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  • Flash CS4 compiler Error 1120 when embedding pngs into class instance variables.

    - by theolagendijk
    I have a Flash CS4 (Flash 9 ActionScript 3.0) project that compiles and runs perfectly on my machine. However it is part of a big batch of fla's that I want to compile on another (faster) machine. When I copy the project (the fla and all actionscripts and assets files) to the faster machine, it's Flash CS4 compiler gives me compiler error 1120 "Access of undefined property ButtonPause_PauseNormal". The property "PauseNormal" is an embedded png. The PNG is available. No transcoder errors. Here's the ActionScript for class "ButtonPause"; package nl.platipus.NissanESM.buttons { import flash.display.*; import flash.events.*; public class ButtonPause extends Sprite { [Embed(source="../../../../player/pause.png")] private var PauseNormal:Class; [Embed(source="../../../../player/pause_mo.png")] private var PauseMouseOver:Class; private var stateNormal:Bitmap; private var stateMouseOver:Bitmap; public function ButtonPause() { stateNormal = new PauseNormal(); stateNormal.width = 29; stateNormal.height = 14; stateNormal.alpha = 1; addChild(stateNormal); stateMouseOver = new PauseMouseOver(); stateMouseOver.width = 29; stateMouseOver.height = 14; stateMouseOver.alpha = 0; addChild(stateMouseOver); width = 29; height = 14; addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OVER, handleMouseOver); addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, handleMouseOut ); } private function handleMouseOver(evt:MouseEvent):void { stateNormal.alpha = 0; stateMouseOver.alpha = 1; } private function handleMouseOut(evt:MouseEvent):void { stateNormal.alpha = 1; stateMouseOver.alpha = 0; } } } (Both machines run the exact same Flash CS4 Profesional Version 10.0.2 installation and both have the exact same publish settings and ActionScript 3.0 settings.) What's going on?

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  • Update a PDF to include an encrypted, hidden, unique identifier?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background The idea is this: Person provides contact information for online book purchase Book, as a PDF, is marked with a unique hash Person downloads book PDF passwords are annoying and extremely easy to circumvent. The ideal process would be something like: Generate hash based on contact information Store contact information and hash in database Acquire book lock Update an "include" file with hash text Generate book as PDF (using pdflatex) Apply hash to book Release book lock Send email with book download link Technologies The following technologies can be used (other programming languages are possible, but libraries will likely be limited to those supplied by the host): C, Java, PHP LaTeX files PDF files Linux Question What programming techniques (or open source software) should I investigate to: Embed a unique hash (or other mark) to a PDF Create a collusion-attack resistant mark Develop a non-fragile (e.g., PDF -> EPS -> PDF still contains the mark) solution Research I have looked at the following possibilities: Steganography Natural Language Processing (NLP) Convert blank pages in PDF to images; mark those images; reassemble PDF LaTeX watermark package ImageMagick Steganograhy requires keeping a master copy of the images, and I'm not sure if the watermark would survive PDF -> EPS -> PDF, or other types of conversion. LaTeX creates an image cache, so any steganographic process would have to intercept that process somehow. NLP introduces grammatical errors. Inserting blank pages as images is immediately suspect; it is easy to replace suspicious blank pages. The LaTeX watermark package draws visible marks. ImageMagick draws visible marks. What other solutions are possible? Related Links http://www.tcpdf.org/ invisible watermarks in images Thank you!

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  • How to handle "Remember me" in the Asp.Net Membership Provider

    - by RemotecUk
    Ive written a custom membership provider for my ASP.Net website. Im using the default Forms.Authentication redirect where you simply pass true to the method to tell it to "Remember me" for the current user. I presume that this function simply writes a cookie to the local machine containing some login credential of the user. What does ASP.Net put in this cookie? Is it possible if the format of my usernames was known (e.g. sequential numbering) someone could easily copy this cookie and by putting it on their own machine be able to access the site as another user? Additionally I need to be able to inercept the authentication of the user who has the cookie. Since the last time they logged in their account may have been cancelled, they may need to change their password etc so I need the option to intercept the authentication and if everything is still ok allow them to continue or to redirect them to the proper login page. I would be greatful for guidance on both of these two points. I gather for the second I can possibly put something in global.asax to intercept the authentication? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to determine which source files are required for an Eclipse run configuration

    - by isme
    When writing code in an Eclipse project, I'm usually quite messy and undisciplined in how I create and organize my classes, at least in the early hacky and experimental stages. In particular, I create more than one class with a main method for testing different ideas that share most of the same classes. If I come up with something like a useful app, I can export it to a runnable jar so I can share it with friends. But this simply packs up the whole project, which can become several megabytes big if I'm relying on large library such as httpclient. Also, if I decide to refactor my lump of code into several projects once I work out what works, and I can't remember which source files are used in a particular run configuration, all I can do it copy the main class to a new project and then keep copying missing types till the new project compiles. Is there a way in Eclipse to determine which classes are actually used in a particular run configuration? EDIT: Here's an example. Say I'm experimenting with web scraping, and so far I've tried to scrape the search-result pages of both youtube.com and wrzuta.pl. I have a bunch of classes that implement scraping in general, a few that are specific to each of youtube and wrzuta. On top of this I have a basic gui common to both scrapers, but a few wrzuta- and youtube-specific buttons and options. The WrzutaGuiMain and YoutubeGuiMain classes each contain a main method to configure and show the gui for each respective website. Can Eclipse look at each of these to determine which types are referenced?

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  • How can I fetch Google static maps with TIdHTTP?

    - by cloudstrif3
    I'm trying to return content from maps.google.com from within Delphi 2006 using the TIdHTTP component. My code is as follows procedure TForm1.GetGoogleMap(); var t_GetRequest: String; t_Source: TStringList; t_Stream: TMemoryStream; begin t_Source := TStringList.Create; try t_Stream := TMemoryStream.Create; try t_GetRequest := 'http://maps.google.com/maps/api/staticmap?' + 'center=Brooklyn+Bridge,New+York,NY' + '&zoom=14' + '&size=512x512' + '&maptype=roadmap' + '&markers=color:blue|label:S|40.702147,-74.015794' + '&markers=color:green|label:G|40.711614,-74.012318' + '&markers=color:red|color:red|label:C|40.718217,-73.998284' + '&sensor=false'; IdHTTP1.Post(t_GetRequest, t_Source, t_Stream); t_Stream.SaveToFile('google.html'); finally t_Stream.Free; end; finally t_Source.Free; end; end; However I keep getting the response HTTP/1.0 403 Forbidden. I assume this means that I don't have permission to make this request but if I copy the url into my web browser IE 8, it works fine. Is there some header information that I need or something else?

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  • Why do I get "Error 6060" when I try to use DBD::Advantage with a 64-bit perl on Linux?

    - by WarheadsSE
    I realize that I am attempting to go beyond the "supported" behavior of the manf's released drivers for Perl, after all they have only released it in package with x86 .so's. However, since I cannot use their package with x64 Perl on a RHEL 5.4 x86_64 box, and maintaining a seperate install of x86 Perl just for this one package, I have made an attempt to get this puppy working thanks to released 64-bit .so's that accompany other driver packages for Advantage. What I have done to this point: download beta 10 DBI drivers, in 32 download beta 10 PHP extension (it contains 32 and x86_64) copy the required DLLs into the ads-lib location (eg /usr/local/ads/lib64) compile the Perl DBI driver with the path to the lib64's .so's Good compilation, good install, good use. The problem is that I always get : failed: [iAnywhere Solutions][Advantage SQL][ASA] Error 6060: Advantage Database Server not available on specified server. axServerConnect (SQL-HY000)(DBD: db_login/SQLConnect err=-1) Does anyone have any ideas? EDIT: fixed package name in post title EDIT: Updated title. It appears that it's not just the x64 perl, but the RHEL 5.4 underneath that may be interfering. As commented below, I managed to shoe-horn a x86 perl onto the system, and compile the DBD::Advantage 9.99, and later replacing that with 9.10, and none of these x86 would connect either. Neither library (9.99 or 9.10) in either bit-edness will connect from this x86_64 server to the windows server's UNC path. I have successfully mounted this share without problems, but still I cannot seem to connect to the 9.1. I have tried: \hostname\PATH \FQDN\PATH \IP\PATH and all of these variations with the port (default) 6262 included. My windows machine connects fine, with both 9.1 and 9.99 from strawberry perl.

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  • rake test not copying development postgres db with sequences

    - by Robert Crida
    I am trying to develop a rails application on postgresql using a sequence to increment a field instead of a default ruby approach based on validates_uniqueness_of. This has proved challenging for a number of reasons: 1. This is a migration of an existing table, not a new table or column 2. Using parameter :default = "nextval('seq')" didn't work because it tries to set it in parenthesis 3. Eventually got migration working in 2 steps: change_column :work_commencement_orders, :wco_number_suffix, :integer, :null => false#, :options => "set default nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq')" execute %{ ALTER TABLE work_commencement_orders ALTER COLUMN wco_number_suffix SET DEFAULT nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq'); } Now this would appear to have done the correct thing in the development database and the schema looks like: wco_number_suffix | integer | not null default nextval('wco_number_suffix_seq'::regclass) However, the tests are failing with PGError: ERROR: null value in column "wco_number_suffix" violates not-null constraint : INSERT INTO "work_commencement_orders" ("expense_account_id", "created_at", "process_id", "vo2_issued_on", "wco_template", "updated_at", "notes", "process_type", "vo_number", "vo_issued_on", "vo2_number", "wco_type_id", "created_by", "contractor_id", "old_wco_type", "master_wco_number", "deadline", "updated_by", "detail", "elective_id", "authorization_batch_id", "delivery_lat", "delivery_long", "operational", "state", "issued_on", "delivery_detail") VALUES(226, '2010-05-31 07:02:16.764215', 728, NULL, E'Default', '2010-05-31 07:02:16.764215', NULL, E'Procurement::Process', NULL, NULL, NULL, 226, NULL, 276, NULL, E'MWCO-213', '2010-06-14 07:02:16.756952', NULL, E'Name 4597', 220, NULL, NULL, NULL, 'f', E'pending', NULL, E'728 Test Road; Test Town; 1234; Test Land') RETURNING "id" The explanation can be found when you inspect the schema of the test database: wco_number_suffix | integer | not null So what happened to the default? I tried adding task: template: smmt_ops_development to the database.yml file which has the effect of issuing create database smmt_ops_test template = "smmt_ops_development" encoding = 'utf8' I have verified that if I issue this then it does in fact copy the default nextval. So clearly rails is doing something after that to suppress it again. Any suggestions as to how to fix this? Thanks Robert

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  • VS2008 DataSet Wizard doesn't match tables for updating

    - by James H
    Hi all, first question ever on this site. I've been having a real stubborn problem using Visual Studio 2008 and I'm hoping someone has figured this out before. I have 2 libraries and 1 project that use strongly typed datasets (MSSQL backend) that I generated using the "Configure DataSet with Wizard" option on in Data Sources. I've had them working just fine for awhile and I've written a lot of code in the non-designer file for the row classes. I've also specified a lot of custom queries using the dataset designer. This is all work I can't afford to loose. I've recently made some changes to re-organize my libraries which included changing the names of the libraries themselves. I also changed the connection string to point to a different database which is a development copy (same exact schema). Problem is now when I open up "Configure DataSet with Wizard" to pickup a new column I've added to one of the tables it no longer matches the tables correctly in the wizard. The wizard displays all of the tables in the database and none of them have check boxes next to them (ie: are not part of this dataset). Below those it shows all of the tables again but with red Xs and these are checked. Basically meaning that Visual Studio sees all of the tables it currently has in the DataSet and sees all of the tables in the database, but believes they are no longer the same and thus do not match! I've had this same thing happen quite awhile back and I think I just re-built the xsd from scratch and manually copied the code over and then had to redefine all of the custom queries I built in the dataset designer. That's not a good solution. I'm looking for 2 answers: 1. What causes this to happen and how to prevent it. 2. How do I fix this so that the wizard once again believes the tables in its xsd are the same tables that are in the database (yes, they have the exact same names still). Thanks.

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  • ABGroupAddMember - Cannot Add Contact to Group (iPhone Address Book)

    - by cookeecut
    Hi, I wonder if someone can help me out on this: I'm writing some code to copy a set of contacts received through a web application into the Address Book. I want to put all these new contacts under a certain group. My code successfully creates the group and adds the contacts into the address book. However, the 'ABGroupAddMember' operation fails. It fails without an error and the result it returns is true, meaning that according to the debugger the contact should have been added to the group. However, this does not work. The portion of my loop code that adds the contact to the address book and then assigns it to the group is this: ABAddressBookAddRecord(addressBook,person, &anError); ABAddressBookSave(addressBook,&anError); ABGroupAddMember(fusionLiveGroupRef,person, &anError); ABAddressBookSave(addressBook,&anError); All references are valid. No errors are returned. All operations return true. What is going wrong?

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Binding a Child Entity to the Model

    - by Nathan Taylor
    This one seems painfully obvious to me, but for some reason I can't get it working the way I want it to. Perhaps it isn't possible the way I am doing it, but that seems unlikely. This question may be somewhat related: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1274855/asp-net-mvc-model-binding-related-entities-on-same-page. I have an EditorTemplate to edit an entity with multiple related entity references. When the editor is rendered the user is given a drop down list to select related entities from, with the drop down list returning an ID as its value. <%=Html.DropDownListFor(m => m.Entity.ID)%> When the request is sent the form value is named as expected: "Entity.ID", however my strongly typed Model defined as an action parameter doesn't have Entity.ID populated with the value passed in the request. public ActionResult AddEntity(EntityWithChildEntities entityWithChildEntities) { } I tried fiddling around with the Bind() attribute and specified Bind(Include = "Entity.ID") on the entityWithChildEntities, but that doesn't seem to work. I also tried Bind(Include = "Entity"), but that resulted in the ModelBinder attempting to bind a full "Entity" definition (not surprisingly). Is there any way to get the default model binder to fill the child entity ID or will I need to add action parameters for each child entity's ID and then manually copy the values into the model definition?

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  • VEMap and a GeoRSS feed(hosted separately)

    - by Alexis Abril
    The scenario is as follows: A WCF web service exists that outputs a valid GeoRSS feed. This lives in its own domain as a number of different applications have access to it. A web page(on a different site) has been created with an instance of a VEMap(Bing/Virtual Earth map object). Now, VEMap can accept an input feed in this format via the following: var layer = new VEShapeLayer(); var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "someurl", layer); map.ImportShapeLayerData(veLayerSpec, onComplete, true); onComplete is a callback function I'm using to replace the default pin graphic with something custom. The question is in regards to "someurl", which is a path to a local xml file containing the geographic information(georss simple format). I've realized this feed and the map must be hosted in the same domain, so I've created a generic handler that reads the remote feed and returns it in the same format. var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "/somelocalhandler.ashx", layer); When I do this, I get the VEMap error("z is null"). This is the same error one would receive when trying to access a remote feed. When I copy the feed into a local xml file(ie, "feed.xml") there is no error. The order of operations is currently: remote feed - local handler - VEMap import If I'm over complicating this procedure, let me know! I'm a bit new to the Bing Maps API and might have missed something. Any assistance is appreciated.

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  • Essence of BiMap in Google collections

    - by littleEinstein
    I am still quite puzzled at the BiMap in Google collections/Guava. It was claimed that The two bimaps are backed by the same data; any changes to one will appear in the other. I browsed through the source code, and I found the use of delegate in ForwardingMap. But in any actually subclass of StandardBiMap, I do see the data are put into both the forward and reverse map. So what is the essence, and why it claims to have saved space by keeping only one copy of the data? Is it just the actual objects are one set, but two distinct sets of references to these objects are still needed, one set maintained in forward map, and the other in reverse map? private V putInBothMaps(K key, V value, boolean force) { boolean containedKey = containsKey(key); if (containedKey && Objects.equal(value, get(key))) { return value; } if (force) { inverse().remove(value); } else if (containsValue(value)) { throw new IllegalArgumentException( "value already present: " + value); } V oldValue = super.put(key, value); updateInverseMap(key, containedKey, oldValue, value); return oldValue; }

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  • After Adding "readonly" attribute on text box not able to remove it in one event

    - by Sreedhar K
    Steps to repro USE Internet Explorer Check unlimited check box Click on text box (It will remove tick/check from check box) Try to enter text in text box We cannot enter in the text box 4. Click again on the text box. Now we will be able to enter text in the text box We tried by 1. Making attribute readOnly to flase i.e. $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); 2. Calling $('#myinput').click(); Below is the HTML code <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Make input read only</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.microsoft.com/ajax/jquery/jquery-1.4.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <input id="myinput" type="text" /> <input id="mycheck" type="checkbox" /> <script type="text/javascript"> /*oncheck box click*/ $('#mycheck').click(function () { if ($(this).attr('checked')) { $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', 'readOnly'); } else { $('#myinput').removeAttr('readOnly'); /* also tried * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', ''); */ } }); /*on text box click*/ $('#myinput').click(function () { $('#mycheck').removeAttr('checked'); $('#myinput').removeAttr('readOnly'); /* also tried * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', false); * $('#myinput').attr('readOnly', ''); */ }); </script> </body> </html> Live copy

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  • Java Bucket Sort on Strings

    - by Michael
    I can't figure out what would be the best way to use Bucket Sort to sort a list of strings that will always be the same length. An algorithm would look like this: For the last character position down to the first: For each word in the list: Place the word into the appropriate bucket by current character For each of the 26 buckets(arraylists) Copy every word back to the list I'm writing in java and I'm using an arraylist for the main list that stores the unsorted strings. The strings will be five characters long each. This is what I started. It just abrubdly stops within the second for loop because I don't know what to do next or if I did the first part right. ArrayList<String> count = new ArrayList<String>(26); for (int i = wordlen; i > 0; i--) { for (int j = 0; i < myList.size(); i++) myList.get(j).charAt(i) } Thanks in advanced.

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  • WPF XAML references not resolved via myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()

    - by WPF-it
    I have a WPF container application (with ContentControl host) and a containee application (UserControl). Both are oblivious of each other. Only one XML config file holds the string dllpath of the containee's DLL and full namespace name of the ViewModelClass inside the containee. A generic code in container resolves containee's assembly (Assembly.LoadFrom(dllpath)) and creates the viewmodel's instance using Activator.CreateInstance(vmType). when this viewmodel is hosted inside the ContentControl of the container, and relevant vierwmodel specific ResourceDictionary is added to ContentControl.Resources.MergedDictionaries of the content control of container, so the view loads fine. Now my containee has to host the WPF DataGrid using assembly reference of WPFToolkit.dll from my local C:\Lib folder. The Copy Local reference to the WPFToolkit.dll is added to the .csproj file of the containee's project and its only referred in the UserControl.XAML using its XAML namepsace. This way my bin\debug folder in my containee application, gets the WPFToolkit.dll copied. XAML: xmlns:Controls="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" <Controls:DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding AssetList}" ... /> Issue: The moment the ViewModel (i.e. the containee's usercontrol) tries to load itself I get this error. "Cannot find type 'Microsoft.Windows.Controls.DataGrid'. The assembly used when compiling might be different than that used when loading and the type is missing." Hence I tried to load the referenced assemblies of the containee's assembly (myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies()) before the viewmodel is hosted. But WPFToolkit isnt there in that list of assemblies! Strange thing is I have another dll referred called Logger.dll in the containee codebase but this one is implemented using C# code behind. So I get its reference correctly resolved in myAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(). So does that mean BAML references of assemblies are never resolvable by GetReferencedAssemblies?

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  • Memory allocation in detached NSThread to load an NSDictionary in background?

    - by mobibob
    I am trying to launch a background thread to retrieve XML data from a web service. I developed it synchronously - without threads, so I know that part works. Now I am ready to have a non-blocking service by spawning a thread to wait for the response and parse. I created an NSAutoreleasePool inside the thread and release it at the end of the parsing. The code to spawn and the thread are as follows: Spawn from main-loop code: . . [NSThread detachNewThreadSelector:@selector(spawnRequestThread:) toTarget:self withObject:url]; . . Thread (inside 'self'): -(void) spawnRequestThread: (NSURL*) url { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; parser = [[NSXMLParser alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:url]; [self parseContentsOfResponse]; [parser release]; [pool release]; } The method parseContentsOfResponse fills an NSMutableDictionary with the parsed document contents. I would like to avoid moving the data around a lot and allocate it back in the main-loop that spawned the thread rather than making a copy. First, is that possible, and if not, can I simply pass in an allocated pointer from the main thread and allocate with 'dictionaryWithDictionary' method? That just seems so inefficient. Are there perferred designs?

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  • Deleting a non-owned dynamic array through a pointer

    - by ayanzo
    Hello all, I'm relatively novice when it comes to C++ as I was weened on Java for much of my undergraduate curriculum (tis a shame). Memory management has been a hassle, but I've purchased a number books on ansi C and C++. I've poked around the related questions, but couldn't find one that matched this particular criteria. Maybe it's so obvious nobody mentions it? This question has been bugging me, but I feel as if there's a conceptual point i'm not utilizing. Suppose: char original[56]; cstr[0] = 'a'; cstr[1] = 'b'; cstr[2] = 'c'; cstr[3] = 'd'; cstr[4] = 'e'; cstr[5] = '\0'; char *shaved = shavecstr(cstr); delete[] cstrn; where char* shavecstr(char* cstr) { size_t len = strlen(cstr); char* ncstr = new char[len]; strcpy(ncstr,cstr); return ncstr; } In that the whole point is to have 'original' be a buffer that fills with characters and routinely has its copy shaved and used elsewhere. To prevent leaks, I want to free up the memory held by 'shaved' to be used again after it passes through some arguments. There is probably a good reason for why this is restricted, but there should be some way to free the memory as by this configuration, there is no way to access the original owner (pointer) of the data.

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  • jQuery error when aborting an ajax call only in Internet Explorer

    - by Rob Crowell
    When mousing over an image in a jcarousel, my site displays a popup whose contents are loaded via ajax. I'm doing what I thought was fairly straightforward; keeping a handle to the xhrRequest object, and aborting the existing one before making a new request. It works great in all browsers except IE, where I receive an error "Object doesn't support this property or method" Here's the code that is triggering it: function showPopup { // ... code snipped ... // cancel the existing xhr request if (showPopup.xhrRequest != null) { showPopup.xhrRequest.abort(); showPopup.xhrRequest = null; } showPopup.xhrRequest = $.ajax({url: url, type: "GET", success:function(data) { $("#popup-content").html(data); } }); // ... code snipped ... } showPopup.xhrRequest = null; Works great in Firefox and Chrome. I traced the error down to this bit of code in jquery.js inside the ajax function (line 5233 in my copy of jQuery): // Override the abort handler, if we can (IE doesn't allow it, but that's OK) // Opera doesn't fire onreadystatechange at all on abort try { var oldAbort = xhr.abort; xhr.abort = function() { if (xhr ) { oldAbort.call( xhr ); } onreadystatechange( "abort" ); } catch(e) { } The specific error occurs on the oldAbort.call( xhr ) line. Any ideas?

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  • Reference 3.5 assembly from 4.0 winforms phail

    - by Dean Lunz
    So I have this utility library that is compiled as a dll under .net 3.5 and it is used by my asp.net 3.5 website. I created a .net 4.0 winforms app to push data onto the website. I want to make use of the functionality in the utilities library from this winforms app. The problem lies in that when I make reference to the utilities library and use the code in it intellisense barks at me saying that it can't find the objects in that library. The thing is I would switch the winforms app to 3.5 which fixes the problem, but I am using Tasks which require 4.0. And because my website and utilities library both run 3.5 and my website is hosted at godaddy that currently only supports asp.net 3.5 so compiling my utilities library under 4.0 for my winforms app is not going to work because it breaks my website. I have tried the app.config trick ala useLegacyV2RuntimeActivationPolicy="true" ... But that did not help. Obviously I could start a new utilities project for 4.0 and and copy the code files from the existing utilities library then reference the new 4.0 utilities library in my winforms app but, that strikes me as being rather overkill when all I want to do is reference the library and use it's functionality. Not to mention that I would have two utility libraries both containing the exact same code, and if I update the code in one I will need to make sure that the other is also updated. I could use add file as link, but you get the idea. So is there anything else I could try or any other way to solve or get around this? Or am I just going to have to break down and create a identical clone of the utilities library for 4.0.

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  • How to deploy SQL Reporting 2005 when Data Sources are locked?

    - by spoulson
    The DBAs here maintain all SQL Server and SQL Reporting servers. I have a custom developed SQL Reporting 2005 project in Visual Studio that runs fine on my local SQL Database and Reporting instances. I need to deploy to a production server, so I had a folder created on a SQL Reporting 2005 server with permissions to upload files. Normally, a deploy from within Visual Studio is all that is needed to upload the report files. However, for security purposes, data sources are maintained explicitly by DBAs and stored in a separated locked down common folder on the reporting server. I had them create the data source for me. When I attempt to deploy from VS, it gives me the error "The item '/Data Sources' already exists." I get this whether I'm deploying the whole project or just a single report file. I already set OverwriteDataSources=false in the project properties. The TargetServer URL and folder are verified correct. I suppose I could copy the files manually, but I'd like to be able to deploy from within VS. What could I be doing wrong?

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  • How do you go about finding out whether an idea you've had has already been patented?

    - by Iain Fraser
    I have an idea for image copy-protection that I'm in the process of coding up and plan on selling to one of my clients who sells images online. If successful I think there would be a lot of people in a similar situation to my client who would be interested in the code also. I think this is a fairly unique idea that could be packaged into a saleable product - but if I did do this, I wouldn't want some big corporation decending on me with their lawyers after all my hard work. So before I put too much work into this I'd really like to know how I'd go about finding if this idea has been patented already and whether I'd get in trouble if I sold my product and if it would be worthwhile patenting the idea myself. Although I find the idea of software patenting abhorrent, it would be more to protect myself from the usual suspects than to stop fellow-developers from using the idea (if it is in fact a worthwhile one). I live in Australia, so an idea of who to go and see and a ball park figure of how much money I'd be looking at having to pay would be fantastic (in orders of a magnitude: 100s, 1000s, 10s of thousands of dollars, etc). Cheers Iain

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  • Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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  • Show image from clipboard to defalut imageviewer of windows using c#.net

    - by Rajesh Rolen- DotNet Developer
    I am using below function to make a image of current form and set it in clipboard Image bit = new Bitmap(this.Width, this.Height); Graphics gs = Graphics.FromImage(bit); gs.CopyFromScreen(this.Location, new Point(0, 0), bit.Size); Guid guid = System.Guid.NewGuid(); string FileName = guid.ToString(); //Copy that image in the clipbaord. Image imgToCopy = Image.FromFile(Path.Combine(Environment.CurrentDirectory, FileName + ".jpg")); Clipboard.SetImage(imgToCopy); Now my image is in clipboard and i am able to show it in picturebox on other form using below code : mypicturebox.Image = Clipboard.GetImage(); Now the the problem is that i want to show it in default imageviewer of that system. so for that i think using "System.Diagnostics.Process.Start" we can do that.. but i dont know, how to find default imageviewer and how to set clipboard's image in that ... please help me out... if i find solution than thats good otherwise i am thinking to save that file from clipboard to harddisk and then view it in window's default imageviewer... please help me to resolve my problem.. i am using c#.net

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  • Getting the highlighted text inside selected element only.

    - by ashays
    My goal is to be able to get the highlighted text within a document, but only if that text is within a given section, and then apply a certain style to that selected text after clicking a div tag. I'll explain what I mean: So, having looked at window.getSelection() and document.selection.createRange().text, I attempted to use elmnt.getSelection() or elmnt.selection.createRange().text for some HTML element, elmnt. However, it doesn't seem to work, so that idea seems pretty null. This means I can't use this idea to determine the text that is highlighted within a given location. In case this doesn't make sense, essentially, I want html code that looks like this: <body> <div id="content">Stuff here will not be effected</div> <div id="highlightable">Stuff here can be effected when highlighted</div> <div id="morecontent">Stuff here will also not be effected</div> </body> So that whenever I've highlighted text, clicking on a specified div will apply the proper CSS. Now, on to the div tags. Basically, here's what I've got on that: $('.colorpicker').click( function(e) { console.log(getSelectedText()); } Eventually, all I want this to highlight the selected text and have the div tag change the color of the selected text to that of the respective div tag that I've selected. Neither of these seems to be working right now, and my only guess for the reason of the div tag is that it unhighlights whatever I've got selected whenever I click on the div tag. Fallbacks: If there is more than one time that 'abc' is found on the page and I highlight to color 'abc', I would like that only that copy of 'abc' be highlighted. I know this is a lot in one question, but even if I could get a little head start on this idea, my next personal project would be going a lot more smoothly. Thanks. :)

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  • Using the Microsoft Ajax Minifier with Web Setup project & Source Control

    - by Rob
    I've just started investigating the Microsoft Ajax Minifer 4.0 for use with a Visual Studio 2008 Web Application I work on. It's proven easy enough to hook it into the .csproj file so it produced .min.js files for all scripts, however I'm stumped as to how to integrate this with the Web Setup project & Source Control. Essentially what I want to do is have the resultant .min.js files included in the Web Setup project without having them included in Source Control because: Having to check them out prior to the build being executing is a pain (the minifier cannot modify them if they're not checked out). As they're created as a "build artifact" it just seems wrong to have them stored under source control. The only option I've managed to come across so far is to explicitly include the .min.js files as part of the Setup project by right clicking on the Web Setup project and choosing "Add File", and then having the relevant folder hierarchy duplicated in "File System on Target Machine" so that I can force the file to the correct location. This is neither elegant or simple/robust as: It requires me to manually add every minified js file to the Web Setup project by hand Maintain a copy of the relevant directory structure in both the Web Application project and the Web Setup project Remember to add any new js files minified versions to the Web Setup project Is there a better way of doing this?

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