Search Results

Search found 62701 results on 2509 pages for 'sql function'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 453/2509 | < Previous Page | 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460  | Next Page >

  • In SQL Server 2005, how can I use database_b, do something, then use the old db database_a in TSQL?

    - by Yousui
    Hi guys, In SQL Server 2005, how can I use database_b, do something, then use the old db database_a in TSQL? The following is my code but there is some problem with it. Who can help me to identity the problem? Great thanks. DECLARE @old_database_name VARCHAR(200) SET @old_database_name = db_name() use mydatabase create table t1(id int identity(1,1)) use @old_database_name

    Read the article

  • More efficient SQL than using "A UNION (B in A)"?

    - by machinatus
    Edit 1 (clarification): Thank you for the answers so far! The response is gratifying. I want to clarify the question a little because based on the answers I think I did not describe one aspect of the problem correctly (and I'm sure that's my fault as I was having a difficult time defining it even for myself). Here's the rub: The result set should contain ONLY the records with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09', AND the one record where the tstamp IS NULL for each order_num in the first set (there will always be one with null tstamp for each order_num). The answers given so far appear to include all records for a certain order_num if there are any with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. For example, if there were another record with order_num = 2 and tstamp = 2010-01-12 00:00:00 it should not be included in the result. Original question: Consider an orders table containing id (unique), order_num, tstamp (a timestamp), and item_id (the single item included in an order). tstamp is null, unless the order has been modified, in which case there is another record with identical order_num and tstamp then contains the timestamp of when the change occurred. Example... id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 0 1 100 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 3 3 113 4 4 124 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 8 6 100 9 6 2010-01-13 08:33:55 105 What is the most efficient SQL statement to retrieve all of the orders (based on order_num) which have been modified one or more times during a certain date range? In other words, for each order we need all of the records with the same order_num (including the one with NULL tstamp), for each order_num WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL AND tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. It's the "WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL" that I'm having difficulty with. The result set should look like this: id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 The SQL that I came up with is this, which is essentially "A UNION (B in A)", but it executes slowly and I hope there is a more efficient solution: SELECT history_orders.order_id, history_orders.tstamp, history_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09') AS history_orders UNION SELECT current_orders.order_id, current_orders.tstamp, current_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp IS NULL) AS current_orders WHERE current_orders.order_id IN (SELECT orders.order_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09');

    Read the article

  • JavaScript - Settting property on Object in Image load function, property not set once outside funct

    - by Sunday Ironfoot
    Sometimes JavaScript doesn't make sense to me, consider the following code that generates a photo mosaic based on x/y tiles. I'm trying to set a .Done property to true once each Mosaic image has been downloaded, but it's always false for some reason, what am I doing wrong? var tileData = []; function generate() { var image = new Image(); image.onload = function() { // Build up the 'tileData' array with tile objects from this Image for (var i = 0; i < tileData.length; i++) { var tile = tileData[i]; var tileImage = new Image(); tileImage.onload = function() { // Do something with this tile Image tile.Done = true; }; tileImage.src = tile.ImageUrl; } }; image.src = 'Penguins.jpg'; tryDisplayMosaic(); } function tryDisplayMosaic() { setTimeout(function() { for (var i = 0; i < tileData.length; i++) { var tile = tileData[i]; if (!tile.Done) { tryDisplayMosaic(); return; } } // If we get here then all the tiles have been downloaded alert('All images downloaded'); }, 2000); } Now for some reason the .Done property on the tile object is always false, even though it is explicitly being set to true inside tileImage.onload = function(). And I can ensure you that this function DOES get called because I've placed an alert() call inside it. Right now it's just stuck inside an infinite loop calling tryDisplayMosaic() constantly. Also if I place a loop just before tryDisplayMosaic() is called, and in that loop I set .Done = true, then .Done property is true and alert('All images downloaded'); will get called.

    Read the article

  • Subset a data.frame by list and apply function on each part, by rows

    - by aL3xa
    This may seem as a typical plyr problem, but I have something different in mind. Here's the function that I want to optimize (skip the for loop). # dummy data set.seed(1985) lst <- list(a=1:10, b=11:15, c=16:20) m <- matrix(round(runif(200, 1, 7)), 10) m <- as.data.frame(m) dfsub <- function(dt, lst, fun) { # check whether dt is `data.frame` stopifnot (is.data.frame(dt)) # check if vectors in lst are "whole" / integer # vector elements should be column indexes is.wholenumber <- function(x, tol = .Machine$double.eps^0.5) abs(x - round(x)) < tol # fall if any non-integers in list idx <- rapply(lst, is.wholenumber) stopifnot(idx) # check for list length stopifnot(ncol(dt) == length(idx)) # subset the data subs <- list() for (i in 1:length(lst)) { # apply function on each part, by row subs[[i]] <- apply(dt[ , lst[[i]]], 1, fun) } # preserve names names(subs) <- names(lst) # convert to data.frame subs <- as.data.frame(subs) # guess what =) return(subs) } And now a short demonstration... actually, I'm about to explain what I primarily intended to do. I wanted to subset a data.frame by vectors gathered in list object. Since this is a part of code from a function that accompanies data manipulation in psychological research, you can consider m as a results from personality questionnaire (10 subjects, 20 vars). Vectors in list hold column indexes that define questionnaire subscales (e.g. personality traits). Each subscale is defined by several items (columns in data.frame). If we presuppose that the score on each subscale is nothing more than sum (or some other function) of row values (results on that part of questionnaire for each subject), you could run: > dfsub(m, lst, sum) a b c 1 46 20 24 2 41 24 21 3 41 13 12 4 37 14 18 5 57 18 25 6 27 18 18 7 28 17 20 8 31 18 23 9 38 14 15 10 41 14 22 I took a glance at this function and I must admit that this little loop isn't spoiling the code at all... BUT, if there's an easier/efficient way of doing this, please, let me know!

    Read the article

  • Having problem with jQuery Countdown? Function serverSync: serverTime

    - by ricky roy
    serverSync: serverTime Function return value from server but I have checked both server and client time both are same.When i called server to sync with server it will not display countdown. help me ? $(function() { var shortly = new Date(); var newTime = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); //for loop divid /// $('#defaultCountdown').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, serverSync: serverTime }); $('#div1').countdown({ until: newTime }); }); function serverTime() { var time = null; $.ajax({ type: "POST", //Page Name (in which the method should be called) and method name url: "Default.aspx/GetTime", // If you want to pass parameter or data to server side function you can try line contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{}", async: false, //else If you don't want to pass any value to server side function leave the data to blank line below //data: "{}", success: function(msg) { //Got the response from server and render to the client time = new Date(msg.d); alert(time); }, error: function(msg) { time = new Date(); alert('1'); } }); shortly = time; return time; }

    Read the article

  • External API function calls AS3 control timeline

    - by giles
    I have function problem using this code (below), the embedded flash movieclip disappears or completely prevents the scrollto.js query to function in DW cs3. Communication between Flash and JavaScript is without problems, it is the call back I can't find to work and more frustratingly, should be simple, as no values are not required. So far, this has been hours of scouring the net without a workable end in sight...ahrr. What is a function for this to work? JavaScript – to call Flash event from HTML button link, placed between head tags function callExternalInterface() var flashMovie = window.document.menu; flashMovie.menu_up(value); menu_up is the string. Does anyone know of workable function for callback?? HTML <div id="btn_up"><a href="#top" name="charDev" id="charDev" onclick="">top</a></div> Pane navigation div that uses Scrollto.js query, and it's this link I need calling back to the embedded "menubtns.swf" (nested in "AS3Menu_javascript.swf") to play 5 frames of this movieclip, via a JS function. Embedded .swf code, using swfobject.js with allowScriptAccess=always <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" name="menu"<br/> width="251" height="251" id="menu"> <param name="movie" value="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="ExternalInterfaceScript.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" width="250" height="250"> <p>Alternative content</p> </object> </object> AS3 / Flash import flash.external.ExternalInterface;flash.system.Security.allowDomain(/sourceDomain/); ExternalInterface.addCallBack("menu_up", this, resetmenu); function resetmenu(){ gotoAndPlay:("frame label" / "number") }

    Read the article

  • Can I copy/clone a function in JavaScript?

    - by Craig Stuntz
    I'm using jQuery with the validators plugin. I would like to replace the "required" validator with one of my own. This is easy: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { return myRequired(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); So far, so good. This works just fine. But what I really want to do is call my function in some cases, and the default validator for the rest. Unfortunately, this turns out to be recursive: jQuery.validator.addMethod("required", function(value, element, param) { // handle comboboxes with empty guids if (someTest(element)) { return myRequired(value, element, param); } return jQuery.validator.methods.required(value, element, param); }, jQuery.validator.messages.required); I looked at the source code for the validators, and the default implementation of "required" is defined as an anonymous method at jQuery.validator.messages.required. So there is no other (non-anonymous) reference to the function that I can use. Storing a reference to the function externally before calling addMethod and calling the default validator via that reference makes no difference. What I really need to do is to be able to copy the default required validator function by value instead of by reference. But after quite a bit of searching, I can't figure out how to do that. Is it possible? If it's impossible, then I can copy the source for the original function. But that creates a maintenance problem, and I would rather not do that unless there is no "better way."

    Read the article

  • Calling javascript function on the Mousehoever and mouseout using jQuery

    - by Wazdesign
    I want to call the javascript function using mousehover jQuery event. Here is the one function. // On mouse hover function function ShowHighlighter(d, highlight_elid) { //alert ("ShowHighlighter\n"+d); if (d == "addHighlight") { var txt = getSelText(); if (txt.length < 1) { return; } ShowContent(d); } else if (d == "deleteHighlight") { var elid = "#"+d; jQuery(elid).stop(); ShowContent(d); delete_highlight_id = "#"+highlight_elid; } } // on Mouse out function function HideContent(d) { if(d.length < 1) { return; } document.getElementById(d).style.display = "none"; } I am trying to use this function ... but it not seems to be working. jQuery('a[href="HIGHLIGHT_CREATELINK"]').mouseover(ShowHighlighter("deleteHighlight","highlight"+ randomCount + ");) ; jQuery('a[href="HIGHLIGHT_CREATELINK"]').mouseout('javascript:HideContentFade(\"deleteHighlight\");') please help me out in this. thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to return a recordset from a function

    - by Scott
    I'm building a data access layer in Excel VBA and having trouble returning a recordset. The Execute() function in my class is definitely retrieving a row from the database, but doesn't seem to be returning anything. The following function is contained in a class called DataAccessLayer. The class contains functions Connect and Disconnect which handle opening and closing the connection. Public Function Execute(ByVal sqlQuery as String) As ADODB.recordset Set recordset = New ADODB.recordset Dim recordsAffected As Long ' Make sure we are connected to the database. If Connect Then Set command = New ADODB.command With command .ActiveConnection = connection .CommandText = sqlQuery .CommandType = adCmdText End With ' These seem to be equivalent. 'Set recordset = command.Execute(recordsAffected) recordset.Open command.Execute(recordsAffected) Set Execute = recordset recordset.ActiveConnection = Nothing recordset.Close Set command = Nothing Call Disconnect End If Set recordset = Nothing End Function Here's a public function that I'm using in cell A1 of my spreadsheet for testing. Public Function Scott_Test() Dim Database As New DataAccessLayer 'Dim rs As ADODB.recordset 'Set rs = CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Set rs = New ADODB.recordset Set rs = Database.Execute("SELECT item_desc_1 FROM imitmidx_sql WHERE item_no = '11001'") 'rs.Open Database.Execute("SELECT item_desc_1 FROM imitmidx_sql WHERE item_no = '11001'") 'rs.Open ' This never displays. MsgBox rs.EOF If Not rs.EOF Then ' This is displaying #VALUE! in cell A1. Scott_Test = rs!item_desc_1 End If rs.ActiveConnection = Nothing Set rs = Nothing End Function What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Matlab and .net problem with character string function input

    - by Peter
    I have a MATLAB function that I've compiled into a .net library. The function is a simple one that takes a character array as an input and a numeric array as output: function insert = money(dateLimit) .. insert = [1 2]; The function works fine when no function arguments are specified (a default argument is provided inside the function) Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim output = sf.money() As soon as an argument is specified .net complains. I'm thinking this should be easy and has been done before but searching through MATLAB documentation doesn't offer much help. Here's what I've tried. The sf.money() overload for the function with arguments is (numArgsOut as Integer, argsOut as MWArray, argsIn as MWArray) and hence that's what I've tried. What am I missing? Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim inputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWCharArray Dim dateLimitString As String = "some string" inputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWCharArray(dateLimitString) Dim outputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWNumericArray outputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWNumericArray() sf.money(1, outputArgs, inputArgs) Gives System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, Int32 numArgsIn, MWArray[] argsIn) at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn) at SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder.money(Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn)

    Read the article

  • Pass a data.frame column name to a function

    - by Kevin Middleton
    I'm trying to write a function to accept a data.frame (x) and a column from it. The function performs some calculations on x and later returns another data.frame. I'm stuck on the best-practices method to pass the column name to the function. The two minimal examples fun1 and fun2 below produce the desired result, being able to perform operations on x$column, using max() as an example. However, both rely on the seemingly (at least to me) inelegant (1) call to substitute() and possibly eval() and (2) the need to pass the column name as a character vector. fun1 <- function(x, column){ do.call("max", list(substitute(x[a], list(a = column)))) } fun2 <- function(x, column){ max(eval((substitute(x[a], list(a = column))))) } df <- data.frame(A = 1:20, B = rnorm(10)) fun1(df, "B") fun2(df, "B") I would like to be able to call the function as fun(df, B), for example. Other options I have considered but have not tried: Pass column as an integer of the column number. I think this would avoid substitute(). Ideally, the function could accept either. with(x, get(column)), but, even if it works, I think this would still require substitute Make use of formula() and match.call(), neither of which I have much experience with. Subquestion: Is do.call() preferred over eval()? Thanks, Kevin

    Read the article

  • javascript scope problem when lambda function refers to a variable in enclosing loop

    - by Stefan Blixt
    First question on stackoverflow :) Hope I won't embarrass myself... I have a javascript function that loads a list of albums and then it creates a list item for each album. The list item should be clickable, so I call jQuery's click() with a function that does stuff. I do this in a loop. My problem is that all items seem to get the same click function, even though I try to make a new one that does different stuff in each iteration. Another possibility is that the iteration variable is global somehow, and the function refers to it. Code below. debug() is just an encapsulation of Firebug's console.debug(). function processAlbumList(data, c) { for (var album in data) { var newAlbum = $('<li class="albumLoader">' + data[album].title + '</li>').clone(); var clickAlbum = function() { debug("contents: " + album); }; debug("Album: " + album + "/" + data[album].title); $('.albumlist').append(newAlbum); $(newAlbum).click(clickAlbum); } } Here is a transcript of what it prints when the above function runs, after that are some debug lines caused by me clicking on different items. It always prints "10", which is the last value that the album variable takes (there are 10 albums). Album: 0/Live on radio.electro-music.com Album: 1/Doodles Album: 2/Misc Stuff Album: 3/Drawer Collection Album: 4/Misc Electronic Stuff Album: 5/Odds & Ends Album: 6/Tumbler Album: 7/Bakelit 32 Album: 8/Film Album: 9/Bakelit Album: 10/Slow Zoom/Atomic Heart contents: 10 contents: 10 contents: 10 contents: 10 contents: 10 Any ideas? Driving me up the wall, this is. :) /Stefan

    Read the article

  • constructor function's object literal returns toString() method but no other method

    - by JohnMerlino
    I'm very confused with javascript methods defined in objects and the "this" keyword. In the below example, the toString() method is invoked when Mammal object instantiated: function Mammal(name){ this.name=name; this.toString = function(){ return '[Mammal "'+this.name+'"]'; } } var someAnimal = new Mammal('Mr. Biggles'); alert('someAnimal is '+someAnimal); Despite the fact that the toString() method is not invoked on the object someAnimal like this: alert('someAnimal is '+someAnimal.toString()); It still returns 'someAnimal is [Mammal "Mr. Biggles"]' . That doesn't make sense to me because the toString() function is not being called anywhere. Then to add even more confusion, if I change the toString() method to a method I make up such as random(): function Mammal(name){ this.name=name; this.random = function(){ return Math.floor(Math.random() * 15); } } var someAnimal = new Mammal('Mr. Biggles'); alert(someAnimal); It completely ignores the random method (despite the fact that it is defined the same way was the toString() method was) and returns: [object object] Another issue I'm having trouble understanding with inheritance is the value of "this". For example, in the below example function person(w,h){ width.width = w; width.height = h; } function man(w,h,s) { person.call(this, w, h); this.sex = s; } "this" keyword is being send to the person object clearly. However, does "this" refer to the subclass (man) or the super class (person) when the person object receives it? Thanks for clearing up any of the confusion I have with inheritance and object literals in javascript.

    Read the article

  • Would this method work to scale out SQL queries?

    - by David
    I have a database containing a single huge table. At the moment a query can take anything from 10 to 20 minutes and I need that to go down to 10 seconds. I have spent months trying different products like GridSQL. GridSQL works fine, but is using its own parser which does not have all the needed features. I have also optimized my database in various ways without getting the speedup I need. I have a theory on how one could scale out queries, meaning that I utilize several nodes to run a single query in parallel. The idea is to take an incoming SQL query and simply run it exactly like it is on all the nodes. When the results are returned to a coordinator node, the same query is run on the union of the resultsets. I realize that an aggregate function like average need to be rewritten into a count and sum to the nodes and that the coordinator divides the sum of the sums with the sum of the counts to get the average. What kinds of problems could not easily be solved using this model. I believe one issue would be the count distinct function. Edit: I am getting so many nice suggestions, but none have addressed the method.

    Read the article

  • Improving Performance on this Image Creation function

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I am making use of GD2 and the image functions to take in a string and then convert that into an image using different fonts at different sizes. The function I use is below. Currently, its pretty quick but not quick enough. The function gets called about 20 times per user and the images generated are always new ones (different) so caching isn't going to help! I was hoping to get some ideas on how to make this function faster. Maybe supply more RAM to the script running? Anything else that is specific to this PHP function? Anything else that I can do to tweak performance of this function? function generate_image($save_path, $text, $font_path, $font_size){ $font = $font_path; /* * I have simplifed the line below, its actually a function that works out the size of the box * that is need for each image as the image size is different based on font type, font size etc */ $measure = array('width' => 300, 'height'=> 120); if($measure['width'] > 900){ $measure['width'] = 900; } $im = imagecreatetruecolor($measure['width'], $measure['height']); $white = imagecolorallocate($im, 255, 255, 255); $black = imagecolorallocate($im, 0, 0, 0); imagefilledrectangle($im, 0, 0, $measure['width'], $measure['height'], $white); imagettftext($im, $font_size, 0, $measure['left'], $measure['top'], $black, $font, ' '.$text); if(imagepng($im, $save_path)){ $status = true; }else{ $status = false; } imagedestroy($im); return $status; } Thanks all for any help

    Read the article

  • Binding mousemove within mousedown function with jQuery

    - by colinjameswebb
    I am trying to bind a mousemove event to a div when the left mousebutton is down, and unbind when it is released. This code should be fairly self-explainatory. function handleMouseDown(e, sbar){ if (e.button == 0){ console.log(sbar); //firebug sbar.bind('mousemove', function(event){ handleMouseMove(event, sbar); }); } } function handleMouseUp(e, sbar){ sbar.unbind('mousemove'); } function handleMouseMove(e, sbar){ // not sure it this will work yet, but unimportant $(".position").html(e.pageX); } $(document).ready(function (){ var statusbar = $(".statusbar"); statusbar.mousedown(function(event){ handleMouseDown(event, this); }); statusbar.mouseup(function(event){ handleMouseUp(event, this); }); }); The important part of the HTML looks like this <div id="main"> <div class="statusbar"> <p class="position"></p> </div> </div> Firebug says that the bind methods are undefined on the variable sbar within handleMouseDown and handleMouseUp. The firebug console prints out <div class="statusbar"> for the line commented //firebug. I'm doing something wrong, probably when binding the mousedown and mouseup... but what?! I'm using jQuery v1.4.2, if that helps?

    Read the article

  • How to write this function as a pL/pgSQl function ?

    - by morpheous
    I am trying to implement some business logic in a PL/pgSQL function. I have hacked together some pseudo code that explains the type of business logic I want to include in the function. Note: This function returns a table, so I can use it in a query like: SELECT A.col1, B.col1 FROM (SELECT * from some_table_returning_func(1, 1, 2, 3)) as A, tbl2 as B; The pseudocode of the pl/PgSQL function is below: CREATE FUNCTION some_table_returning_func(uid int, type_id int, filter_type_id int, filter_id int) RETURNS TABLE AS $$ DECLARE where_clause text := 'tbl1.id = ' + uid; ret TABLE; BEGIN switch (filter_type_id) { case 1: switch (filter_id) { case 1: where_clause += ' AND tbl1.item_id = tbl2.id AND tbl2.type_id = filter_id'; break; //other cases follow ... } break; //other cases follow ... } // where clause has been built, now run query based on the type ret = SELECT [COL1, ... COLN] WHERE where_clause; IF (type_id <> 1) THEN return ret; ELSE return select * from another_table_returning_func(ret,123); ENDIF; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; I have the following questions: How can I write the function correctly to (i.e. EXECUTE the query with the generated WHERE clause, and to return a table How can I write a PL/pgSQL function that accepts a table and an integer and returns a table (another_table_returning_func) ?

    Read the article

  • Passing an Ajax variable to a Codeigniter function

    - by Matt
    Hello, I think this is a simple one. I have a Codeigniter function which takes the inputs from a form and inserts them into a database. I want to Ajaxify the process. At the moment the first line of the function gets the id field from the form - I need to change this to get the id field from the Ajax post (which references a hidden field in the form containing the necessary value) instead. How do I do this please? My Codeigniter Controller function function add() { $product = $this->products_model->get($this->input->post('id')); $insert = array( 'id' => $this->input->post('id'), 'qty' => 1, 'price' => $product->price, 'size' => $product->size, 'name' => $product->name ); $this->cart->insert($insert); redirect('home'); } And the jQuery Ajax function $("#form").submit(function(){ var dataString = $("input#id") //alert (dataString);return false; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/home/add", data: dataString, success: function() { } }); return false; }); As always, many thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • PHP: passing a function with parameters as parameter

    - by Oden
    Hey, I'm not sure that silly question, but I ask: So, if there is an anonymous function I can give it as another anonymous functions parameter, if it has been already stored a variable. But, whats in that case, if I have stored only one function in a variable, and add the second directly as a parameter into it? Can I add parameters to the non-stored function? Fist example (thats what i understand :) ): $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $func2 = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func($func2('asd')); var_dump($var); // prints out string(3) "asd" That makes sense for me, but what is with the following one? $func = function($str){ return $str; }; $var = $func(function($str = "asd"){ return $str; }); var_dump($var); /** This prints out: object(Closure)#1 (1) { ["parameter"]=> array(1) { ["$str"]=> string(10) "" } } But why? */ And at the end, can someone recommend me a book or an article, from what i can learn this lambda coding feature of php? Thank you in advance for your answers :)

    Read the article

  • Javascript AJAX function not working properly

    - by Or W
    I have a function that sends a GET request to a php script and checks if the script returned any output. It works great, but when I try to add another function that checks for something similar, both of them fail. What am I missing? function checkUsername(usr,n) { var user = usr.val(), xmlhttp; //var str = document.getElementById('email').value; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { //document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; if (xmlhttp.responseText != "") { usr.addClass( "ui-state-error" ); updateTips( n ); return false; } else { return true; } } } xmlhttp.open("GET","ajaxValidate.php?type=user&q="+user,true); xmlhttp.send(); } The above works perfectly, when adding this function, none of them work: function checkEmail(em,n) { var email = em.val(), xmlhttp; //var str = document.getElementById('email').value; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { //document.getElementById("txtHint").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; if (xmlhttp.responseText != "") { em.addClass( "ui-state-error" ); updateTips( n ); return false; } else { return true; } } } xmlhttp.open("GET","ajaxValidate.php?type=email&q="+email,true); xmlhttp.send(); }

    Read the article

  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

    Read the article

  • LLVM: Passing a pointer to a struct, which holds a pointer to a function, to a JIT function

    - by Rusky
    I have an LLVM (version 2.7) module with a function that takes a pointer to a struct. That struct contains a function pointer to a C++ function. The module function is going to be JIT-compiled, and I need to build that struct in C++ using the LLVM API. I can't seem get the pointer to the function as an LLVM value, let alone pass a pointer to the ConstantStruct that I can't build. I'm not sure if I'm even on the track, but this is what I have so far: void print(char*); vector<Constant*> functions; functions.push_back(ConstantExpr::getIntToPtr( ConstantInt::get(Type::getInt32Ty(context), (int)print), /* function pointer type here, FunctionType::get(...) doesn't seem to work */ )); ConstantStruct* struct = cast<ConstantStruct>(ConstantStruct::get( cast<StructType>(m->getTypeByName("printer")), functions )); Function* main = m->getFunction("main"); vector<GenericValue> args; args[0].PointerVal = /* not sure what goes here */ ee->runFunction(main, args);

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 449 450 451 452 453 454 455 456 457 458 459 460  | Next Page >