Search Results

Search found 40212 results on 1609 pages for 'hardware id'.

Page 436/1609 | < Previous Page | 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443  | Next Page >

• what's the performance difference between int and varchar for primary keys

  - by user568576

  I need to create a primary key scheme for a system that will need peer to peer replication. So I'm planning to combine a unique system ID and a sequential number in some way to come up with unique ID's. I want to make sure I'll never run out of ID's, so I'm thinking about using a varchar field, since I could always add another character if I start running out. But I've read that integers are better optimized for this. So I have some questions... 1) Are integers really better optimized? And if they are, how much of a performance difference is there between varchars and integers? I'm going to use firebird for now. But I may switch later. Or possibly support multiple db's. So I'm looking for generalizations, if that's possible. 2) If integers are significantly better optimized, why is that? And is it likely that varchars will catch up in the future, so eventually it won't matter anyway? My varchar keys won't have any meaning, except for the unique system ID part. But I may want to obscure that somehow. Also, I plan to efficiently use all the bits of each character. I don't, for example, plan to code the integer 123 as the character string "123". So I don't think varchars will require more space than integers.

  Read the article

• Suggestion on Database structure for relational data

  - by miccet

  Hi there. I've been wrestling with this problem for quite a while now and the automatic mails with 'Slow Query' warnings are still popping in. Basically, I have Blogs with a corresponding table as well as a table that keeps track of how many times each Blog has been viewed. This last table has a huge amount of records since this page is relatively high traffic and it logs every hit as an individual row. I have tried with indexes on the fields that are included in the WHERE clause, but it doesn't seem to help. I have also tried to clean the table each week by removing old ( 1.weeks) records. SO, I'm asking you guys, how would you solve this? The query that I know is causing the slowness is generated by Rails and looks like this: SELECT count(*) AS count_all FROM blog_views WHERE (created_at >= '2010-01-01 00:00:01' AND blog_id = 1); The tables have the following structures: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS 'blogs' ( 'id' int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, 'name' varchar(255) default NULL, 'perma_name' varchar(255) default NULL, 'author_id' int(11) default NULL, 'created_at' datetime default NULL, 'updated_at' datetime default NULL, 'blog_picture_id' int(11) default NULL, 'blog_picture2_id' int(11) default NULL, 'page_id' int(11) default NULL, 'blog_picture3_id' int(11) default NULL, 'active' tinyint(1) default '1', PRIMARY KEY ('id'), KEY 'index_blogs_on_author_id' ('author_id') ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ; And CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS 'blog_views' ( 'id' int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, 'blog_id' int(11) default NULL, 'ip' varchar(255) default NULL, 'created_at' datetime default NULL, 'updated_at' datetime default NULL, PRIMARY KEY ('id'), KEY 'index_blog_views_on_blog_id' ('blog_id'), KEY 'created_at' ('created_at') ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=1 ;

  Read the article

• EF in a UserControl can't see the app.config?

  - by Sven

  I just created a user control. This control also makes use of my static Entity Framework class to load two comboboxes. All is well and runs without a problem. Design and runtime are working. Then when I stop the application all the forms that contain my UserControl don't work any more in design time. I just see two errors: Error1: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. Error 2: The variable ccArtikelVelden is either undeclared or was never assigned. (ccArtikelVelde is my UserControl) Runtime everything is still working My static EF Repositoy class: public class BSManagerData { private static BSManagerEntities _entities; public static BSManagerEntities Entities { get { if (_entities == null) _entities = new BSManagerEntities(); return _entities; } set { _entities = value; } } } Some logic happening in my UserControl to load the data in the comboboxes: private void LaadCbx() { cbxCategorie.DataSource = (from c in BSManagerData.Entities.Categories select c).ToList(); cbxCategorie.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxCategorie.ValueMember = "Id"; } private void cbxCategorie_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { cbxFabrikant.DataSource = from f in BSManagerData.Entities.Fabrikants where f.Categorie.Id == ((Categorie)cbxCategorie.SelectedItem).Id select f; cbxFabrikant.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxFabrikant.ValueMember = "Id"; } The only way to make my forms work again, design time, is to comment out the EF part in the UserControl (see above) and rebuild. It's very strange, everything is in the same assembly, same namespace (for the sake of simplicity). Anyone an idea?

  Read the article

• DOM manipulation

  - by bluedaniel

  Hello everyone, Im trying to use the DOM in PHP to do a pretty specific job and Ive got no luck so far, the objective is to take a string of HTML from a Wordpress blog post (from the DB, this is a wordpress plugin). And then out of that HTML replace <div id="do_not_edit">old content</div>" with <div id="do_not_edit">new content</div>" in its place. Saving anything above and below that div in its structure. Then save the HTML back into the DB, should be simple really, I have read that a regex wouldnt be the right way to go here so Ive turned to the DOM instead. The problem is I just cant get it to work, cant extract the div or anything. Help me!! UPDATE The HTML coming out of the wordpress table looks like: Congratulations on finding us here on the world wide web, we are on a mission to create a website that will show off your culinary skills better than any other website does. <div id="do_not_edit">blah blah</div> We want this website to be fun and easy to use, we strive for simple elegance and incredible functionality.We aim to provide a 'complete package'. By this we want to create a website where people can meet, share ideas and help each other out. After several different (incorrect) workings all Ive got below is: $content = ($wpdb->get_var( "SELECT `post_content` FROM $wpdb->posts WHERE ID = {$article[post_id]}" )); $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->validateOnParse = true; $doc->loadHTMLFile($content); $element = $doc->getElementById('do_not_edit'); echo $element;

  Read the article

• Replacing tags inside the parent tag using DOM PHP

  - by user585303

  Here is what I got: <div id="list"> <ol> <li>Ordered list 1</li> <li>Ordered list 2</li> <ul><li>Unordered list inside ol ul</li></ul> <ol><li>Ordered list inside ol ol</li></ol> <ol> <ul> <li>Unordered list</li> <ol><li>Ordered list inside ul</li></ol> <ul> <ol> <li>Ordered list 1</li> <ol><li>Ordered list inside ol ol</li></ol> <ol> </div> I need somehow replace LI tags only inside div id="list" - OL tags I need so that it replaces only LI tags only within the first OL tags and not UL or the once inside OL - OL tags I tried using preg_replace_callback but it only replaces all LI tags inside id="list" and from what i figured it will be over my head to limit replacement only with first ol tags and not the rest, so I been suggested to try out PHP DOM since it should be as easy as div id="list" - OL I would appreciate if someone got me started with the code, maybe with something as replacing all LI tags with in the first OL tag within the whole content.

  Read the article

• Why Backbone.js isn't binding my event

  - by Saif Bechan

  I have a router like this, as main entry point: window.AppRouter = Backbone.Router.extend({ routes: { '': 'login' }, login: function(){ userLoginView = new UserLoginView(); } }); var appRouter = new AppRouter; Backbone.history.start({pushState: true}); I have a model/collection/view like this: window.User = Backbone.Model.extend({}); window.Users = Backbone.Collection.extend({ model: User }); window.UserLoginView = Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click #login-button': 'loginAction' }, initialize: function(){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'loginAction'); }, loginAction: function(){ var uid = $("#login-username").val(); var pwd = $("#login-password").val(); var user = new User({uid:uid, pwd:pwd}); } }); And body of my HTML looks like this: <form action="#" method="POST" id="login-form"> <p> <label for="login-username">username</label> <input type="text" id="login-username" autofocus /> </p> <p> <label for="login-password">password</label> <input type="password" id="login-password" /> </p> <a id="login-button" href="#">Inloggen</a> </form> Note: The HTML comes from Node.js using express.js, should I maybe wait for a document ready event somewhere? Edit: I have tried this, create the view when ready, did not solve the problem. $(function(){ userLoginView = new UserLoginView(); });

  Read the article

• [jQuery] What would be the best way to perform a basic CRUD using AJAX

  - by rasouza

  I'm having trouble to make a simple CRUD in my site. I have a table of registries <table> <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a **href="<?php echo $this->baseUrl(); ?>/history/delete/id/<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>"** class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> </table> which I would like to perform a simple delete in these rows using AJAX (preferenciably with jQuery). The question is: do I have to create a function in JS and add onmouseclick event in the HTML? is there a more consistent way for doing this, like adding $('.delete').click() directly in the js file? If so, how do I pass the row ID for the ajax function? What I really want is to know how to pass the row ID to $.ajax() jQuery function through a clean! way

  Read the article

• NSApp Sheets question in cocoa

  - by califguy

  Hi, Here's what I am trying to do. I need to prompt the user for a password prompt and until he enters the password and hits, say the Enter button on the sheet, I want to prevent the code being parsed in the background. Here's the code to run the sheet and when the user enters the password and hits Enter, endSpeedSheet is run. I am calling all of this from my Main() function. What I am noticing is that the when the main function runs, the sheet shows up, the user is prompted for a password. But in the background, I already see " Code gets here" has been run. This means the code has already run in the background. What I need is the code to wait at the password prompt and then use this password after the Sheet has been dismissed. Any idea's on what I am missing here ? - (IBAction) showSpeedSheet:(id)sender { [NSApp beginSheet:speedSheet modalForWindow:(NSWindow *)window modalDelegate:nil didEndSelector:nil contextInfo:nil]; } -(IBAction)endSpeedSheet:(id)sender { joinPassword = [joinPasswordLabel stringValue]; [NSApp endSheet:speedSheet]; [speedSheet orderOut:sender]; } -(IBAction)main:(id)sender { [self showSpeedSheet:(id)sender]; // More Code here NSLog(@" Code gets here"); }

  Read the article

• Problem inserting Pygames on a wxPython panel using Boa Constructor

  - by Kohwalter

  Hello, im new in Python so im hoping to to get some help to figure out what is going wrong. Im trying to run a Pygames from within wxPython panel (made on Boa Constructor). To do that i followed the instructions on the http://wiki.wxpython.org/IntegratingPyGame but still it isn't working. Here is the Panel code that was used to make the integration: class PG_panel(wx.Panel): def __init__(self, ID, name, parent, mypos, mysize): # pygame is imported in this class # make it globally available global pygame #self.Fit() wx.Panel.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=(16, 96), size=mysize) # pygame uses SDL, set the environment variables os.environ['SDL_WINDOWID'] = str(self.GetHandle()) os.environ['SDL_VIDEODRIVER'] = 'windib' # do the pygame stuff after setting the environment variables import pygame pygame.display.init() # create the pygame window/screen screen = pygame.display.set_mode(464, 464) #(424,450) # start the thread instance self.thread = PG_thread(screen) self.thread.start() def __del__(self): self.thread.stop() And im trying to use that panel on an interface from Boa Constructor, here is the code: class frmMain(wx.Frame): def _init_ctrls(self, prnt): # generated method, don't edit wx.Frame.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAIN, name='frmMain', parent=prnt, pos=wx.Point(660, 239), size=wx.Size(815, 661), style=wx.DEFAULT_FRAME_STYLE, title='Grupo 1 - Jogo de Damas') self._init_utils() self.SetClientSize(wx.Size(799, 623)) self.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(225, 225, 225)) self.SetMinSize(wx.Size(784, 650)) self.Center(wx.BOTH) self.SetMenuBar(self.menuBar1) #here begins my code mysize = (464, 464) mypos = (16, 96) self.panelTabuleiro = PG_panel(wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, 'panelTabuleiro', self, mypos, mysize) The original that was auto-made by the Boa Constructor is the following: self.panelTabuleiro = wx.Panel(id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=wx.Point(16, 96), size=wx.Size(464, 464), style=wx.TAB_TRAVERSAL) self.panelTabuleiro.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(232, 249, 240)) self.panelTabuleiro.SetThemeEnabled(True) self.panelTabuleiro.SetHelpText('Tabuleiro') The error that it gives is: Type error: in method 'new_Panel', expected argument 1 of type 'wxWindow*1 Exception AttributeError: "'PG_panel' object has no attribute 'thread' in ignored Any thoughts ? I appreciate any help. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

  - by Jason Evans

  I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

  Read the article

• Highlighting a piechart slice from an HTML element (mouseover)

  - by nickhar

  I have a series of HTML table cells with data - an example of which is: <tr id="rrow1"> <td> <a href="/electricity" class="category">Electricity</a> </td> <td> 901.471 </td> </tr> <tr id="rrow2">... <tr id="rrow3">... etc In this case, each <tr> (or hypathetically for the wider community a div/span/tr/td) is assigned a sequential id based on $rrow++; in a while loop (in PHP). I also have a Piechart using the highcharts library, where i'd like to highlight the slice (sliced: true) based upon onmouseover of particular div/span/tr/td element - in this case #rrow1 as above, but multiple/iterative elements as required and (sliced: false) onmouseout... As a simple example, I've tried accessing various derivatives of the following, but failed: $('#rrow1').mouseover(function() { chart.series[0].graph.attr('sliced', true); }); $('#rrow1').mouseout(function() { chart.series[0].graph.attr('sliced', false); }); The nearest I've found is this but bastardised at most and without success: plotOptions: { series: { mouseOver: function() { if( $('#rrow1').mouseover ) series.x = sliced: true; }, mouseOut: function() { if( $('#rrow1').mouseout ) series.x = sliced: false; } } } These are far from approaching correct and despite searching I can't find a valid/helpful example to work from or draw direction. You can view the pie chart in question on jsfiddle here.

  Read the article

• DropDown Box + Update Panel

  - by bExplosion

  Hey I'm having an issue updating a dropdown box inside of an update panel. Works perfectly if the page posts back, but I'd prefer seemless loading: Here my form code: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" EnablePartialRendering="true" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="ajaxClassifications" UpdateMode="Conditional" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <td style="font-size: small; color: #003853; width: 50%;"> <asp:DropDownList AutoPostBack="true" ID="ddlClassifications" runat="server" Width="99%" Style="font-size: medium" OnSelectedIndexChanged="ddlClassifications_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> <td style="font-size: small; color: #003853; width: 50%;"> <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlSubClassifications" runat="server" Width="99%" Style="font-size: medium"> </asp:DropDownList> </td> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="ddlClassifications" EventName="SelectedIndexChanged" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> Heres the code in my code behind: protected void ddlClassifications_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { ddlSubClassifications.Items.Clear(); getSubClassifications(int.Parse(ddlClassifications.SelectedValue)); } Is there something I am missing here? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Determining the chances of an event occurring when it hasn't occurred yet

  - by sanity

  A user visits my website at time t, and they may or may not click on a particular link I care about, if they do I record the fact that they clicked the link, and also the duration since t that they clicked it, call this d. I need an algorithm that allows me to create a class like this: class ClickProbabilityEstimate { public void reportImpression(long id); public void reportClick(long id); public double estimateClickProbability(long id); } Every impression gets a unique id, and this is used when reporting a click to indicate which impression the click belongs to. I need an algorithm that will return a probability, based on how much time has past since an impression was reported, that the impression will receive a click, based on how long previous clicks required. Clearly one would expect that this probability will decrease over time if there is still no click. If necessary, we can set an upper-bound, beyond which we consider the click probability to be 0 (eg. if its been an hour since the impression occurred, we can be pretty sure there won't be a click). The algorithm should be both space and time efficient, and hopefully make as few assumptions as possible, while being elegant. Ease of implementation would also be nice. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Set DetailsView as selected row of GridView

  - by Nix

  I am afraid this is a brain fart question. But I have searched around and have not been able to find the answer. I am creating a GridView/DetailsView page. I have a grid that displays a bunch of rows, when a row is selected it uses a DetailsView to allow for Insert/Update. My question is what is the best way to link these? I do not want to reach out to the web service again, all the data i need is in the selected grid view row. I basically have 2 separate data sources that share the same "DataObjectTypeName", the first data source retrieves the data, and the other to do the CRUD. What is the best way to transfer the Selected Grid View row to the Details View? Am I going to have to manualy handle the Insert/Update events and call the data source myself? <asp:GridView ID="gvDetails" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ID, Code" DataSourceID="odsSearchData" > <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowA" HeaderText="A" SortExpression="RowA" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowB" HeaderText="B" SortExpression="RowB" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowC" HeaderText="C" SortExpression="RowC" /> ....Code... <asp:DetailsView ID="dvDetails" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ID, Code" DataSourceID="odsCRUD" GridLines="None" DefaultMode="Edit" AutoGenerateRows="false" Visible="false" Width="100%"> <Fields> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowA" HeaderText="A" SortExpression="RowA" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowB" HeaderText="B" SortExpression="RowB" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowC" HeaderText="C" SortExpression="RowC" /> ...

  Read the article

• Advanced XPath query

  - by alex

  Hello, I have an XML file that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <PrivateSchool> <Teacher id="teacher1"> <Name> teacher1Name </Name> </Teacher> <Teacher id="teacher2"> <Name> teacher2Name </Name> </Teacher> <Student id="student1"> <Name> student1Name </Name> </Student> <Student id="student2"> <Name> student2Name </Name> </Student> <Lesson student="student1" teacher="teacher1" /> <Lesson student="student2" teacher="teacher2" /> <Lesson student="student3" teacher="teacher3" /> <Lesson student="student1" teacher="teacher2" /> <Lesson student="student3" teacher="teacher3" /> <Lesson student="student1" teacher="teacher1" /> <Lesson student="student2" teacher="teacher4" /> <Lesson student="student1" teacher="teacher1" /> </PrivateSchool> There's also a DTD associated with this XML, but I assume it's not much relevant to my question. Let's assume all needed teachers and students are well defined. What is the XPath query that returns the teachers' NAMES, that have at least one student that took more than 10 lessons with them? I was looking at many XPath sites/examples. Nothing seemed advanced enough for this kind of question... Thank you

  Read the article

• Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

  - by davetron5000

  Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

  Read the article

• How to join multiple tables using LINQ-to-SQL?

  - by user603245

  Hi! I'm quite new to linq, so please bear with me. I'm working on a asp.net webpage and I want to add a "search function" (textbox where user inputs name or surname or both or just parts of it and gets back all related information). I have two tables ("Person" and "Application") and I want to display some columns from Person (name and surname) and some from Application (score, position,...). I know how I could do it using sql, but I want to learn more about linq and thus I want to do it using linq. For now I got two main ideas: 1.) var person = dataContext.GetTable<Person>(); var application = dataContext.GetTable<Application>(); var p1 = from p in Person where(p.Name.Contains(tokens[0]) || p.Surname.Contains(tokens[1])) select new {Id = p.Id, Name = p.Name, Surname = p.Surname}; //or maybe without this line //I don't know how to do the following properly var result = from a in Application where a.FK_Application.Equals(index) //just to get the "right" type of application //this is not right, but I don't know how to do it better join p1 on p1.Id == a.FK_Person 2.) The other idea is just to go through "Application" and instead of "join p1 ..." to use var result = from a in Application where a.FK_Application.Equals(index) //just to get the "right" type of application join p from Person on p.Id == a.FK_Person where p.Name.Contains(tokens[0]) || p.Surname.Contains(tokens[1]) I think that first idea is better for queries without the first "where" condition, which I also intended to use. Regardless of what is better (faster), I still don't know how to do it using linq. Also in the end I wanted to display / select just some parts (columns) of the result (joined tables + filtering conditions). I really want to know how to do such things using linq as I'll be dealing also with some similar problems with local data, where I can use only linq. Could somebody please explain me how to do it, I spent days trying to figure it out and searching on the internet for answers. Thank you for your time.

  Read the article

• In Sharepoint, how do I update the name of a folder in a document library using the web service API?

  - by Jess

  I'm using the UpdateListItems method of the Lists web service, and I can update an item in just about any kind of list, and folders in non-document library lists, but I can't seem to update the name of a folder in a document library. I must use the web services API, as sharepoint is not local. If my update batch looks like this: <Batch OnError="Continue" PreCalc="TRUE" ListVersion="0" ViewName=""> <Method ID="1" Cmd="Update"> <Field Name="ID">2</Field> <Field Name="Title">MyUpdatedFolderName</Field> <Field Name="FileLeafRef">MyUpdatedFolderName</Field> </Method> </Batch> I get no exception but the name is unchanged. If my update batch looks like this: <Batch OnError="Continue" PreCalc="TRUE" ListVersion="0" ViewName=""> <Method ID="1" Cmd="Update"> <Field Name="ID">2</Field> <Field Name="Title">MyUpdatedFolderName</Field> <Field Name="BaseName">MyUpdatedFolderName</Field> </Method> </Batch> I get an error result that the list item could not be found. I know the list item is there. Anyone have any ideas?

  Read the article

• Storing data in a MySQL database using MySQL & PHP

  - by comma

  I'm new to PHP and MySQL and I'm trying to store a users entered data from the following fields $skill, $experience, $years which a user can also add additional fields of $skill, $experience, $years if needed so in instead of 1 of each field there might be multiples of each field. I was wondering how can I store the fields in my MySQL database using PHP and MySQL? I have the following script but I know its wrong. can some one help me fix the script listed below? Here is the PHP and MySQL code. $skill = serialize($_POST['skill']); $experience = serialize($_POST['experience']); $years = serialize($_POST['years']); for (($s = 0; $s < count($skill); $s++) && ($x = 0; $x < count($experience); $x++) && ($g = 0; $g < count($years); $g++)){ $mysqli = mysqli_connect("localhost", "root", "", "sitename"); $query1 = "INSERT INTO learned_skills (skill, experience, years) VALUES ('" . $skill[$s] . "', '" . $experience[$x] . "', '" . $years[$g] . "')"; if (!mysqli_query($mysqli, $query1)) { print mysqli_error($mysqli); return; } } Here is my MySQL table. CREATE TABLE learned_skills ( id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, skill TEXT NOT NULL, experience TEXT NOT NULL, years INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ); CREATE TABLE u_skills ( id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, skill_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, users_id INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) );

  Read the article

• Adding google font api to select menu

  - by Vivek Dragon

  I am making a select menu with all the fonts in google fonts API. I have referred this https://developers.google.com/webfonts/docs/developer_api link to learn more about API but till now i was not able to make it. I am adding this Fiddle which i made for this. HTML <select id="styleFont"> <option value="0">Myraid Pro</option> <option value="1">Sans ref</option> <option value="2">Times New Roman</option> <option value="3"> Arial</option> </select> <br> <textarea id="custom_text"></textarea> CSS #custom_text{ resize: none;}? Script $("#styleFont").change(function () { var id =$('#styleFont option' + ':selected').text(); $("#custom_text").css('font-family',id); });? How can i link those fonts to my select box in the fiddle?

  Read the article

• Html image link, not working

  - by Anders Metnik

  Hey I'm doing some testing while learning js + html5 and other web/mobile frameworks. I have a problem with one of my picture links, which I also need to change the picture dynamically and the target(hopefully). But it won't work. HTML: <div data-role="content" id="firstPageContent"> <p>I'm first in the source order so I'm shown as the page.</p> <p>View internal page called <a href="#second">second</a></p> <a href = "#second" id="mapLink" name="mapLink"><img id="mapLinkImage" alt="a map which links to the mapPage" src="images/main_header.png"/></a> <Button id="loadButton" onClick="load()"/> </div><!-- /content --> js: importScripts(dataManager.js); var mapLink=second; function load(){ alert('called'); document.getElementById('mapLinkImage').src="images/store.map.png"; document.getElementById('mapLink').href = "http://google.com"; } problem: It ain't showing the image as a link, just as a plain image. i think this will work now.

  Read the article

• Apply [ThreadStatic] attribute to a method in external assembly

  - by Sen Jacob

  Can I use an external assembly's static method like [ThreadStatic] method? Here is my situation. The assembly class (which I do not have access to its source) has this structure public class RegistrationManager() { private RegistrationManager() {} public static void RegisterConfiguration(int ID) {} public static object DoWork() {} public static void UnregisterConfiguration(int ID) {} } Once registered, I cannot call the DoWork() with a different ID without unregistering the previously registered one. Actually I want to call the DoWork() method with different IDs simultaneously with multi-threading. If the RegisterConfiguration(int ID) method was [ThreadStatic], I could have call it in different threads without problems with calls, right? So, can I apply the [ThreadStatic] attribute to this method or is there any other way I can call the two static methods same time without waiting for other thread to unregister it? If I check it like the following, it should work. for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) { new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => Checker(i))).Start(); } public string Checker(int i) { public static void RegisterConfiguration(i); // Now i cannot register second time public static object DoWork(i); Thread.Sleep(5000); // DoWork() may take a little while to complete before unregistered public static void UnregisterConfiguration(i); }

  Read the article

• Run code before class instanciation in ActionScript 3

  - by soow.fr

  I need to run code in a class declaration before its instanciation. This would be especially useful to automatically register classes in a factory. See: // Main.as public class Main extends Sprite { public function Main() : void { var o : Object = Factory.make(42); } } // Factory.as public class Factory { private static var _factory : Array = new Array(); public static function registerClass(id : uint, c : Class) : void { _factory[id] = function () : Object { return new c(); }; } public static function make(id : uint) : Object { return _factory[id](); } } // Foo.as public class Foo { // Run this code before instanciating Foo! Factory.registerClass(42, Foo); } AFAIK, the JIT machine for the ActionScript language won't let me do that since no reference to Foo is made in the Main method. The Foo class being generated, I can't (and don't want to) register the classes in Main: I'd like to register all the exported classes in a specific package (or library). Ideally, this would be done through package introspection, which doesn't exist in ActionScript 3. Do you know any fix (or other solution) to my design issue?

  Read the article

• Ruby on Rails: custom instance creation failing at redirect

  - by Jack

  I am at an absolute loss as to what I am doing wrong with the following code. I am trying to implement a messaging system within my application, but want it to be handle different types of messages. In this case, I want to create a "request" message of ':message_type = 1'. Instead of using forms as I usually have, I want to make this instance the moment the link is clicked. Here is how I have it set up in the show erb file for "user": <%=link_to "Send friend request", :action=>"request", :controller => "messages", :id => @user.id %> and in the controller: def request @message = Message.new(:sender_id => current_user.id,:user_id => params[:id],:message_type => 1) if @message.save flash[:notice] = 'Message was successfully created.' redirect_to message_path(@message) else redirect_to message_path(@message) end end This results in the following error message: undefined method `rewrite' for nil:NilClass with the trace looking like c:/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.5/lib/active_support/whiny_nil.rb:52:in `method_missing' c:/ruby/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.5/lib/action_controller/base.rb:634:in `url_for' (eval):16:in `message_path' app/controllers/messages_controller.rb:11:in `request' I have used map.resources :messages in the routes.rb file, and done the appropriate :has_many and :belongs_to associations in the models of user and message.

  Read the article

• How to make last div stretch to fill screen?

  - by Conor

  I have a site I'm trying to build and I've hit one little snag thats driving me insane. Essentially on pages without enough content to fill the viewport, I want to have the last div (my footer, fill the rest of the viewport, but it's currently being cut off. My html looks like this: <body> <div id="header"> </div> <div id="subNav"> </div> <div id="content"> </div> <div id="footer"> </div> </body> I tried using html, body, footer { height:100%; } but that creates much more space then needed, essentially a full screen length of blank content in the footer. How do I get my footer just to fill teh rest of the screen without adding a scroll bar? Thanks in advance, One Frustrated Coder.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 432 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443  | Next Page >