Search Results

Search found 44026 results on 1762 pages for 'raid question'.

Page 448/1762 | < Previous Page | 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455  | Next Page >

• What OpenGL functions are not GPU accelerated?

  - by Xavier Ho

  I was shocked when I read this (from the OpenGL wiki): glTranslate, glRotate, glScale Are these hardware accelerated? No, there are no known GPUs that execute this. The driver computes the matrix on the CPU and uploads it to the GPU. All the other matrix operations are done on the CPU as well : glPushMatrix, glPopMatrix, glLoadIdentity, glFrustum, glOrtho. This is the reason why these functions are considered deprecated in GL 3.0. You should have your own math library, build your own matrix, upload your matrix to the shader. For a very, very long time I thought most of the OpenGL functions use the GPU to do computation. I'm not sure if this is a common misconception, but after a while of thinking, this makes sense. Old OpenGL functions (2.x and older) are really not suitable for real-world applications, due to too many state switches. This makes me realise that, possibly, many OpenGL functions do not use the GPU at all. So, the question is: Which OpenGL function calls don't use the GPU? I believe knowing the answer to the above question would help me become a better programmer with OpenGL. Please do share some of your insights.

  Read the article

• Where can I get software-related legal advice?

  - by musicfreak

  Whenever someone asks a legal question here on SO, the response is usually something along the lines of "we are not lawyers." Okay, that's legitimate, but in that case, how can I talk to a lawyer about software-related legal matters? I could look through the phone book and find a local lawyer, but then I have no way of knowing whether the lawyer knows anything about software. (And I hear most local lawyers charge for your time, even if it's just a simple question.) Is there maybe some kind of online service for this sort of thing? For now, I'm just looking for some basic advice, so something free would be awesome, even if the "quality" is not as good. However, I'll still take any kind of paid services--I'll keep them in mind for the future. You can give me anything from a forum or QA site (like this one) to a professional service. Just remember that I'm looking specifically for software-related legal advice. I'm sure most lawyers know a thing or two about software, but I'd rather talk to someone who legitimately knows his stuff than someone who can only guess.

  Read the article

• How can you change the font color of a theme-enabled control?

  - by Edouard Westphal

  Yes, this is again this question: How can I change the font color of a TCheckBox (or any handled control) with Delphi7-Delphi2007 on a themes enabled application? After reading a lot on the internet and on this site, I found 4 kinds of answer: and Most populare (even from QC): You can't, it's designed like that by Microsoft. Create a component that let you draw it like you want. Buy expensive component set that draws like you want. Do not use themes. OK, but I am still unhappy with that. Giving a user colored feedback for the status of a property/data he has on a form, seems legitimate to me. Then I just installed the MSVC# 2008 Express edition, and what a surprise, they can change the color of the font (property ForeColor of the check box) Then what? It does not seem to be a "it's designed like that, by Microsoft." then now the question again: How can I change the font color of a TCheckBox (or any handled control) with Delphi 7 through Delphi 2007 on a theme-enabled application?

  Read the article

• Schema for storing "binary" values, such as Male/Female, in a database

  - by latentflip

  Intro I am trying to decide how best to set up my database schema for a (Rails) model. I have a model related to money which indicates whether the value is an income (positive cash value) or an expense (negative cash value). I would like separate column(s) to indicate whether it is an income or an expense, rather than relying on whether the value stored is positive or negative. Question: How would you store these values, and why? Have a single column, say Income, and store 1 if it's an income, 0 if it's an expense, null if not known. Have two columns, Income and Expense, setting their values to 1 or 0 as appropriate. Something else? I figure the question is similar to storing a person's gender in a database (ignoring aliens/transgender/etc) hence my title. My thoughts so far Lookup might be easier with a single column, but there is a risk of mistaking 0 (false, expense) for null (unknown). Having seperate columns might be more difficult to maintain (what happens if we end up with a 1 in both columns? Maybe it's not that big a deal which way I go, but it would be great to have any concerns/thoughts raised before I get too far down the line and have to change my code-base because I missed something that should have been obvious! Thanks, Philip

  Read the article

• algorithm to generate maximum number of character 'A' using keystrokes 'A', CTRL + 'A', CTRL + 'C' and CTRL + 'V'

  - by munda

  This is an interview question from google. I am not able to solve it by myself. Can somebody throw some light? The question goes like this. Write a program to print the sequence of keystrokes such that it generates the maximum number of character 'A's. You are allowed to use only 4 keys: 'A', CTRL + 'A', CTRL + 'C' and CTRL + 'V'. Only N keystrokes are allowed. All CTRL+ characters are considered as one keystroke, so CTRL+A is one keystroke. e.g.: A, ctrl+A, ctrl+C, ctrl+V generates two As in 4 keystrokes. Edit: CTRL + A is Select All CTRL + C is copy CTRL + V is paste I did some mathematics. For any N, using x numbers of A's , one CTRL+A, one CTRL+C and y CTRL+V, we can generate max ((N-1)/2)^2 numbers of A's. But for some N M, it is better to use as many ^A, ^C and ^V as it doubles the number of As. Edit 2: ^A, ^V and ^C will not overwrite on the existing selection but it will append the copied selection to selected one.

  Read the article

• Convert charset in mysql query

  - by Yousf

  Hi, I have a question about converting charset from inside mysql query. I have a 2 databases. One for the website (joomla), the other for forum (IPB). I am doing query from inside joomla, which by default have "SET NAMES UTF8". I want to query a table inside the forum databases. A table called "ibf_topics". This table has latin1 encoding. I do the following to select anything from the not-utf8 table. //convert connection to handle latin1. $query = "SET NAMES latin1"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); $query = "select id, title from other_database.ibf_topics"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); //read result into an array. //return connection to handle UTF8. $query = "SET NAMES UTF8"; $db->setQuery($query); $db->query(); After that, when I want to use the selected tile, I use the following: echo iconv("CP1256", "UTF-8", $topic['title']) The question is, is there anyway to avoid all this hassle? For now, I can't change forum database to UTF8 and I can't change joomla database to latin1 :S

  Read the article

• Bizzare results when running two Visual Studio Express C++ 2008 solutions

  - by Jamie Keeling

  This is a follow on from my previous question although this is about something else. I've been having a problem where for some reason my message that I pass from one process to another only displays the first letter, in this case "M". My application based on a MSDN sample so to make sure I hadn't missed something I create a seperate solution, added the MSDN sample (Without any changes for my needs) and unsuprisingly it works fine. Now for the weird bit, when I run the MSDN sample running (As in debugging) and have my own application running, the text prints out fine without any problems. The second I run my on it's own without the original MSDN sample being open it fails to work and only shows an "M". I've looked in the debugger and don't seem to notice anything suspicious (It's a slightly dated picture, I've fixed the data type inconsistency). Can anyone provide a solution as to this? I've never encountered anything like this before. To look at my source code it's easier to just look at the link I posted at the top of the question, there's no point in me posting it twice. Thank you for any help.

  Read the article

• GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

  - by David Veeneman

  This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• Why can't I play videos on my Samsung Moment w/Android 2.1 that did play on 1.5?

  - by cpcarroll71

  Hello all. I was directed here by the Google Android Devs Group. I'm still not sure if this is the place I need to be. I've been on forum after forum and asked the same question but no one seems to know the answer or will tell me the REAL correct place to find it. I have a Samsung Moment with Android 2.1. I can not get videos that DID play on Android 1.5 to play on 2.1 now with very few exceptions. I'm not just talking about different videos with the same format, I'm talking about some of the exact same videos that did play in 1.5 will no longer play in 2.1. These are almost all AVI files. If Android doesn't support AVI natively with it's own stock media player then why or how was I able to play these videos flawlessly on 1.5? The way I always played the videos was viewing my SD card, tapping the thumbnail of the video I wanted, and it would automatically open up in the phones media player right away. Now the phone locks up and then eventually gives an error message. Please tell me someone here knows what is going on and if there is a way to fix this. Or if nothing else, tell me where I do need to look to ask this question and find an answer. Thank you.

  Read the article

• php convert european datetime to mysql datetime

  - by Mathlight

  I'm really stuck with this problem. I've got an datetime string like this: 28-06-14 11:01:00 I'm trying to convert it to 2014-06-28 11:01:00 so that i can insert it into the database ( with field type datetime. I've tryed multiple things like this: $datumHolder = new DateTime($data['datum'], new DateTimeZone('Europe/Amsterdam')); $datum1 = $datumHolder -> format("Y-m-d H:i:s"); $datum2 = date( 'Y-m-d', strtotime(str_replace('-', '/', $data['datum']) ) ); $datum3 = DateTime::createFromFormat( 'Y-m-d-:Hi:s', $data['datum']); This is the output i get: datum1: 2028-06-14 11:01:00 datum2: 1970-01-01 And i get an error for datum3: echo "datum3: " . $datum3->format( 'Y-m-d H:i:s'); . '<br />'; Call to a member function format() on a non-object So my question is very clear... What am I doing wrong / how to get this working? Thanks in advantage guys! I know that this question is asked many, many times... But whatever i try, i can't get it working...

  Read the article

• Zend Framework :: Is this code good for user login (Its begining- because that I want to know if its

  - by Yosef

  Hi, I new in Zend. Main Question: Is this code good for user login (Its beginning- because that I want to know if its can be improve)? Code understanding question: Is every time that in action call to his view- code execution in action not going to next row until view request? (I asking about IndexAction that I write down) Thanks view index.phtml <? echo $this->form controller IndexAction.php public function indexAction() { $form=new Application_Form_Login(); $this->view->form = $form; if ($this->getRequest()->isPost()) { $formData = $this->getRequest()->getPost(); if ($form->isValid($formData)) { echo " test value username: ".$form->getValue('username'); } } } form Login.php public function init() { $this->setMethod('post'); $this->setName('user login'); $username = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('username'); $username->setLabel("username") ->setRequired(true) ->addFilter('StripTags') ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator('NotEmpty'); $password = new Zend_Form_Element_Password('password'); $password->setLabel('password') ->setRequired(true) ->addFilter('StripTags') ->addFilter('StringTrim') ->addValidator('NotEmpty'); $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $this->addElements(array($username, $password, $submit)); }

  Read the article

• C++ destructor problem with boost::scoped_ptr

  - by bb-generation

  I have a question about the following code: #include <iostream> #include <boost/scoped_ptr.hpp> class Interface { }; class A : public Interface { public: A() { std::cout << "A()" << std::endl; } virtual ~A() { std::cout << "~A()" << std::endl; } }; Interface* get_a() { A* a = new A; return a; } int main() { { std::cout << "1" << std::endl; boost::scoped_ptr<Interface> x(get_a()); std::cout << "2" << std::endl; } std::cout << "3" << std::endl; } It creates the following output: 1 A() 2 3 As you can see, it doesn't call the destructor of A. The only way I see to get the destructor of A being called, is to add a destructor for the Interface class like this: virtual ~Interface() { } But I really want to avoid any Implementation in my Interface class and virtual ~Interface() = 0; doesn't work (produces some linker errors complaining about a non existing implementation of ~Interface(). So my question is: What do I have to change in order to make the destructor being called, but (if possible) leave the Interface as an Interface (only abstract methods).

  Read the article

• Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

  - by Daniel Rose

  I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

  Read the article

• How to get the set of beans that are to be created in Spring?

  - by cyborg

  So here's the scenario: I have a Spring XML configuration with some lazy-beans, some not lazy-beans and some beans that depend on other beans. Eventually Spring will resolve all this so that only the beans that are meant to be created are created. The question: how can I programmatically tell what this set is? When I use context.getBean(name) that initializes the bean. BeanDefinition.isLazyInit() will only tell me how I defined the bean. Any other ideas? ETA: In DefaultListableBeanFactory: public void preInstantiateSingletons() throws BeansException { if (this.logger.isInfoEnabled()) { this.logger.info("Pre-instantiating singletons in " + this); } synchronized (this.beanDefinitionMap) { for (Iterator it = this.beanDefinitionNames.iterator(); it.hasNext();) { String beanName = (String) it.next(); RootBeanDefinition bd = getMergedLocalBeanDefinition(beanName); if (!bd.isAbstract() && bd.isSingleton() && !bd.isLazyInit()) { if (isFactoryBean(beanName)) { FactoryBean factory = (FactoryBean) getBean(FACTORY_BEAN_PREFIX + beanName); if (factory instanceof SmartFactoryBean && ((SmartFactoryBean) factory).isEagerInit()) { getBean(beanName); } } else { getBean(beanName); } } } } } The set of instantiable beans is initialized. When initializing this set any beans not in this set referenced by this set will also be created. From looking through the source it does not look like there's going to be any easy way to answer my question.

  Read the article

• Unable to save data in database manually and get latest auto increment id, cakePHP

  - by shabby

  I have checked this question as well and this one as well. I am trying to implement the model described in this question. What I want to do is, on the add function of message controller, create a record in thread table(this table only has 1 field which is primary key and auto increment), then take its id and insert it in the message table along with the user id which i already have, and then save it in message_read_state and thread_participant table. This is what I am trying to do in Thread Model: function saveThreadAndGetId(){ //$data= array('Thread' => array()); $data= array('id' => ' '); //Debugger::dump(print_r($data)); $this->save($data); debug('id: '.$this->id); $threadId = $this->getInsertID(); debug($threadId); $threadId = $this->getLastInsertId(); debug($threadId); die(); return $threadId; } $data= array('id' => ' '); This line from the above function adds a row in the thread table, but i am unable to retrieve the id. Is there any way I can get the id, or am I saving it wrongly? Initially I was doing the query thing in the message controller: $this->Thread->query('INSERT INTO threads VALUES();'); but then i found out that lastId function doesnt work on manual queries so i reverted.

  Read the article

• How do C++ compilers actually pass reference parameters?

  - by T.E.D.

  This question came about as a result of some mixed-langauge programming. I had a Fortran routine I wanted to call from C++ code. Fortran passes all its parameters by reference (unless you tell it otherwise). So I thought I'd be clever (bad start right there) in my C++ code and define the Fortran routine something like this: extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned & flag); This code worked for a while but (of course right when I needed to leave) suddenly started blowing up on a return call. Clear indication of a munged call stack. Another engineer came behind me and fixed the problem, declaring that the routine had to be deinfed in C++ as extern "C" void FORTRAN_ROUTINE (unsigned * flag); I'd accept that except for two things. One is that it seems rather counter-intuitive for the compiler to not pass reference parameters by reference, and I can find no documentation anywhere that says that. The other is that he changed a whole raft of other code in there at the same time, so it theoretically could have been another change that fixed whatever the issue was. So the question is, how does C++ actually pass reference parameters? Is it perhaps free to do copy-in, copy-out for small values or something? In other words, are reference parameters utterly useless in mixed-language programming? I'd like to know so I don't make this same code-killing mistake ever again.

  Read the article

• (illustrator scripting) how to release objects to layers(sequence) but retain object's name?

  - by Eugene

  Hi, I've asked the same question to adobe scripting forum. but seems there are not many forum users there, and I'm asking the same question here. I was writing my first illustrator script to export all layers to png files with layer structure converted to file structure. I found there are many layers that my script can't detect and found out that they are not actually layers but objects(or groups). Found a layer menu (release to layers), but doesn't quite solve the problem perfectly. initially I have this layer 001 object 01 object 1 object 2 release to layers(sequence) on object 01 gives layer 001 layer 91(whatever the layer number illustrator gives when release to layers are performed) layer 92 object 1 layer 93 object 2 now I need to convert them to (so that layer can retain the name of the object) layer 001 layer 01 layer 1 object 1 layer 2 object 2 I have hundreds of layer 001, and couple thousands of object 01, and wonder if anything can be done with script to do this... If it's possible to detect object in a script, I could rewrite the 'release to layers' functionality in script maybe. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Vim: change formatting of variables in a script

  - by sixtyfootersdude

  I am using vim to edit a shell script (did not use the right coding standard). I need to change all of my variables from camel-hum-notation startTime to caps-and-underscore-notation START_TIME. I do not want to change the way method names are represented. I was thinking one way to do this would be to write a function and map it to a key. The function could do something like generating this on the command line: s/<word under cursor>/<leave cursor here to type what to replace with> I think that this function could be applyable to other situations which would be handy. Two questions: Question 1: How would I go about creating that function. I have created functions in vim before the biggest thing I am clueless about is how to capture movement. Ie if you press dw in vim it will delete the rest of a word. How do you capture that? Also can you leave an uncompleted command on the vim command line? Question 2: Got a better solution for me? How would you approach this task?

  Read the article

• What's the best Linux backup solution?

  - by Jon Bright

  We have a four Linux boxes (all running Debian or Ubuntu) on our office network. None of these boxes are especially critical and they're all using RAID. To date, I've therefore been doing backups of the boxes by having a cron job upload tarballs containing the contents of /etc, MySQL dumps and other such changing, non-packaged data to a box at our geographically separate hosting centre. I've realised, however that the tarballs are sufficient to rebuild from, but it's certainly not a painless process to do so (I recently tried this out as part of a hardware upgrade of one of the boxes) long-term, the process isn't sustainable. Each of the boxes is currently producing a tarball of a couple of hundred MB each day, 99% of which is the same as the previous day partly due to the size issue, the backup process requires more manual intervention than I want (to find whatever 5GB file is inflating the size of the tarball and kill it) again due to the size issue, I'm leaving stuff out which it would be nice to include - the contents of users' home directories, for example. There's almost nothing of value there that isn't in source control (and these aren't our main dev boxes), but it would be nice to keep them anyway. there must be a better way So, my question is, how should I be doing this properly? The requirements are: needs to be an offsite backup (one of the main things I'm doing here is protecting against fire/whatever) should require as little manual intervention as possible (I'm lazy, and box-herding isn't my main job) should continue to scale with a couple more boxes, slightly more data, etc. preferably free/open source (cost isn't the issue, but especially for backups, openness seems like a good thing) an option to produce some kind of DVD/Blu-Ray/whatever backup from time to time wouldn't be bad My first thought was that this kind of incremental backup was what tar was created for - create a tar file once each month, add incrementally to it. rsync results to remote box. But others probably have better suggestions.

  Read the article

• Should a programmer have mastery over C++

  - by Yogendra

  I was wondering if it is necessary for programmers to have expertise on at least 1 programming language? Programming languages like C#, java, VB.Net etc change every year or two. Should a programmer have mastery over C++, which is a stable language and rarely undergoes changes? I am a C# developer and using it for about 7 years now, I still don't have mastery on it. EDIT I think my question is being misunderstood. I am not against changes or evolution. I love the new features and abstraction provided by languages such as C#, VB, Java. And I keep waiting for new features if it makes a programmers life easy. But this fact also make this languages very difficult to master. They are continuously evolving. Languages like C++ have slow evolution cycle. So given this scenario, Is it helpful to be master of C++? This is what my original question meant. Note:- Based on the answers by friends below, I have understood that languages and framework are tools for expressing the concepts. Also it might be a good idea to express the concepts in different programming languages.

  Read the article

• Viewing recently edited etherpads (note new 'etherpad' tag for open sourced etherpad code!)

  - by dreeves

  Prescript: The amazing etherpad was recently open sourced. Get it here: http://code.google.com/p/etherpad. This is the first question that I know of on StackOverflow about the etherpad code. If you're part of the etherpad open source community, you might want to subscribe to the RSS feed for questions tagged 'etherpad' just in case this catches on! My actual question, which assumes you have etherpad installed on your own server: First, here's a query to view recently edited pads: SELECT id,lastWriteTime,creationTime,headRev FROM PAD_SQLMETA ORDER BY lastWriteTime, headRev; Or, if you want to run it from a unix prompt: mysql -u root -pPASSWD etherpad -e "select id,lastWriteTime,creationTime,headRev from PAD_SQLMETA order by lastWriteTime, headRev" That's handy, however lastWriteTime actually gets updated every time someone so much as views a pad in their browser. I'd rather sort the pads by when they were actually last edited. There's probably a fancy SQL query involving a join with another table that would show actual last edit time. Does anyone know what that is? Alternatively, you could have a script that notices when headRev changes but that doesn't seem like the cleanest way to do it.

  Read the article

• LINQ extention SelectMany in 3.5 vs 4.0?

  - by Moberg

  Hi When I saw Darins suggestion here .. IEnumerable<Process> processes = new[] { "process1", "process2" } .SelectMany(Process.GetProcessesByName); ( http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3059667/process-getprocessesbyname/3059733#3059733 ) .. I was a bit intrigued and I tried it in VS2008 with .NET 3.5 - and it did not compiling unless I changed it to .. IEnumerable<Process> res = new string[] { "notepad", "firefox", "outlook" } .SelectMany(s => Process.GetProcessesByName(s)); Having read some Darins answers before I suspected that it was me that were the problem, and when I later got my hands on a VS2010 with.NET 4.0 - as expected - the original suggestion worked beautifully. My question is : What have happend from 3.5 to 4.0 that makes this (new syntax) possible? Is it the extentionmethods that have been extended(hmm) or new rules for lambda syntax or? I've tried to search but my google-fu was not strong enough. Please forgive if the question is a bit naive and note that I've taged it as beginner :)

  Read the article

• JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

  - by Val

  I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

  Read the article

• How can variadic char template arguments from user defined literals be converted back into numeric types?

  - by Pubby

  This question is being asked because of this one. C++11 allows you to define literals like this for numeric literals: template<char...> OutputType operator "" _suffix(); Which means that 503_suffix would become <'5','0','3'> This is nice, although it isn't very useful in the form it's in. How can I transform this back into a numeric type? This would turn <'5','0','3'> into a constexpr 503. Additionally, it must also work on floating point literals. <'5','.','3> would turn into int 5 or float 5.3 A partial solution was found in the previous question, but it doesn't work on non-integers: template <typename t> constexpr t pow(t base, int exp) { return (exp > 0) ? base * pow(base, exp-1) : 1; }; template <char...> struct literal; template <> struct literal<> { static const unsigned int to_int = 0; }; template <char c, char ...cv> struct literal<c, cv...> { static const unsigned int to_int = (c - '0') * pow(10, sizeof...(cv)) + literal<cv...>::to_int; }; // use: literal<...>::to_int // literal<'1','.','5'>::to_int doesn't work // literal<'1','.','5'>::to_float not implemented

  Read the article

• how to handle empty selection in a jface bound combobox?

  - by guido

  I am developing a search dialog in my eclipse-rcp application. In the search dialog I have a combobox as follows: comboImp = new CCombo(grpColSpet, SWT.BORDER | SWT.READ_ONLY); comboImp.setBounds(556, 46, 184, 27); comboImpViewer = new ComboViewer(comboImp); comboImpViewer.setContentProvider(new ArrayContentProvider()); comboImpViewer.setInput(ImpContentProvider.getInstance().getImps()); comboImpViewer.setLabelProvider(new LabelProvider() { @Override public String getText(Object element) { return ((Imp)element).getImpName(); } }); Imp is a database entity, ManyToOne to the main entity which is searched, and ImpContentProvider is the model class which speaks to embedded sqlite database via jpa/hibernate. This combobox is supposed to contain all instances of Imp, but to also let empty selection; it's value is bound to a service bean as follows: IObservableValue comboImpSelectionObserveWidget = ViewersObservables.observeSingleSelection(comboImpViewer); IObservableValue filterByImpObserveValue = BeansObservables.observeValue(searchPrep, "imp"); bindingContext.bindValue(comboImpSelectionObserveWidget, filterByImpObserveValue , null, null); As soon as the user clicks on the combo, a selection (first element) is made: I can see the call to a selectionlistener i added on the viewer. My question is: after a selection has been made, how do I let the user change his mind and have an empty selection in the combobox? should I add a "fake" empty instance of Imp to the List returned by the ImpContentProvider? or should I implement an alternative to ArrayContentProvider? and one additional related question is: why calling deselectAll() and clearSelection() on the combo does NOT set a null value to the bound bean?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 444 445 446 447 448 449 450 451 452 453 454 455  | Next Page >