Search Results

Search found 13469 results on 539 pages for 'avoid trouble'.

Page 453/539 | < Previous Page | 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460  | Next Page >

  • Injecting Dependencies into Domain Model classes with Nhibernate (ASP.NET MVC + IOC)

    - by Sunday Ironfoot
    I'm building an ASP.NET MVC application that uses a DDD (Domain Driven Design) approach with database access handled by NHibernate. I have domain model class (Administrator) that I want to inject a dependency into via an IOC Container such as Castle Windsor, something like this: public class Administrator { public virtual int Id { get; set; } //.. snip ..// public virtual string HashedPassword { get; protected set; } public void SetPassword(string plainTextPassword) { IHashingService hasher = IocContainer.Resolve<IHashingService>(); this.HashedPassword = hasher.Hash(plainTextPassword); } } I basically want to inject IHashingService for the SetPassword method without calling the IOC Container directly (because this is suppose to be an IOC Anti-pattern). But I'm not sure how to go about doing it. My Administrator object either gets instantiated via new Administrator(); or it gets loaded via NHibernate, so how would I inject the IHashingService into the Administrator class? On second thoughts, am I going about this the right way? I was hoping to avoid having my codebase littered with... currentAdmin.Password = HashUtils.Hash(password, Algorithm.Sha512); ...and instead get the domain model itself to take care of hashing and neatly encapsulate it away. I can envisage another developer accidently choosing the wrong algorithm and having some passwords as Sha512, and some as MD5, some with one salt, and some with a different salt etc. etc. Instead if developers are writing... currentAdmin.SetPassword(password); ...then that would hide those details away and take care of those problems listed above would it not?

    Read the article

  • Looking for a web based, embeddable file manager

    - by Kristi H.
    I'm looking for a web based, embeddable file manager. I haven't found anything suitable through Google or the Stack Overflow archives. Does anyone know of a file manager that meets the following criteria? The file manager must… …be embeddable (e.g. Flash or a Java applet) …run from my server (no storing uploads in a remote location) …be licensed for business use (fees are okay) …let me disable uploads. Users shouldn't be able to upload files, only download them …allow me to tag files and/or place them in folders …let me disable authentication or handle it from the backend. My app already has a login system and I don't want to make users log in twice …allow users to select and download multiple files …have an attractive interface The file manager should… …have an external config file …display thumbnail previews for files …be skinnable …be actively developed or at least actively maintained Thanks for your help. I need a sophisticated file manager and I'd like to avoid writing it from scratch.

    Read the article

  • Symbian: clear buffer of RSocket object

    - by Heinz
    Hi, I have to come back once again to sockets in Symbian. Code to set up a connection to a remote server looks as follows: TInetAddr serverAddr; TUint iPort=111; TRequestStatus iStatus; TSockXfrLength len; TInt res = iSocketSrv.Connect(); res = iSocket.Open(iSocketSrv,KAfInet,KSockStream, KProtocolInetTcp); res = iSocket.SetOpt(KSoTcpSendWinSize, KSolInetTcp, 0x10000); serverAddr.SetPort(iPort); serverAddr.SetAddress(INET_ADDR(11,11,179,154)); iSocket.Connect(serverAddr,iStatus); User::WaitForRequest(iStatus); Over the iSocket i receive packets of variable size. On very few occurences it happens that such a packet is corrupted. What I would like to do then is to clear all the data that is currently in the iSocket buffer and ready to be read. I have not seen any method of RSocket that allows me to clear the content of the buffer. Does anyone know how to do that? If possible, I would like to avoid using RecvOneOrMore() or similar recv function clear the buffer Thanks

    Read the article

  • Optimize website for touch devices

    - by gregers
    On a touch device like iPhone/iPad/Android it can be difficult to hit a small button with your finger. There is no cross-browser way to detect touch devices with CSS media queries that I know of. So I check if the browser has support for javascript touch events. Until now, other browsers haven't supported them, but the latest Google Chrome on dev channel enabled touch events (even for non touch devices). And I suspect other browser makers will follow, since laptops with touch screens are comming. This is the test I use: function isTouchDevice() { try { document.createEvent("TouchEvent"); return true; } catch (e) { return false; } } The problem is that this only tests if the browser has support for touch events, not the device. Does anyone know of The Correct[tm] way of giving touch devices better user experience? Other than sniffing user agent. Mozilla has a media query for touch devices. But I haven't seen anything like it in any other browser: https://developer.mozilla.org/En/CSS/Media_queries#-moz-touch-enabled Update: I want to avoid using a separate page/site for mobile/touch devices. The solution has to detect touch devices with object detection or similar from JavaScript, or include a custom touch-CSS without user agent sniffing! The main reason I asked, was to make sure it's not possible today, before I contact the css3 working group.

    Read the article

  • DataGrid calculate difference between values in two databound cells

    - by justMe
    Hello! In my small application I have a DataGrid (see screenshot) that's bound to a list of Measurement objects. A Measurement is just a data container with two properties: Date and CounterGas (float). Each Measurement object represents my gas consumption at a specific date. The list of measurements is bound to the DataGrid as follows: <DataGrid ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Measurements}" AutoGenerateColumns="False"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Date" Binding="{Binding Path=Date, StringFormat={}{0:dd.MM.yyyy}}" /> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Counter Gas" Binding="{Binding Path=ValueGas, StringFormat={}{0:F3}}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> Well, and now my question :) I'd like to have another column right next to the column "Counter Gas" which shows the difference between the actual counter value and the last counter value. E.g. this additional column should calculate the difference between the value of of Feb. 13th and Feb. 6th = 199.789 - 187.115 = 15.674 What is the best way to achieve this? I'd like to avoid any calculation in the Measurement class which should just hold the data. I'd rather more like the DataGrid to handle the calculation. So is there a way to add another column that just calculates the difference between to values? Maybe using some kind of converter and extreme binding? ;D P.S.: Maybe someone with a better reputation could embed the screenshot. Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • Relative Paths in .htaccess, how to attach to a variable?

    - by devians
    I have a very heavy htaccess mod_rewrite file that runs my application. As we sometimes take over legacy websites, I sometimes need to support old urls to old files, where my application processes everything post htaccess. My ultimate goal is to have a 'Demilitarized Zone' for old file structures, and use mod rewrite to check for existence there before pushing to the application. This is pretty easy to do with files, by using: RewriteCond %{IS_SUBREQ} true RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} 200 RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] This allows pseudo support for relative urls by not hardcoding my base path (I cant assume I will ever be deployed in document root) anywhere and using subrequests to check for file existence. Works fine if you know the file name, ie http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/index.html However, my legacy urls are typically http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/ Mod_Rewrite will allow me to check for this by using -d, but it needs the complete path to the directory, ie RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteCond /var/www/path/to/app/Public/DMZ/$1 -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] I want to avoid the hardcoded base path. I can see one possible solutions here, somehow determining my path and attaching it to a variable [E=name:var] and using it in the condition. Any implementation that allows me to existence check a directory is more than welcome.

    Read the article

  • How do I store a string longer than 4000 characters in an Oracle Database using Java/JDBC?

    - by Ventrue
    I’m not sure how to use Java/JDBC to insert a very long string into an Oracle database. I have a String which is greater than 4000 characters, lets say it’s 6000. I want to take this string and store it in an Oracle database. The way to do this seems to be with the CLOB datatype. Okay, so I declared the column as description CLOB. Now, when it comes time to actually insert the data, I have a prepared statement pstmt. It looks like pstmt = conn.prepareStatement(“INSERT INTO Table VALUES(?)”). So I want to use the method pstmt.setClob(). However, I don’t know how to create a Clob object with my String in it; there’s no constructor (presumably because it can be potentially much larger than available memory). How do I put my String into a Clob? Keep in mind I’m not a very experienced programmer; please try to keep the explanations as simple as possible. Efficiency, good practices, etc. are not a concern here, I just want the absolute easiest solution. I’d like to avoid downloading other packages if it all possible; right now I’m just using JDK 1.4 and what is labelled “ojdbc14.jar”. I've looked around a bit but I haven't been able to follow any of the explanations I've found. If you have a solution that doesn’t use Clobs, I’d be open to that as well, but it has to be one column.

    Read the article

  • Version Control: multiple version hell, file synchronization

    - by SigTerm
    Hello. I would like to know how you normally deal with this situation: I have a set of utility functions. Say..5..10 files. And technically they are static library, cross-platform - SConscript/SConstruct plus Visual Studio project (not solution). Those utility functions are used in multiple small projects (15+, number increases over time). Each project has a copy of a few files or of an entire library, not a link into one central place. Sometimes project uses one file, two files, some use everything. Normally, utility functions are included as a copy of every file and SConscript/SConstruct or Visual Studio Project (depending on the situation). Each project has a separate git repository. Sometimes one project is derived from other, sometimes it isn't. You work on every one of them, in random order. There are no other people (to make things simpler) The problem arises when while working on one project you modify those utility function files. Because each project has a copy of file, this introduces new version, which leads to the mess when you try later (week later, for example) to guess which version has a most complete functionality (i.e. you added a function to a.cpp in one project, and added another function to a.cpp in another project, which created a version fork) How would you handle this situation to avoid "version hell"? One way I can think of is using symbolic links/hard links, but it isn't perfect - if you delete one central storage, it will all go to hell. And hard links won't work on dual-boot system (although symbolic links will). It looks like what I need is something like advanced git repository, where code for the project is stored in one local repository, but is synchronized with multiple external repositories. But I'm not sure how to do it or if it is possible to do this with git. So, what do you think?

    Read the article

  • How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

    - by räph
    I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

    Read the article

  • Legal issues in Europe: check patents ?

    - by Bugz R us
    We live in Europe and are releasing commercial software in multiple countries. Besides of the licensing issues (GPL/LGPL/...) we have a question about patents. I know that if you're in the US, before you release software, you have to check if there aren't any patents you're infringing upon. I also know most of these patents or usually irrational and form a heavy burden on developers/software engineers. Now, as far as I know, EU rules are lots more ratinal, but there has been lobbying to also apply the same rules in EU. http://www.nosoftwarepatents.com http://www.stopsoftwarepatents.eu So what's the deal actually ? For example, there's mention of a patent on a shopping cart : http://v3.espacenet.com/publicationDetails/biblio?CC=EP&NR=807891&KC=&FT=E Is that true ? Is a "shopping cart" patented ??? .................. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1396191/what-should-every-developer-know-about-legal-matters : 4.Software patent lawsuits are crap shoots. You should not, of course, knowingly violate a software patent. However, there is a small but real chance some company will sue you for violating their patent. This may happen even if you develop your software independently, you never heard of the patent, and the patent covers a technique that is intuitively obvious and almost completely unrelated to your software. There is not a lot you can do to avoid this, given the current USPTO policies, other than buy insurance. The good news is that patent trolls generally sue large companies with lots of money.

    Read the article

  • multiple ajax requests with jquery

    - by Emil
    I got problems with the async nature of Javascript / JQuery. Lets say the following (no latency is counted for, in order to not make it so troublesome); I got three buttons (A, B, C) on a page, each of the buttons adds an item into a shopping cart with one ajax-request each. If I put an intentional delay of 5 seconds in the serverside script (PHP) and pushes the buttons with 1 second apart, I want the result to be the following: Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 6 seconds Request C, 7 seconds However, the result is like this Request A, 5 seconds Request B, 10 seconds Request C, 15 seconds This have to mean that the requests are queued and not run simultaneously, right? Isnt this opposite to what async is? I also tried to add a random get-parameter to the url in order to force some uniqueness to the request, no luck though. I did read a little about this. If you avoid using the same "request object (?)" this problem wont occure. Is it possible to force this behaviour in JQuery? This is the code that I am using $.ajax( { url : strAjaxUrl + '?random=' + Math.floor(Math.random()*9999999999), data : 'ajax=add-to-cart&product=' + product, type : 'GET', success : function(responseData) { // update ui }, error : function(responseData) { // show error } }); I also tried both GET and POST, no difference. I want the requests to be sent right when the button is clicked, not when the previous request is finnished. I want the requests to be run simultaneously, not in a queue.

    Read the article

  • Floating Point Arithmetic - Modulo Operator on Double Type

    - by CrimsonX
    So I'm trying to figure out why the modulo operator is returning such a large unusual value. If I have the code: double result = 1.0d % 0.1d; it will give a result of 0.09999999999999995. I would expect a value of 0 Note this problem doesn't exist using the dividing operator - double result = 1.0d / 0.1d; will give a result of 10.0, meaning that the remainder should be 0. Let me be clear: I'm not surprised that an error exists, I'm surprised that the error is so darn large compared to the numbers at play. 0.0999 ~= 0.1 and 0.1 is on the same order of magnitude as 0.1d and only one order of magnitude away from 1.0d. Its not like you can compare it to a double.epsilon, or say "its equal if its < 0.00001 difference". I've read up on this topic on StackOverflow, in the following posts one two three, amongst others. Can anyone suggest explain why this error is so large? Any any suggestions to avoid running into the problems in the future (I know I could use decimal instead but I'm concerned about the performance of that).

    Read the article

  • Why does this test fail?

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I'm trying to test/spec the following action method public virtual ActionResult ChangePassword(ChangePasswordModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (MembershipService.ChangePassword(User.Identity.Name, model.OldPassword, model.NewPassword)) { return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePasswordSuccess); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The current password is incorrect or the new password is invalid."); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction(MVC.Account.Actions.ChangePassword); } with the following MSpec specification: public class When_a_change_password_request_is_successful : with_a_change_password_input_model { Establish context = () => { membershipService.Setup(s => s.ChangePassword(Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>(), Param.IsAny<string>())).Returns(true); controller.SetFakeControllerContext("POST"); }; Because of = () => controller.ChangePassword(inputModel); ThenIt should_be_a_redirect_result = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute(); ThenIt should_redirect_to_success_page = () => result.ShouldBeARedirectToRoute().And().ShouldRedirectToAction<AccountController>(c => c.ChangePasswordSuccess()); } where with_a_change_password_input_model is a base class that instantiates the input model, sets up a mock for the IMembershipService etc. The test fails on the first ThenIt (which is just an alias I'm using to avoid conflict with Moq...) with the following error description: Machine.Specifications.SpecificationException: Should be of type System.RuntimeType but is [null] But I am returning something - in fact, a RedirectToRouteResult - in each way the method can terminate! Why does MSpec believe the result to be null?

    Read the article

  • Strange layout behaviour

    - by andrii
    I am a little bit confused. Here is an small web page. There are two main div-s: top and mainBlock. First contain image. The problem is that firebug shows that div#top's height is equal to 0 and because of that the next div mainBlock moves up. If I would delete this peace of code: div#logo{ float: left; } everything will start working fine and div#mainBlock will be below the div#top. Could you, please, explain me how it works and how to avoid this in proper way? Here is my code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"/> <title>Paralab - Website &amp; interface design, web apps development, usability</title> <style text="text/css"> html, body{ } div#logo{ float: left; } #top{ width: 100%; } #mainBlock{ width:100%; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="top"> <div id="logo"> <img alt="logo" src="img/logo.png" /> </div> </div> <div id="mainBlock"> Contact Us </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • simplemodal - IE8 $.support.boxModel is not NULL and no object

    - by tom007
    Hi, I try to use the simplmodal script from: http://www.ericmmartin.com/projects/simplemodal/ I got this error $.support.boxModel is not NULL.. in IE8. jquery.simplemodal-1.3.4.min.js?F This is my implementation scipt.. what I have to change to avoid this error? function loadIframe(url){ $.modal('<iframe src="' + url + '" height="700px" width="600px" scrolling="no">', { containerCss:{ backgroundColor:"#fff", borderColor:"#333", }, overlayClose:true, opacity:70, overlayCss: { backgroundColor:"#000" }, onOpen: function (dialog) { dialog.overlay.fadeIn('slow', function () { dialog.container.toggleClass("preloader"); dialog.data.hide(); dialog.container.fadeIn('slow', function () { dialog.container.toggleClass("preloader"); dialog.data.slideDown('slow'); }); }); }, onClose: function (dialog) { dialog.data.fadeOut('slow', function () { dialog.container.slideUp('slow', function () { dialog.overlay.fadeOut('slow', function () { $.modal.close(); // must call this! }); }); }); } }); } $(document).ready(function(){ $("img").click(function(){ var baseurl = location.host; var url = $(this).attr("target"); var url = 'http://' + baseurl + url; loadIframe(url); }); });

    Read the article

  • Problems running XNA game on 64-bit Windows 7

    - by Tesserex
    I'm having problems getting my game engine to run on my brother's machine, which is running 64-bit Windows 7. I'm developing on 32-bit XP SP2. My app uses XNA, FMOD.NET, and another dll I wrote entirely in C#. Everything is targeted to x86, not AnyCPU. I've read that this is required for XNA to work because there is no 64-bit xna framework. I recompiled FMOD.NET as x86 as well and made sure to be using the 32-bit version of the native dll. So I don't see any problems there. However when he tries to run my app, it gives an error which is mysterious, but not unheard of. A FileNotFoundException with an empty file name, and the top of the stack trace is in my main form constructor. The message is The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E) I found some threads online about this error, all with very vague, mixed, and fuzzy responses that don't really help me. Most remind people to target x86. Some say check that they have all the dlls necessary. I gave my brother Microsoft.Xna.Framework.dll, but does he need to install the entire XNA redistributable package? When I take everything I sent him and stick it in a random directory, it still runs fine for me. I developed the game in VS2008, not in game studio, using XNA 3.0 and a Windows Forms control that uses XNA drawing which I found in an msdn tutorial. I would also like to avoid requiring a full installer if possible. Any insight? Please?

    Read the article

  • How should i organize authority code?

    - by acidzombie24
    I have users that fall into the following Not logged in Not Verified Verified Moderator Admin All code that only admin and moderators can access (like banning) is in ModeratorUser which inherits from verified which inherits from BaseUser. Some pages are accessible to all users such as public profiles. If a user is logged in he can leave a comment. To check this i use if (IsVerifiedUser). Now here is the problem. To avoid problems if a user is banned he is not recognized as a verified user. However in the rare case i need to know if he is verified i can use usertype & Verified. Should i not be doing this? I have a bunch of code in my VerifiedUser class and find i am moving tons of it to BaseUser. Is this something i help because a not logged in user can access the page? Should i handle the ban user in a different way and allow IsVerifiedUser to be true even if the user is banned?

    Read the article

  • wxGraphicsContext dreadfully slow on Windows

    - by Jonatan
    I've implemented a plotter using wxGraphicsContext. The development was done using wxGTK, and the graphics was very fast. Then I switched to Windows (XP) using wxWidgets 2.9.0. And the same code is extremely slow. It takes about 350 ms to render a frame. Since the user is able to drag the plotter with the mouse to navigate it feels very sluggish with such a slow update rate. I've tried to implement some parts using wxDC and benchmarked the difference. With wxDC the code runs just about 100 times faster. As far as I know both Cairo and GDI+ are implemented in software at this point, so there's no real reason Cairo should be so much faster than GDI+. Am I doing something wrong? Or is the GDI+ implementation just not up on par with Cairo? One small note: I'm rendering to a wxBitmap now, with the wxGraphicsContext created from a wxMemoryDC. This is to avoid flicker on XP, since double buffering doesn't work there.

    Read the article

  • php parsing speed optimization

    - by Arnaud
    I would like to add tooltip or generate link according to the element available in the database, for exemple if the html page printed is: to reboot your linux host in single-user mode you can ... I will use explode(" ", $row[page]) and the idea is now to lookup for every single word in the page to find out if they have a related referance in this exemple let's say i've got a table referance an one entry for reboot and one for linux reboot: restart a computeur linux: operating system now my output will look like (replaced < and by @) to @a href="ref/reboot"@reboot@/a@ your @a href="ref/linux"@linux@/a@ host in single-user mode you can ... Instead of have a static list generated when I saved the content, if I add more keyword in the future, then the text will become more interactive. My main concerne and question is how can I create a efficient enough process to do it ? Should I store all the db entry in an array and compare them ? Do an sql query for each word (seems to be crazy) Dump the table in a file and use a very long regex or a "grep -f pattern data" way of doing it? Or or or or I'm sure it must be a better way of doing it, just don't have a clue about it, or maybe this will be far too resource un-friendly and I should avoid doing such things. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • magento payment process.. how it works in general

    - by spirytus
    hi everyone, got a question and I hope this is right place to ask :).. don’t quite understand how payment works in magento. client goes to checkout and lets say wants to pay as a guest, so provides address etc. and finally gets to payment methods. Then I want clients to pay thru credit card. Already have module installed for gateway (bank?) of my choice. At that point I would expect users to be redirected to 3rd party page (bank hosted) where they giving all the details, only after being returned to my magento site with appropriate message. In magento however it seems like they need to provide cc numbers and details on magento checkout page. I don’t understand if I (or the payment module I installed) need to transfer then all the credit card details to bank? I would have to have checkout page on ssl connection and static ip right? The thing is I want to avoid touching CC numbers at any point and would love to have it done by a bank page. I like the idea of magento interface all the way without redirecting to another page though, the only problem is not sure if would be able to set it all up properly. If anyone could explain to me possible options, what is the common way to do it and how the whole process works that would be very much appreciated. I did my research and looked all over google and various forums still need someones help though. Please let me know if some parts of my question are not quite clear, will try to better explain if necessary.

    Read the article

  • URL shortening: using inode as short name?

    - by Licky Lindsay
    The site I am working on wants to generate its own shortened URLs rather than rely on a third party like tinyurl or bit.ly. Obviously I could keep a running count new URLs as they are added to the site and use that to generate the short URLs. But I am trying to avoid that if possible since it seems like a lot of work just to make this one thing work. As the things that need short URLs are all real physical files on the webserver my current solution is to use their inode numbers as those are already generated for me ready to use and guaranteed to be unique. function short_name($file) { $ino = @fileinode($file); $s = base_convert($ino, 10, 36); return $s; } This seems to work. Question is, what can I do to make the short URL even shorter? On the system where this is being used, the inodes for newly added files are in a range that makes the function above return a string 7 characters long. Can I safely throw away some (half?) of the bits of the inode? And if so, should it be the high bits or the low bits? I thought of using the crc32 of the filename, but that actually makes my short names longer than using the inode. Would something like this have any risk of collisions? I've been able to get down to single digits by picking the right value of "$referencefile". function short_name($file) { $ino = @fileinode($file); // arbitrarily selected pre-existing file, // as all newer files will have higher inodes $ino = $ino - @fileinode($referencefile); $s = base_convert($ino, 10, 36); return $s; }

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to use Linq projections with extension methods

    - by Acoustic
    I'm trying to use AutoMapper and a repository pattern along with a fluent interface, and running into difficulty with the Linq projection. For what it's worth, this code works fine when simply using in-memory objects. When using a database provider, however, it breaks when constructing the query graph. I've tried both SubSonic and Linq to SQL with the same result. Thanks for your ideas. Here's an extension method used in all scenarios - It's the source of the problem since everything works fine without using extension methods public static IQueryable<MyUser> ByName(this IQueryable<MyUser> users, string firstName) { return from u in users where u.FirstName == firstName select u; } Here's the in-memory code that works fine var userlist = new List<User> {new User{FirstName = "Test", LastName = "User"}}; Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = (from u in userlist select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u)) .AsQueryable() .ByName("Test"); foreach (var x in result) { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } Here's the same thing using a SubSonic (or Linq to SQL or whatever) that fails. This is what I'd like to make work somehow with extension methods... Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u); var final = result.ByName("Test"); foreach(var x in final) // Fails here when the query graph built. { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } The goal here is to avoid having to manually map the generated "User" object to the "MyUser" domain object- in other words, I'm trying to find a way to use AutoMapper so I don't have this kind of mapping code everywhere a database read operation is needed: var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select new MyUser // Can this be avoided with AutoMapper AND extension methods? { FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName };

    Read the article

  • How do I design a Wizard-based system with SoC in mind?

    - by Erik Forbes
    I'm building a Windows Forms system (in C# if it matters to anyone) that provides an application automation service. As this application is targeted at users who are not computer savvy, I've decided to break up the functions of the application into various tasks, and provide these tasks via a wizard UI. I'd like to avoid coupling the views and view engine (from which the Wizard will be built) to the automation engine. The problem I'm having is that the automation engine, which runs on a separate thread while it does its thing, needs to report status information back to the user, as well as listen for cancel or pause events from the user. Since I don't want the view engine or the automation engine to rely on each other, I'm having a hard time figuring out how to provide for this information conduit. Any insights into this issue I'm having would be greatly appreciated. I've been wracking my brain for a couple weeks now on this point, and I really don't want to give up and just couple everything together. If anyone needs additional details to help come up with some sort of idea please let me know and I'll be happy to provide them.

    Read the article

  • Haskell: "how much" of a type should functions receive? and avoiding complete "reconstruction"

    - by L01man
    I've got these data types: data PointPlus = PointPlus { coords :: Point , velocity :: Vector } deriving (Eq) data BodyGeo = BodyGeo { pointPlus :: PointPlus , size :: Point } deriving (Eq) data Body = Body { geo :: BodyGeo , pict :: Color } deriving (Eq) It's the base datatype for characters, enemies, objects, etc. in my game (well, I just have two rectangles as the player and the ground right now :p). When a key, the characters moves right, left or jumps by changing its velocity. Moving is done by adding the velocity to the coords. Currently, it's written as follows: move (PointPlus (x, y) (xi, yi)) = PointPlus (x + xi, y + yi) (xi, yi) I'm just taking the PointPlus part of my Body and not the entire Body, otherwise it would be: move (Body (BodyGeo (PointPlus (x, y) (xi, yi)) wh) col) = (Body (BodyGeo (PointPlus (x + xi, y + yi) (xi, yi)) wh) col) Is the first version of move better? Anyway, if move only changes PointPlus, there must be another function that calls it inside a new Body. I explain: there's a function update which is called to update the game state; it is passed the current game state, a single Body for now, and returns the updated Body. update (Body (BodyGeo (PointPlus xy (xi, yi)) wh) pict) = (Body (BodyGeo (move (PointPlus xy (xi, yi))) wh) pict) That tickles me. Everything is kept the same within Body except the PointPlus. Is there a way to avoid this complete "reconstruction" by hand? Like in: update body = backInBody $ move $ pointPlus body Without having to define backInBody, of course.

    Read the article

  • jquery timout funcation not work properly

    - by 3gwebtrain
    HI, i ma using the settimeout function to display block and append to 'li', once the mouseover. and i just want to remove the block and make it none. in my funcation works fine. but problem is even just my mouse cross the li, it self the block getting visibile. how to avoid this? my code is: var thisLi; var storedTimeoutID; $("ul.redwood-user li,ul.user-list li").live("mouseover", function(){ thisLi = $(this); var needShow = thisLi.children('a.copier-link'); if($(needShow).is(':hidden')){ storedTimeoutID = setTimeout(function(){$(thisLi).children('a.copier-link').appendTo(thisLi).show();},3000); } else{ storedTimeoutID = setTimeout(function(){$(thisLi).siblings().children('a.copier-link').appendTo(thisLi).show();},3000); } }); $("ul.redwood-user li,ul.user-list li").live("mouseleave", function(){ clearTimeout(storedTimeoutID); //$('ul.redwood-user li').children('a.copier-link').hide(); $('ul.user-list li').children('a.copier-link').hide(); });

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460  | Next Page >