Search Results

Search found 66534 results on 2662 pages for 'document set'.

Page 437/2662 | < Previous Page | 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444  | Next Page >

• Javascript variables are not working

  - by linkcool

  Hi, my problem is that my variables are not working in javascript. all variables need names without some character at the beginning, this is the stupid thing...Anyways, im trying to make a funtion that makes "select all checkboxes". It is not working so i looked at the page source/info and found out that the variables were not changing. this is my input: echo "<input onclick='checkAll(1);' type='checkbox' name='master'/><br/>"; My function: function checkAll(i) { for(var i=1; i < <?php echo $num; ?>; i++) { if(document.demo.master[i].checked == true) { document.demo.message[i].checked = true; } else { document.demo.message[i].checked = false; } } } so yes that's it. I can tell you that i also tried without the <i> in: checkAll("i") Thanks for the help.

  Read the article

• Can AutoMapper create a map for an interface and then map with a derived type?

  - by TheCloudlessSky

  I have an interface IFoo: public interface IFoo { int Id { get; set; } } And then a concrete implementation: public class Bar : IFoo { public int Id { get; set; } public string A { get; set; } } public class Baz : IFoo { public int Id { get; set; } public string B { get; set; } } I'd like to be able to map all IFoo but specifying their derived type instead: Mapper.CreateMap<int, IFoo>().AfterMap((id, foo) => foo.Id = id); And then map (without explicitly creating maps for Bar and Baz): var bar = Mapper.Map<int, Bar>(123); // bar.Id == 123 var baz = Mapper.Map<int, Baz>(456); // baz.Id == 456 But this doesn't work in 1.1. I know I could specify all Bar and Baz but if there are 20 of these, I'd like to not have to manage them and rather just have what I did above for creating the map. Is this possible?

  Read the article

• SSIS - user variable used in derived column transform is not available - in some cases

  - by soo

  Unfortunately I don't have a repro for my issue, but I thought I would try to describe it in case it sounds familiar to someone... I am using SSIS 2005, SP2. My package has a package-scope user variable - let's call it user_var first step in the control flow is an Execute SQL task which runs a stored procedure. All that SP does is insert a record in a SQL table (with an identity column) and then go back and get the max ID value. The Execute SQL task saves this output into user_var the control flow then has a Data Flow Task - it goes and gets some source data, has a derived column which sets a column called run_id to user_var - and saves the data to a SQL destination In most cases (this template is used for many packages, running every day) this all works great. All of the destination records created get set with a correct run_id. However, in some cases, there is a set of the destination data that does not get run_id equal to user_var, but instead gets a value of 0 (0 is the default value for user_var). I have 2 instances where this has happened, but I can't make it happen. In both cases, it was just less that 10,000 records that have run_id = 0. Since SSIS writes data out in 10,000 record blocks, this really makes me think that, for the first set of data written out, user_var was not yet set. Then, after that first block, for the rest of the data, run_id is set to a correct value. But control passed on to my data flow from the Execute SQL task - it would have seemed reasonable to me that it wouldn't go on until the SP has completed and user_var is set. Maybe it just runs the SP, but doesn't wait for it to complete? In both cases where this has happened there seemed to be a few packages hitting the table to get a new user_var at about the same time. And in both cases lots of data was written (40 million rows, 60 million rows) - my thinking is that that means the writes were happening for a while. Sorry to be both long-winded AND vague. A winning combination! Does this sound familiar to anyone? Thanks.

  Read the article

• xml filtering with python

  - by saminny

  Hi, I have a following xml document: <node1> <node2 a1="x1"> ... </node2> <node2 a1="x2"> ... </node2> <node2 a1="x1"> ... </node2> </node1> I want to filter out node2 when a1 = x2. The user provides the xpath and attribute values that need to tested and filtered out. I looked at some solutions in python like BeautifulSoup but they are too complicated and dont preserve the case of text. I want to keep the document same as before with some stuff filtered out. Can you recommend a simple and succinct solution? This should not be too complicated from the looks of it. The actual xml document is not as simple as above but idea is the same.

  Read the article

• Clarification of a some code

  - by Legend

  I have come across a website that appears to use Ajax but does not include any js file except one file called ajax.js which has the following: function run(c, f, b, a, d) { var e = null; if (b && f) { document.getElementById(b).innerHTML = f } if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { e = new XMLHttpRequest() } else { if (window.ActiveXObject) { e = new ActiveXObject(Microsoft.XMLHTTP) } } e.onreadystatechange = function () { if (e.readyState == 4) { if (e.status == 200 || e.statusText == "OK") { if (b) { document.getElementById(b).innerHTML = e.responseText } if (a) { setTimeout(a, 0) } } else { console.log("AJAX Error: " + e.status + " | " + e.statusText); if (b && d != 1) { document.getElementById(b).innerHTML = "AJAX Error. Please try refreshing." } } } }; e.open("GET", c, true); e.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); e.send(null) } Like you might have guessed, the way it issues queries inside the page with queries like this: run('page.php',loadingText,'ajax-test', 'LoadSamples()'); I must admit that this is the first time I've seen a page from which I could not figure how things are being done. I have a few questions: Is this Server-Side Ajax or something similar? If not, can someone clarify what exactly is this? Why does one use this? Is it for hiding the design details? (which are otherwise revealed in plain text by javascript) How difficult would it be to convert my existing application into this design pattern? (maybe a subjective question but any short suggestion will do) Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Understanding memory leak in Android app.

  - by sat

  After going through few articles about performance, Not able to get this statement exactly. "When a Drawable is attached to a view, the view is set as a callback on the drawable" Soln: "Setting the stored drawables’ callbacks to null when the activity is destroyed." What does that mean, e.g. In my app , I initialize an imageButton in onCreate() like this, imgButton= (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.imagebtn); At later stage, I get an image from an url, get the stream and convert that to drawable, and set image btn like this, imgButton.setImageDrawable(drawable); According to the above statement, when I am exiting my app, say in onDestroy() I have to set stored drawables’ callbacks to null, not able to understand this part ! In this simple case what I have to set as null ? I am using Android 2.2 Froyo, whether this technique is required, or not necessary.

  Read the article

• JAVA : How to get the positions of all matches in a String?

  - by user692704

  I have a text document and a query (the query could be more than one word). I want to find the position of all occurrences of the query in the document. I thought of the documentText.indexOf(query) and using regular expression but I could not make it work. I end up with the following method: First, I have create a dataType called QueryOccurrence public class QueryOccurrence implements Serializable{ public QueryOccurrence(){} private int start; private int end; public QueryOccurrence(int nameStart,int nameEnd,String nameText){ start=nameStart; end=nameEnd; } public int getStart(){ return start; } public int getEnd(){ return end; } public void SetStart(int i){ start=i; } public void SetEnd(int i){ end=i; } } Then, I have used this datatype in the following method: public static List<QueryOccurrence>FindQueryPositions(String documentText, String query){ // Normalize do the following: lower case, trim, and remove punctuation String normalizedQuery = Normalize.Normalize(query); String normalizedDocument = Normalize.Normalize(documentText); String[] documentWords = normalizedDocument.split(" ");; String[] queryArray = normalizedQuery.split(" "); List<QueryOccurrence> foundQueries = new ArrayList(); QueryOccurrence foundQuery = new QueryOccurrence(); int index = 0; for (String word : documentWords) { if (word.equals(queryArray[0])){ foundQuery.SetStart(index); } if (word.equals(queryArray[queryArray.length-1])){ foundQuery.SetEnd(index); if((foundQuery.End()-foundQuery.Start())+1==queryArray.length){ //add the found query to the list foundQueries.add(foundQuery); //flush the foundQuery variable to use it again foundQuery= new QueryOccurrence(); } } index++; } return foundQueries; } This method return a list of all occurrence of the query in the document each one with its position. Could you suggest any easer and faster way to accomplish this task. Thanks

  Read the article

• Facebook API - Detect if session is active OR NOT active

  - by Tom Doe

  I'm sure I'm simply overlooking something in the Facebook API docs. Basically, after I've loaded the FB Graph, I need to know if the session is active... I cannot simply assume they're logged out and simply re-render if they're logged in once the 'auth.statusChange' event is triggered. I need to know right off the bat. Below is the code that I've used. Most importantly the FB.getLoginStatus/getAuthResponse/getAccessToken don't work like I'd expect; essentially where it indicates, when invoked, whether they're logged in or out. (function(d) { // Create fb-root var fb_root = document.createElement('div'); fb_root.id = "fb-root"; document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild( fb_root ); // Load FB Async var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk', ref = d.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; ref.parentNode.insertBefore(js, ref); // App config-data var config = { appId : XXXX, cookie: true, status: true, frictionlessRequests: true }; window.fbAsyncInit = function() { // This won't work. // I can't assume they're logged out and rely on this to tell me they're logged in. FB.Event.subscribe('auth.statusChange', function(response) {}); // Init FB.init(config); // These do not inidicate if the user is logged out :( FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { }); FB.getAuthResponse(function(response) { }); FB.getAccessToken(function(response) { }); }; }(document)); Any help is much appreciated. :)

  Read the article

• EF4 (CPT5) ForeignKeyAttribute in base class - Assert Failure entityType != null

  - by Anthony Johnston

  Getting an error when trying to set a ForeignKeyAttribute in a base class class User{} abstract class FruitBase{ [ForeignKey("CreateById")] public User CreateBy{ get; set; } public int CreateById{ get; set; } } class Banana{} class DataContext : DbContext{ DbSet<Banana> Bananas{ get; set; } } If I move the FruitBase code into the banana, all is well, but I don't want to, as there will be many many fruit and I want to remain relatively DRY if I can Is this a know issue that will be fixed by March? Does anyone know a work around?

  Read the article

• Is it a good design to return value by parameter?

  - by aztack

  bool is_something_ok(int param,SomeStruct* p) { bool is_ok = false; // check if is_ok if(is_ok) // set p to some valid value else // set p to NULL return is_ok; } this function return true and set p to a valid value if "something is ok" otherwise return false and set p to NULL Is that a good or bad design? personally, i feel uncomfortable when i use it. If there is no document and comment, i really don know how to use it. BTW:Is there some authoritative book/article about API design?

  Read the article

• Page does update with details from the database after i hit a button

  - by swathi

  I have a code and the way it should work is,when they click on NEW CUSTOMER,it takes them to test1.php where in they enter the details and they hit submit.it saves all the details in properly in the database and when i go back and hit REFRESH ,it should come up with the customer details which they had entered in previously. But what happens is, when i click on the REFRESH,it refreshes the same old page which is empty.I wanted to find out where am i missing the logic.Thanks in advance. The sample code would be <tr> <td class="tdvisitbig" colspan="5">THIS IS A TEST</td> </tr> <tr> <td class='tdvisitbig' colspan="5"><input type="button" onClick="openVisit('test1.php?id=<?=$key?>&name=<?=$name?>');return false;" value="NEW CUSTOMER" class="submit">&nbsp;<input type="button" value="REFRESH" name="add_xyz" class="submit" onClick="document.add.target='_self';document.add.action='test3.php?redirect=visit&section=test page';document.add.submit();"></td> </tr> <? $q = "SELECT address,customernum,status FROM customer WHERE name='$name' ORDER BY customernum"; $r = mysql_query( $q , $Link ); while( $rw = mysql_fetch_assoc( $r ) ) { extract( $rw ); ?> <tr> <? } ?>

  Read the article

• Send JSON date to WCF service

  - by user1394569

  I want to post json object to my WCF service My only problem is his date property. I get the date from an jquery datepicker and i want to get it in my service as c# datetime. My service: namespace Employee { [ServiceContract] public interface IService1 { [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Wrapped)] bool UpdateEmployee(Employee Employee); } } And this is Employee: [DataContract] public class Employee { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } [DataMember] public string Department { get; set; } [DataMember] public int Salary { get; set; } [DataMember] public DateTime Hired { get; set; } } All the other properties work fine. I just need to convert my date string to json date.

  Read the article

• Scala: recursive search avoiding cycles

  - by user1826663

  How can I write a recursive search that I avoid cycles. My class is this: class Component(var name: String, var number: Int, var subComponent: Set[Component]) Now I need a way to check whether a component is contained within its subcomponent or between subcomponent of its subcomponent and so on.Avoiding possible cycles caused by other Component. My method of recursive search must have the following signature, where subC is the Set [component] of comp. def content (comp: Component, subC: Set[Component]) : Boolean = { } Thanks for the help.

  Read the article

• Make a div content (googlemap) fullscreen

  - by lena2211

  Hi iam trying to make a button that will turn the googlemap div into fullscreen.. this is what i have untill now, but it is not working correctly .. problem is: the map will only half loaded the code is below, and a screenshot how can i repair this? where is the problem? thanks in advance http://img32.imageshack.us/img32/9365/halfload.gif <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=no" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function initialize() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(-34.397, 150.644); var myOptions = { zoom: 8, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); } function fs() { var elem = document.getElementById("map_canvas"); elem.style.position="absolute"; elem.style.width="100%"; elem.style.height="100%"; elem.style.top="0px"; document.body.style.overflow = "hidden"; } </script> </head> <body onload="initialize()"> <div id="map_canvas" style="width:400px; height:300px"></div> <a href="#" onclick ="fs()">makefullscreen</a> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• Is there such a thing as a MemberExpression that handles a many-to-many relationship?

  - by Jaxidian

  We're trying to make it easy to write strongly-typed code in all areas of our system, so rather than setting var sortColumn = "FirstName" we'd like to say sortOption = (p => p.FirstName). This works great if the sortOption is of type Expression<Func<Person, object>> (we actually use generics in our code but that doesn't matter). However, we run into problems for many-to-many relationships because this notation breaks down. Consider this simple code: internal class Business { public IQueryable<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } internal class Address { public State MyState { get; set; } } internal class State { public string Abbreviation { get; set; } public int StateID { get; set; } } Is it possible to have this sort of MemberExpression to identify the StateID column off of a business? Again, the purpose of using this is not to return a StateID object, it's to just identify that property off of that entity (for sorting, filtering, and other purposes). It SEEMS to me that there should be some way to do this, even if it's not quite as pretty as foo = business.Addresses.SomeExtension(a => a.State.StateID);. Is this really possible? If more background is needed, take a look at this old question of mine. We've since updated the code significantly, but this should give you the general detailed idea of the context behind this question.

  Read the article

• ThicknessAnimationUsingKeyFrames doesn't work the first time, but second and all subsequent times wo

  - by 110022530536665626169

  I have the following Storyboard: 'LayoutMargin' is a dependency property defined in the ancestor Window. This is the problem I'm having: The first time I run the animation it doesn't work - as if the LayoutMargin.Value isn't set. However, the second time I run the animation, and all subsequent times I run the animation, it work just fine. At first I suspected the LayoutMargin.Value was not set prior to the first animation, but it is set. Does anyone have any ideas about why this is happening?

  Read the article

• Codeigniter xss_clean dilemma

  - by Henson

  I know this question has been asked over and over again, but I still haven't found the perfect answer for my liking, so here it goes again... I've been reading lots and lots polarizing comments about CI's xss_filter. Basically majority says that it's bad. Can someone elaborate how it's bad, or at least give 1 most probable scenario where it can be exploited? I've looked at the security class in CI 2.1 and I think it's pretty good as it doesn't allow malicious strings like document.cookie, document.write, etc. If the site has basically non-html presentation, is it safe to use global xss_filter (or if it's REALLY affecting performance that much, use it on per form post basis) before inserting to database ? I've been reading about pros and cons about whether to escape on input/output with majority says that we should escape on output only. But then again, why allow strings like <a href="javascript:stealCookie()">Click Me</a> to be saved in the database at all? The one thing I don't like is javascript: and such will be converted to [removed]. Can I extend the CI's security core $_never_allowed_str arrays so that the never allowed strings return empty rather than [removed]. The best reasonable wrongdoing example of this I've read is if a user has password of javascript:123 it will be cleaned into [removed]123 which means string like this document.write123 will also pass as the user's password. Then again, what is the odds of that to happen and even if it happens, I can't think of any real harm that can do to the site. Thanks

  Read the article

• web service data type (contract)

  - by cyberguest

  hi, i have a general design question. we have a fairly big data model that represents an clinical object, the object itself has 200+ child attributes in the hierarchy. and we have a SetObject operation, and a GetObject operation. my question is, best practice wise, would it make sense to use that single data model in both operations or different data model for each? Because the Get operation will return much more details than what's needed for Set. an example of what i mean: the data model has say ProviderId, and ProviderName attributes, in the Get operation, both the ProviderId, and ProviderName would need to be returned. However, in the Set operation, only the ProviderId is needed, and ProviderName is ignored by the service since system has that information already. In this case, if the Get and Set operations use the same data model, the ProviderName is exposed even for Set operation, does that confuse the consuming developer?

  Read the article

• Log4j Logging to the Wrong Directory

  - by John

  I have a relatively complex log4j.xml configuration file with many appenders. Some machines the application runs on need a separate log directory, which is actually a mapped network drive. To get around this, we embed a system property as part of the filename in order to specify the directory. Here is an example: The "${user.dir}" part is set as a system property on each system, and is normally set to the root directory of the application. On some systems, this location is not the root of the application. The problem is that there is always one appender where this is not set, and the file appears not to write to the mapped drive. The rest of the appenders do write to the correct location per the system property. As a unit test, I set up our QA lab to hard-code the values for the appender above, and it worked: however, a different appender will then append to the wrong file. The mis-logged file is always the same for a given configuration: it is not a random file each time. My best educated guess is that there is a HashMap somewhere containing these appenders, and for some reason, the first one retrieved from the map does not have the property set. Our application does have custom system properties loading: the main() method loads a properties file and calls into System.setProperties(). My first instinct was to check the static initialization order, and to ensure the controller class with the main method does not call into log4j (directly or indirectly) before setting the properties just in case this was interfering with log4j's own initialization. Even removing all vestiges of log4j from the initialization logic, this error condition still occurs.

  Read the article

• Hibernate: delete many-to-many association

  - by Bar

  I have two tables with the many-to-many association. — DB fragment: loads Id Name sessions Id Date sessionsloads LoadId SessionId — Hibernate mapping fragments: /* loads.hbm.xml */ <set name="sessions" table="sessionsloads" inverse="true"> <key column="LoadId" /> <many-to-many column="SessionId" class="Session" /> </set> … /* sessions.hbm.xml */ <set name="loads" table="sessionsloads"> <key column="SessionId" /> <many-to-many column="LoadId" class="Load" /> </set> In order to remove one entry from the association table sessionsloads, I execute this code: Session session = sessionDao.getObject(sessionId); Load load = loadDao.getObject(loadId); load.getSessions().remove(session); loadDao.saveObject(load); But, after launching, this code change nothing. What's the right way to remove an association?

  Read the article

• Won't connect to the database

  - by user1657958

  I'm confused...I'm using the same code in a different document and in there it's not a problem to get a connection to the database. But in the new document it's just not working...(password, username, database name...all is checked and correct) :-/ <?php define ("DB_HOST", "db1234567.db.hello.com"); // set database host define ("DB_USER", "db1234567"); // set database user define ("DB_PASS","password123"); // set database password define ("DB_NAME","db1234567"); // set database name $link = mysql_connect(DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASS) or die("Couldn't make connection."); $db = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME, $link) or die("Couldn't select database"); ?> In the browser I get this: "Warning: mysql_connect() [function.mysql-connect]: Access denied for user 'db1234567'@'123.123.12.12 (using password: YES) in /homepages/12/1234567/test/test.php on line 8 Couldn't make connection." Would be cool if someone could help me :) I'm not seeing any error... Thx!

  Read the article

• remove contact's photo

  - by Varand Tin

  Hey guys, in order to remove contact's photo, which way is correct? 1) to update and set Photo.PHOTO to ""/"NULL" , or 2) to update and set Photo.MIMETYPE to ""/"NULL" or 3) to update and set Data.MIMETYPE to ""/"NULL" ? I wanted to mention also that I insert photos from my app by the following way: cr.insert(ContactsContract.Data.CONTENT_URI, photoValues); Please also tell me "" is better or null? (in updating case) Thanks a lot.

  Read the article

• not a proper naming convention but it's working fine, How and what is need of naming conventions if it works?

  - by Pravallika69

  I'm new to javascript programming. I have found below example while practicing javascript. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function changeTabIndex() { document.getElementById('1').tabIndex="3" document.getElementById('2').tabIndex="2" document.getElementById('3').tabIndex="1" } </script> </head> <body> <p><a id="1" href="http://www.w3schools.com">1</a></p> <p><a id="2" href="http://www.w3schools.com">2</a></p> <p><a id="3" href="http://www.w3schools.com">3</a></p> <input type="button" onclick="changeTabIndex()" value="Change TabIndex" /> </body> </html> What's my doubt is, naming conventions for id attribute must start with an alphabet followed by numbers and underscore. But in this example even though they used numbers as id's the code working fine.Then what is the need of following naming conventions. It seems to be simple but anyone please clarify it.

  Read the article

• SQL and multiple statements in stored procedure

  - by Sjemmie

  I'm working on SQL server 2005 and I have a very simple stored procedure: create PROCEDURE [dbo].[tblTabel_Insert] @ID int, @Code nvarchar(50) = null AS SET NOCOUNT ON; IF EXISTS (SELECT ID, code FROM tblTabel WHERE ID = @ID and code = @Code) UPDATE tblTabel SET ID = @ID,code = @Code WHERE ID = @ID ELSE BEGIN INSERT INTO tblTabel (ID,code) VALUES ( @ID ,@Code); END My question is: is it posible to have multiple queries in my stored procedure ? I want to add the lines UPDATE tblTabelB SET ID = @ID,code = @Code WHERE ID = @ID UPDATE tblTabelC SET ID = @ID,code = @Code WHERE ID = @ID in my if exists section. How do I change my stored procedure in the correct way ?

  Read the article

• Label field problem in the treenode Tag. (Struts2/Ajax)

  - by ryan

  I'm using struts as a framework for a web-app. The following code runs inside a loop where I access the database to retrieve values to be used as nodes for a tree. <s:set name="categoryValue" value= "%{'<%=rs.getString("category")%>'}"> </s:set> <sx:treenode id="child1" label ="%{#categoryValue}"/> The error I get is "/jsp/tree.jsp(249,65) equal symbol expected" However if i give <s:set name="categoryValue" value= "%{'Test'}"> the value Test is obtained. Can anyone tell me how to set the value of the 'label' with strings?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 433 434 435 436 437 438 439 440 441 442 443 444  | Next Page >