<T> { public PartialList() { } public PartialList(IEnumerable<T> collection) : base(collection) { } [DataMember] public int UnpartialTotalCount { get; set; } And here's my second attempt that failed in the exact same way: [Serializable] public class PartialList<T> : List<T>, ISerializable { public PartialList() { } public PartialList(IEnumerable<T> collection) : base(collection) { } [DataMember] public int UnpartialTotalCount { get; set; } protected PartialList(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { UnpartialTotalCount = info.GetInt32("UnpartialTotalCount"); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("UnpartialTotalCount", UnpartialTotalCount); } } What's the deal here??

    Read the article

  • memory leak when removing objects in NSMutableArray

    - by user262325
    Hello everyone I hope to store MYFileObj to NSMutableArray (fileArray) and display data on an UITavleView(tableview). //----------------------------------MYFileObj #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MYFileObj : NSObject { NSString *fileName; } -(void) setFileName:(NSString *)s ; -(NSString *) fileName ; @end the array I want to store data NSMutableArray *fileArray; I created new object and add to fileArray MYFileObj *newobj=[[MYFileObj alloc] init ]; NSString *ss=[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@",path] ; [newobj setFileName:ss]; [ss release]; [fileArray addObject:newobj]; [newobj release]; [atableview reloadData]; After the first time relaodData and do something, I want to reload fileArray and redraw atableview. //code to remove all object in atableview if([fileArray count]>0) { [fileArray removeAllObjects]; [atableview reloadData]; } I notice that there are memory leak. I hope to know the method "removeAllObjects" removes only MYFileObj themselves or also removes MYFileObj's member property "fileName"? Thanks interdev

    Read the article

  • Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

    - by Coding Gorilla
    I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

    Read the article

  • XML to JSON - losing root node

    - by Mike
    I'm using net.sf.json with a Java project and it works great. The conversion of this XML: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <important-data certified="true" processed="true"> <timestamp>232423423423</timestamp> <authors> <author> <firstName>Tim</firstName> <lastName>Leary</lastName> </author> </authors> <title>Flashbacks</title> <shippingWeight>1.4 pounds</shippingWeight> <isbn>978-0874778700</isbn> </important-data> converts to this in JSON: { "@certified": "true", "@processed": "true", "timestamp": "232423423423", "authors": [ { "firstName": "Tim", "lastName": "Leary" }], "title": "Flashbacks", "shippingWeight": "1.4 pounds", "isbn": "978-0874778700" } However, the root tag <important-data> is lost in the conversion. Being new to XML and JSON, I am not sure if this is suppose to be the correct behaviour. If not, is there any way to tell net.sf.json to convert it while keeping the root node property? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What C# container is most resource-efficient for existence for only one operation?

    - by ccornet
    I find myself often with a situation where I need to perform an operation on a set of properties. The operation can be anything from checking if a particular property matches anything in the set to a single iteration of actions. Sometimes the set is dynamically generated when the function is called, some built with a simple LINQ statement, other times it is a hard-coded set that will always remain the same. But one constant always exists: the set only exists for one single operation and has no use before or after it. My problem is, I have so many points in my application where this is necessary, but I appear to be very, very inconsistent in how I store these sets. Some of them are arrays, some are lists, and just now I've found a couple linked lists. Now, none of the operations I'm specifically concerned about have to care about indices, container size, order, or any other functionality that is bestowed by any of the individual container types. I picked resource efficiency because it's a better idea than flipping coins. I figured, since array size is configured and it's a very elementary container, that might be my best choice, but I figure it is a better idea to ask around. Alternatively, if there's a better choice not out of resource-efficiency but strictly as being a better choice for this kind of situation, that would be nice as well.

    Read the article

  • How can I tell when the Text of a System.Windows.Forms.GroupBox wraps to the next line?

    - by fre0n
    I'm creating a GroupBox at runtime and setting its Text property. Usually, the text is only on one line, but sometimes it wraps. The problem is that the controls contained in the GroupBox cover up the GroupBox's text. What I'd like to do is determine if and when the text wraps. Specifically, I'd like to determine how much extra height the wrapped text takes up as compared to a single line. That way, I can reposition the GroupBox's controls and adjust its height. Initially, I thought I'd do this by calling the GroupBox's CreateGraphics() method, and using the Graphics to measure the string. Something like this: private void SetGroupBoxText(GroupBox grp, string text) { const int somePadding = 10; Graphics g = grp.CreateGraphics(); SizeF textSize = g.MeasureString(text, grp.Font); if (textSize.Width > (grp.Width - somePadding)) { // Adjust height, etc. } } The problem is that the size generated by g.MeasureString(text, grp.Font) doesn't seem to be accurate. I determined that it wasn't accurate by putting enough of a single character to cause a wrap, then measuring the resulting string. For example, it took 86 pipes (|) to until a wrap happened. When I measured that string, its width was ~253. And it took 16 capital W's to force a wrap - its string had a width of ~164. These were the two extremes that I tested. My GroupBox's width was 189. (a's took 29 and had a width of ~180, O's took 22 and had a width of ~189) Does anyone have any ideas? (hacks, WinAPI, etc. are welcome solutions)

    Read the article

  • CSS Sprite for images which have vertical as well as horizontal repeats

    - by Rachel
    I have four images, one of which has background repeat property in horizontal direction and three of which have background repeat in vertical direction. I have different CSS classes which currently uses this images as under: .sb_header_dropdown { background: url(images/shopping_dropdown_bg.gif) repeat-y top left; padding: 8px 3px 8px 15px; } .shopping_basket_dropdown .sb_body { background: url(images/shopping_dropdown_body_bg.png) repeat-y top left; margin: 0; padding: 5px 9px 5px 8px; position: relative; z-index: 99999; } .checkout_cart .co_header_left { background: url(images/bg.gif) repeat-x 0 -150px; overflow: hidden; padding-left: 3px; } .sb_dropdown_footer { background: url(images/shopping_dropdown_footer_bg.png) repeat-y top left; clear: both; height: 7px; font-size: 0; } So here am making 4 HTTP Request and I want to implement CSS Sprite for all 4 images such that I can reduce the number of HTTP Request from 4 to 1, also thing to keep in mind is that here we have background repeat for all 4 images, either on x-direction or on y-direction and so how should sprite be created and how it can be used in the CSS to reduce the number of HTTP request. I hope this question is clear.

    Read the article

  • Dependencyproperty doesn't have value on load

    - by Jakob
    My problem is this, I have a UC called profile that contains another UC called FollowImageControl. In my Profile.xaml i declaretively bind a property of FollowImageControl called FollowerId to a CurrentUserId from Profile.xaml.cs. Problem is that I CurrentUserId is assigned in Profile.xaml.cs; the Profile.xaml code-behind. This means that I do not initially get the FollowerId. I have these methods in the FollowImageControl.xaml.cs: public static readonly DependencyProperty _followUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("FollowUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(FollowImageControl), null); public Guid FollowUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_followUserId); } set { SetValue(_followUserId, value); } } public FollowImageControl() { // Required to initialize variables InitializeComponent(); LoggedInUserId = WebContext.Current.User.UserId; var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); if (ctx.IsFollowingUser(LoggedInUserId, FollowUserId).Value) SwitchToDelete.Begin(); } private void AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { if (LoggedInUserId != FollowUserId) { var ctx = new NotesDomainContext(); ctx.FollowUser(FollowUserId, LoggedInUserId); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } } THE WEIRD THING IS that when i insert breakpoints the FollowerUserId in FollowImageControl() is 0, but it has a value in AddImg_MouseLeftButtonDown, and there is no inbetween logic that sets the value of it. How is this??? Here's a little more code info: This is my binding from profile.xaml <internalCtrl:FollowImageControl FollowUserId="{Binding ElementName=ProfileCtrl, Path=CurrentUserId}" /> this is my constructor in profile.xaml.cs wherein the CurrentUserId is set public static readonly DependencyProperty _CurrentUserId = DependencyProperty.Register("CurrentUserId", typeof(Guid), typeof(Profile), null); public Guid CurrentUserId { get { return (Guid)GetValue(_CurrentUserId); } set { SetValue(_CurrentUserId, value); } } public Profile(Guid UserId) { CurrentUserId = UserId; InitializeComponent(); Loaded += new RoutedEventHandler(Profile_Loaded); } I'm seriously dumbfound that one minute the FollowerId has no value, and the next it holds the right, without me having changed the value in the code-behind.

    Read the article

  • How do you update a secondary view?

    - by Troy Sartain
    Perhaps there's a better way to set this up so I'm open to suggestions. But here's what I'm doing. I have a main UIView. On top of that I have a UIImageView and another UIView. When the UIImageView changes, I want to change the second UIView. So I have a class for it and the IB object's type is set to the class. In the .m of that class is a drawRect method that draws some rectangles. Also in the .m is a NSMutableArray property that is synthesized. I created an instance of that class in the controller of the main view. The problem: despite the fact that the drawRect works fine when the app starts (as traced in the debugger,) when the UIImageView changes I call a "setNeedsDisplay" on the instance variable of the second view after updating the @synthesize'd array but the drawRect does not get called. I think it has to do with instances. I wouldn't think threading would be an issue here. I just want to draw in a separate area of the screen based on an image also displayed.

    Read the article

  • Grails - Where to store properties related to domains

    - by GalmWing
    This is something I have been struggling about for some time now. The thing is: I have many (20 or so) static arrays of values. I say static because that is how I'm actually storing them, as static arrays inside some domains. For example, if I have a list of known websites, I do: class Website { ... static websites = ["web1", "web2" ...] } But I do this just while developing, because I can easily change the arrays if needed, but what I'm going to do when the application is ready for deployment? In my project it is very probable that, at some point, these arrays of values change. I've been researching on that matter, one can store application properties inside an external .properties file, but it will be impossible to store an array, even futile, because if some array gets an additional value, the application can't recognize it until the name of the new property is added where needed. Another approach is to store this information in the database, but for some reason it seems like a waste to add 20 or more tables that will have just two rows, an id and a name. And the last option, as far as I know, would be an XML, but I'm not very experienced with those. It seems groovy has a way of creating and reading XML files relatively easy, but I don't know how difficult would be to modify an XML whose layout is predefined in the application. Needless to say that storing them in the config.groovy is not an option since any change will require to recompile. I haven't come across some "standard" (maybe a best practice?) way of dealing with these. So the questions is: Where to store these arrays?

    Read the article

  • c# warn if text box is empty or contains a non-whole number

    - by Jamaul Smith
    In my specific case, I need the value in propertyPriceTextBox to be numeric only, and a whole number. A value also has to be entered, and I can just Messagebox.Show() a warning and that's all I'd need to do. This is what I have so far. private void computeButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { decimal propertyPrice; if ((decimal.TryParse(propertyPriceTextBox.Text, out propertyPrice))) decimal.Parse(propertyPriceTextBox.Text); { if (residentialRadioButton.Checked == true) commisionLabel.Text = (residentialCom * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (commercialRadioButton.Checked == true) commisionLabel.Text = (commercialCom * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (hillsRadioButton.Checked == true) countySalesTaxTextBox.Text = ( hilssTax * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (pascoRadioButton.Checked == true) countySalesTaxTextBox.Text = (pascoTax * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); if (polkRadioButton.Checked == true) countySalesTaxTextBox.Text = (polkTax * propertyPrice).ToString("c"); decimal result; result = (countySalesTaxTextBox.Text + stateSalesTaxTextBox.Text + propertyPriceTextBox.Text + comissionTextBox.Text).ToString("c"); } else (.) MessageBox.Show("Property Price must be a whole number."); }

    Read the article

  • Failed to create a 'System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler' from the text 'Button_Click'

    - by ay89
    In my windows phone 8 application, while trying to create a dependency property I am always getting this exception. what I am doing wrong, plz guide me. {System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: Failed to create a 'System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler' from the text 'Button_Click'. [Line: 108 Position: 66] at System.Windows.Application.LoadComponent(Object component, Uri resourceLocator) at com.sap.View.HomePage.InitializeComponent() at com.sap.View.HomePage..ctor()} this is code-behind of Header public static readonly DependencyProperty MenuClickProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("MenuClick", typeof(RoutedEventHandler), typeof(Header), new PropertyMetadata(OnMenuClickHandlerChanged)); public RoutedEventHandler MenuClick { get { return (RoutedEventHandler)GetValue(MenuClickProperty); } set { SetValue(MenuClickProperty, new RoutedEventHandler(value)); } } private static void OnMenuClickHandlerChanged(DependencyObject d, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { Header header = d as Header; header.OnMenuClickHandlerPropertyChanged(e); } private void OnMenuClickHandlerPropertyChanged(DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { MenuButton.Click += MenuClick; } this is in my user control (Header) <Button Click="{Binding Path=MenuClick, Source={RelativeSource Mode=Self}}" /> this is how i am including control on my Page: <myControls:Header Title="{Binding Title}" MenuClick="Button_Click" /> this is in code-behind: public void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { OpenSettings(); }

    Read the article

  • Populate on demand a TreeView with datas in an XML

    - by m6a-uds
    Hi I have a large XML file (3000+ nodes) that I want to represent in a TreeView on ASP.NET. I cannot databind it to a XMLDataSource because loading the TreeView will then be way too slow (I never even waited long enough to see it finish...) So the solution for this would be to use the PopulateOnDemand property of the TreeNodes to load data only when needed. Problem is, I can't think of a way to acheive this... How can-I, based on the ID of a node, search a XMLDocument to get all the childnodes of the node having this ID? XML would look like that: <document ID=1> <document ID=2> <document ID=3> </document> </document> <document ID=4> </document> </document> There are nor rules on how much levels it can go down or anything...

    Read the article

  • Windows Phone - failing to get a string from a website with login information

    - by jumantyn
    I am new to accessing web services with Windows Phone 7/8. I'm using a WebClient to get a string from a php-website. The site returns a JSON string but at the moment I'm just trying to put it into a TextBox as a normal string just to test if the connection works. The php-page requires an authentication and I think that's where my code is failing. Here's my code: WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("myUsername", "myPassword"); client.DownloadStringCompleted += new DownloadStringCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadStringCompleted); client.DownloadStringAsync(new Uri("https://www.mywebsite.com/ba/php/jsonstuff.php")); void client_DownloadStringCompleted(object sender, DownloadStringCompletedEventArgs e) { try { string data = e.Result; this.jsonText.Text = data; } catch (Exception ex) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(ex.Message); } } This returns first a WebException and then a TargetInvocationException. If I replace the Uri with for example "http://www.google.com/index.html" the jsonText TextBox gets filled with html text from Google (oddly enough, this also works even when the WebClient credentials are still set). So is the problem in the setting of the credentials? I couldn't find any good results when searching for guides on how to access php-pages with credentials, only without them. Then I found a short mention somewhere to use the WebClient.Credentials property. But should it work some other way? Update: here's what I can get out of the WebException (sorry for the bad formatting): System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. ---System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.InternalEndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<c_DisplayClasse.b_d(Object sendState) at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.<c_DisplayClass1.b_0(Object sendState) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.BeginOnUI(SendOrPostCallback beginMethod, Object state) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.WebClient.GetWebResponse(WebRequest request, IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.WebClient.DownloadBitsResponseCallback(IAsyncResult result)

    Read the article

  • C# WCF and Object Inheritence

    - by Michael Edwards
    I have the following setup of two classes: [SerializableAttribute] public class ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Title{get;set;} } [DataContract] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } These two classes are served through a WCF service. However I only want the service to expose the ChildData class to the end user but pull the marked up DataMember properties from the parent. E.g. The consuming client would have a stub class that looked like: public class ChildData{ public string Title{get;set;} public string Abstract{get;set;} } If I uses the parent and child classes as above the stub class only contains the Abstract property. I have looked at using the KnownType attribute on the ChildData class like so: [DataContract] [KnownType(typeOf(ParentData)] public class ChildData : ParentData{ [DataMember] public string Abstract{get;set;} } However this didn't work. I then applied the DataContract attribute to the ParentData class, however this then creates two stub classes in the client application which I don't want. Is there any way to tell the serializer that it should flatten the inheritance to that of the sub-class i.e. ChildData

    Read the article

  • Which is better Span that runat server or default asp lable ?

    - by Space Cracker
    I have a simple asp.net web page that contain a table with about 5 TR and each row have 2 TD .. in the page load I get user data ( 5 property ) and view them in this page the following are first 2 rows : <table> <tr> <td> FullName </td> <td> <span id="fullNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> Username </td> <td> <span id="userNameSpan" runat="server"></span> </td> </tr> </table> I always used <asp:Label to set value by code but i always notice that label converted in runtime to span so i decided to user span by making him runat=server to be accessed by code, so Which is better to use asp:label or span with runat=server ??

    Read the article

  • Alternate colors on click with jQuery

    - by Jace Cotton
    I'm sure there is a simple solution to this, and I'm sure this is a duplicate question, though I have been unable to solve my solution particularly because I don't really know how to phrase it in order to search for other questions/solutions, so I'm coming here hoping for some help. Basically, I have spans with classes that assigns a background-color property, and inside those spans are words. I have three of these spans, and each time a user clicks on a span I want the class to change (thus changing the background color and inner text). HTML: <span class="alternate"> <span class="blue showing">Lorem</span> <span class="green">Ipsum</span> <span class="red">Dolor</span> </span> CSS: .alternate span { display : none } .alternate .showing { display : inline } .blue { background : blue } .green { background : green } .red { background : red } jQuery: $(".alternate span").each(function() { $(this).on("click", function() { $(this).removeClass("showing"); $(this).next().addClass("showing"); }); }); This solution works great using $.next until I get to the third click, whereafter .showing is removed, and is not added since there are no more $.next options. How do I, after getting to the last-child, add .showing to the first-child and then start over? I have tried various options including if($(".alternate span:last-child").hasClass("showing")) { etc. etc. }, and I attempted to use an array and for loop though I failed to make it work. Newb question, I know, but I can't seem to solve this so as a last resort I'm coming here.

    Read the article

  • C# textbox cursor positioning

    - by Jim
    I feel like I am just missing a simple property, but can you set the cursor to the end of a line in a textbox? private void txtNumbersOnly_KeyPress(object sender, KeyPressEventArgs e) { if (Char.IsDigit(e.KeyChar) || e.KeyChar == '\b' || e.KeyChar == '.' || e.KeyChar == '-') { TextBox t = (TextBox)sender; bool bHandled = false; _sCurrentTemp += e.KeyChar; if (_sCurrentTemp.Length > 0 && e.KeyChar == '-') { // '-' only allowed as first char bHandled = true; } if (_sCurrentTemp.StartsWith(Convert.ToString('.'))) { // add '0' in front of decimal point t.Text = string.Empty; t.Text = '0' + _sCurrentTemp; _sCurrentTemp = t.Text; bHandled = true; } e.Handled = bHandled; } After testing for '.' as first char, the cursor goes before the text that is added. So instead of "0.123", the results are "1230." without moving the cursor myself. I also apologize if this is a duplicate question.

    Read the article

  • Simple aggregating query very slow in PostgreSql, any way to improve?

    - by Ash
    HI I have a table which holds files and their types such as CREATE TABLE files ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, name VARCHAR(255), filetype VARCHAR(255), ... ); and another table for holding file properties such as CREATE TABLE properties ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, file_id INTEGER CONSTRAINT fk_files REFERENCES files(id), size INTEGER, ... // other property fields ); The file_id field has an index. The file table has around 800k lines, and the properties table around 200k (not all files necessarily have/need a properties). I want to do aggregating queries, for example find the average size and standard deviation for all file types. But it's very slow - around 70 seconds for the latter query. I understand it needs a sequential scan, but still it seems too much. Here's the query SELECT f.filetype, avg(size), stddev(size) FROM files as f, properties as pr WHERE f.id = pr.file_id GROUP BY f.filetype; and the explain HashAggregate (cost=140292.20..140293.94 rows=116 width=13) (actual time=74013.621..74013.954 rows=110 loops=1) -> Hash Join (cost=6780.19..138945.47 rows=179564 width=13) (actual time=1520.104..73156.531 rows=179499 loops=1) Hash Cond: (f.id = pr.file_id) -> Seq Scan on files f (cost=0.00..108365.41 rows=1140941 width=9) (actual time=0.998..62569.628 rows=805270 loops=1) -> Hash (cost=3658.64..3658.64 rows=179564 width=12) (actual time=1131.053..1131.053 rows=179499 loops=1) -> Seq Scan on properties pr (cost=0.00..3658.64 rows=179564 width=12) (actual time=0.753..557.171 rows=179574 loops=1) Total runtime: 74014.520 ms Any ideas why it is so slow/how to make it faster?

    Read the article

  • What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

    - by Joe
    I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 431 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442  | Next Page >