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• find, excluding dir, not descending into dir, AND using maxdepth and mindepth

  - by user1680819

  This is RHEL 5.6 and GNU find 4.2.27. I am trying to exclude a directory from find, and want to make sure that directory isn't descended into. I've seen plenty of posts saying -prune will do this - and it does. I can run this command: find . -type d -name "./.snapshot*" -prune -o -print and it works. I run it through strace and verify it is NOT descending into .snapshot. I also want to find directories ONLY at a certain level. I can use mindepth and maxdepth to do this: find . -maxdepth 8 -mindepth 8 -type d and it gives me all the dirs 8 levels down, including what's in .snapshot. If I combine the prune and mindepth and maxdepth options: find . -maxdepth 8 -mindepth 8 -type d \( -path "./.snapshot/*" -prune -o -print \) the output is right - I see all the dirs 8 levels down except for what's in .snapshot, but if I run that find through strace, I see that .snapshot is still being descended into - to levels 1 through 8. I've tried a variety of different combinations, moving the precedence parens around, reording expression components - everything that yields the right output still descends into .snapshot. I see in the man page that -prune doesn't work with -depth, but doesn't say anything about mindepth and maxdepth. Can anyone offer any advice? Thanks... Bill

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• Senior programming 'guru' who can't program - should I find a different career?

  - by confess

  Background: According to my resume I'm supposed to be pretty good at programming. I've worked on a ton of big projects at big companies over many years. When I go for an interview and someone looks at my resume they immediately assume I really know what I'm talking about. I generally communicate well, present myself well, know the 'jargon' and know a lot about technology at a high level, which makes matters worse because after talking to me for a while an interviewer really believes that what my resume says is probably true. The Problem: The problem arises when someone asks me to code something. I choke. As a programmer I have almost no capacity to come up with creative solutions of my own. I can't think through solutions to a programming problem the way good programmers are usually able to. I read questions on StackOverflow and the answer is obvious to me after I read other people's answers but if I am the first person to look at a question with no hints from anyone else I usually don't know where to start. At work it's the same thing. I'm fine if I'm correcting other people's code. I can identify the source of a bug quicker than anyone I work with. But if you ask me to sit down and code up a new application from scratch I will spend ten times longer than programmers who are much more junior than me. Question: Now that I am looking for work this is raising its ugly head in interview situations and making me feel desperately that I'm in the wrong career. I don't know if this problem is incompetence, laziness or some combination of these. Does anyone have any ideas about what I might be dealing with - are there books or exercises that could help me with this basic problem?

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• Why can’t I create a database in an empty ASP MVC 2 project using Project->Add->New Item->SQL Server

  - by Dr Dork

  I'm diving head first into ASP MVC and am playing around with creating and manipulating a database. I did a search and found this tutorial for creating a database, however when I follow it, I get this error right at the start when trying to add a new database to my fresh, empty ASP MVC 2 project... A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) The only requirement the tutorial mentioned was SQL Server Express, but when I went to download it, it said it was already installed. I'm assuming it was part of the VS 2010 RC I installed and am running. So I don't know what else I need if I am missing something. This is all new to me, so I'm sure I'm missing something obvious here and after I'm done posting this question, I plan to do some more research into the topic of databases and how they work with ASP MVC. In the meantime, I was you could help me answer a couple high level questions... What am I missing/forgetting to do that is causing this error? Any suggestions for good resources/tutorials that focus on using databases with ASP MVC? I've done a lot of database programming in the past, so I'm familiar with the concepts of relational databases and the SQL language. I wish I could find a good resource for learning how to work with them in an ASP dev environment, as well as a good breakdown of all the related technologies used for working with them (i.e. LINQ to SQL). Thanks so much in advance for all your help! I'm going to start researching these questions right now.

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• Creating independent process!

  - by Neha

  I am trying to create a process from a service in C++. This new process is creating as a child process. I want to create an independent process and not a child process... I am using CreateProcess function for the same. Since the new process i create is a child process when i try to kill process tree at the service level it is killing the child process too... I dont want this to happen. I want the new process created to run independent of the service. Please advice on the same.. Thanks.. Code STARTUPINFO si; PROCESS_INFORMATION pi; ZeroMemory( &si, sizeof(si) ); si.cb = sizeof(si); // Start the child process. ZeroMemory( &pi, sizeof(pi) ); si.dwFlags = STARTF_USESHOWWINDOW; if(bRunOnWinLogonDesktop) { if(csDesktopName.empty()) si.lpDesktop = _T("winsta0\\default"); else _tcscpy(si.lpDesktop, csDesktopName.c_str()); } if(bHide) si.wShowWindow = SW_HIDE; /* maybe even SW_HIDE */ else si.wShowWindow = SW_SHOW; /* maybe even SW_HIDE */ TCHAR szCmdLine[512]; _tcscpy(szCmdLine, csCmdLine.c_str()); if( !CreateProcess( NULL, szCmdLine, NULL, NULL, FALSE, CREATE_NEW_PROCESS_GROUP, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi ) )

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• Best practice when removing entity regarding mappedBy collections?

  - by Daniel Bleisteiner

  I'm still kind of undecided which is the best practice to handle em.remove(entity) with this entity being in several collections mapped using mappedBy in JPA. Consider an entity like a Property that references three other entities: a Descriptor, a BusinessObject and a Level entity. The mapping is defined using @ManyToOne in the Property entity and using @OneToMany(mappedBy...) in the other three objects. That inverse mapping is defined because there are some situations where I need to access those collections. Whenever I remove a Property using em.remove(prop) this element is not automatically removed from managed entities of the other three types. If I don't care about that and the following page load (webapp) doesn't reload those entities the Property is still found and some decisions might be taken that are no longer true. The inverse mappings may become quite large and though I don't want to use something like descriptor.getProperties().remove(prop) because it will load all those properties that might have been lazy loaded until then. So my currently preferred way is to refresh the entity if it is managed: if (em.contains(descriptor)) em.refresh(descriptor) - which unloads a possibly loaded collection and triggers a reload upon the next access. Is there another feasible way to handle all those mappedBy collections of already loaded entites?

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• Zend Framework - How do make a hierarchy without it being a module?

  - by Josh

  Here is my specific issue. I want to make an api level which then under that you can select which method you will use. For example: test.com/api/rest test.com/api/xmlprc Currently I have api mapping to a module directory. I then setup a route to make it a rest route. test.com/api is a rest route, but I would rather have it be test.com/api/rest. This would allow me later to add others. In Bootstrap.php: $front = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $router = $front->getRouter(); $route = new Zend_Controller_Router_Route( 'api/:module/:controller/:id/*', array('module' =>'default') ); $router-addRoute('api', $route); $restRoute = new Zend_Rest_Route($front, array(), array( 'rest' )); $router-addRoute('rest', $restRoute); return $router; In application.ini: resources.frontController.moduleDirectory = APPLICATION_PATH "/modules" I know it will involve routes, but sometimes I find the Zend Framework documentation to be a little hard to follow. When I go to test.com/rest/controller/ it works how it should, but if I go to test.com/api/rest/ it tells me that my module is api and controller is rest.

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• How to document an existing small web site (web application), inside and out?

  - by Ricket

  We have a "web application" which has been developed over the past 7 months. The problem is, it was not really documented. The requirements consisted of a small bulleted list from the initial meeting 7 months ago (it's more of a "goals" statement than software requirements). It has collected a number of features which stemmed from small verbal or chat discussions. The developer is leaving very soon. He wrote the entire thing himself and he knows all of the quirks and underlying rules to each page, but nobody else really knows much more than the user interface side of it; which of course is the easy part, as it's made to be intuitive to the user. But if someone needs to repair or add a feature to it, the entire thing is a black box. The code has some minimal comments, and of course the good thing about web applications is that the address bar points you in the right direction towards fixing a problem or upgrading a page. But how should the developer go about documenting this web application? He is a bit lost as far as where to begin. As developers, how do you completely document your web applications for other developers, maintainers, and administrative-level users? What approach do you use, where do you start, do you have a template? An idea of magnitude: it uses PHP, MySQL and jQuery. It has about 20-30 main (frontend) files, along with about 15 included files and a couple folders of some assets. So overall it's a pretty small application. It interfaces with 7 MySQL tables, each one well-named, so I think the database end is pretty self-explanatory. There is a config.inc.php file with definitions of consts like the MySQL user details, some from/to emails, and URLs which PHP uses to insert into emails and pages (relative and absolute paths, basiecally). There is some AJAX via jQuery. Please comment if there is any other information that would help you help me and I will be glad to edit it in.

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• What job title should be most suitable for my object in resume and what salary range should I expect

  - by user354177

  I was a classic asp developer in 2000. After a year of full-time employment, I left the field. I found a part-time position as an asp developer again in 2005 and taught myself vb.net. In 2007, I got the current full-time job as an Asp.net web developer. I taught myself C#, LING t0 SQL, Web Services, AJAX, and creating all kinds of reports with reporting services. One and half years ago, I sent myself to part-time graduate program in Database and Web Systems. I'll have two semesters to go and so far my GPA is 4.0/4.0. My job responsibility is to collect business requirements from other departments, design the database, write stored procedures, create aspx pages, and create reports. I love what I do and want to advance my career to the next level. What I enjoy most is to design the relational database. I would want to become an .Net Architect eventually. I got an interview. They were looking for asp.net web developer. But I was surprised and disappointed that position would only create aspx pages. I would not even have opportunity to write stored procedures, let alone design the database (those would be provided by another group). Furthermore, they asked me some detailed questions about web forms, some of which I did not know the answers. they might be disappointed as well. I am eager to learn and can apply what I learn to real projects right away. I believe no matter what specific skills I am lacking for a new position, I can catch up quickly. I am looking for $70k range job. The object in my resume is Experience C# Web Application Developer. Due to the experience from last interview, I wonder if the object is really what I want. Could somebody answer my questions? Thank you.

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• PHP shell_exec() - Run directly, or perform a cron (bash/php) and include MySQL layer?

  - by Jimbo

  Sorry if the title is vague - I wasn't quite sure how to word it! What I'm Doing I'm running a Linux command to output data into a variable, parse the data, and output it as an array. Array values will be displayed on a page using PHP, and this PHP page output is requested via AJAX every 10 seconds so, in effect, the data will be retrieved and displayed/updated every 10 seconds. There could be as many as 10,000 characters being parsed on every request, although this is usually much lower. Alternative Idea I want to know if there is a better* alternative method of retrieving this data every 10 seconds, as multiple users (<10) will be having this command executed automatically for them. A cronjob running on the server could execute either bash or php (which is faster?) to grab the data and store it in a MySQL database. Then, any AJAX calls to the PHP output would return values in the MySQL database rather than making a direct call to execute server code every 10 seconds. Why? I know there are security concerns with running execs directly from PHP, and (I hope this isn't micro-optimisation) I'm worried about CPU usage on the server. The server is running a sempron processor. Yes, they do still exist. Having this only execute when the user is on the page (idea #1) means that the server isn't running code that doesn't need to be run. However, is this slow and insecure? Just in case the type of linux command may be of assistance in determining it's efficiency: shell_exec("transmission-remote $host:$port --auth $username:$password -l"); I'm hoping that there are differences in efficiency and level of security with the two methods I have outlined above, and that this isn't just micro-micro-optimisation. If there are alternative methods that are better*, I'd love to learn about these! :)

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• Get notified when UITableView has finished asking for data?

  - by kennethmac2000

  Hi everyone, Is there some way to find out when a UITableView has finished asking for data from its data source? None of the viewDidLoad/viewWillAppear/viewDidAppear methods of the associated view controller (UITableViewController) are of use here, as they all fire too early. None of them (entirely understandably) guarantee that queries to the data source have finished for the time being (eg, until the view is scrolled). One workaround I have found is to call reloadData in viewDidAppear, since, when reloadData returns, the table view is guaranteed to have finished querying the data source as much as it needs to for the time being. However, this seems rather nasty, as I assume it is causing the data source to be asked for the same information twice (once automatically, and once because of the reloadData call) when it is first loaded. The reason I want to do this at all is that I want to preserve the scroll position of the UITableView - but right down to the pixel level, not just to the nearest row. When restoring the scroll position (using scrollRectToVisible:animated:), I need the table view to already have sufficient data in it, or else the scrollRectToVisible:animated: method call does nothing (which is what happens if you place the call on its own in any of viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear or viewDidAppear). Thanks in advance for your assistance!

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• [C++] Parent-Child scheme

  - by rubenvb

  I'm writing a class that holds a pointer to a parent object of the same type (think Qt's QObject system). Each object has one parent, and the parent should not be destroyed when a child is destroyed (obviously). class MyClass { public: MyClass(const MyClass* ptr_parent): parent(parent){}; ~MyClass(){ delete[] a_children; }; private: const MyClass* ptr_parent; // go to MyClass above MyClass* a_children; // go to MyClass below size_t sz_numChildren; // for iterating over a_children } (Excuse my inline coding, it's only for brevity) Will destroying the "Master MyClass" take care of all children? No child should be able to kill it's parent, because I would then have pointers in my main program to destroyed objects, correct? Why might you ask? I need a way to "iterate" through all subdirectories and find all files on a platform independent level. The creation of this tree will be handled by native API's, the rest won't. Is this a good idea to start with? Thanks!

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• How can I call a function in a parent movieclip from an externally-loaded child?

  - by Doug Wolfgram

  I have a swf file that is my 'shell' program that contains many functions. This shell program loads child movies. In the root timeline of the child movie, I have the following code: function putresponse(q,r) { trace (r); _root.debug(r); } _root.debug("foo"); Debug is a function that writes some text to the screen. When I run this locally, the putresponse function gets called and the trace happens. When I run it remotely (inside the shell) the first debug happens immediately on load (as you'd expect) but then later when putresponse is called, the debug(r) is not executed. The external clip is at the same url as the shell so I don't think it is a security issue. Also, as I said, the debug("foo") works fine. This one really has me perplexed. Can anyone shed some light as to why I can't call the debug from _root when called from a function rather than on the first-level timeline? EDIT: The call to putresponse is coming form two layers deep in local (within the child MC) MCs. The actual call is: _parent._parent.putrepsonse(q,r);

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• Reload a UITable on the fly when editing a UITextField inside one of the cells

  - by Saze

  I have a UITable containing some customs UITableCells. Those cells contain a few UILabels and a UITextField. The datasource of the table comes from a main controller's property. (This controller is also the delegate and the dataSource for the table). Here's a simplified screenshot of the UI: Now, I need to update "on the fly" the content of all the UILabels when the user edits one of the UITextFields. To do so, at the I am listening to the "Editing Changed" event at the UITextField level. This triggers the following action: - (IBAction) editChangeHandler: (id) sender { MyAppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [[delegate.viewController.myDataSourceArray objectAtIndex:self.rowIndex] setANumber: [theTextField.text intValue]]; [delegate.viewController reloadRows]; } The reloadRows method in the viewController is as such: - (void) reloadRows { NSLog(@"called reloadRows"); //perform some calculations on the data source objects here... [theUITable reloadData]; } My problem here is that whenever the user changes the value in the field, the reloadRows method is successfully called, so is apparently the reloadData but it also causes the keyboard to be dismissed. So in the end, the user can only touch one key when editing the TextField before the keyboard is dismissed and the table reloaded. Does anybody knows a solution to this or have experienced the same issue?

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• How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

  - by Day

  In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

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• How to efficiently use LOCK_ESCALATION mssql 2008

  - by Avias

  I'm currently having troubles with frequent deadlocks with a specific user table in MS SQL 2008. Here are some facts about this particular table: Has a large amount of rows (1 to 2 million) All the indexes used on this table only has "use row lock" ticked on its option rows are frequently updated by multiple transactions but are unique (e.g. probably a thousand or more update statements are executed to different unique rows every hour) the table does not use partitions. Upon checking the table on sys.tables, I found that the lock_escalation is set to TABLE I'm very tempted to turn the lock_escalation for this table to DISABLE but I'm not really sure what side effect this would incur. From What I understand, using DISABLE will minimize escalating locks to TABLE level which if combined with the row lock settings of the indexes should theoretically minimize the deadlocks I am encountering.. From what I have read in Determining threshold for lock escalation it seems that locking automatically escalates when a single transaction fetches 5000 rows.. What does a single transaction mean in this sense? A single session/connection getting 5000 rows thru individual update/select statements? Or is it a single sql update/select statement that fetches 5000 or more rows? Any insight is appreciated, btw, n00b DBA here Thanks

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• Saving Data to Relational Database (Entity Framework)

  - by sheefy

  I'm having a little bit of trouble saving data to a database. Basically, I have a main table that has associations to other tables (Example Below). Tbl_Listing ID UserID - Associated to ID in User Table CategoryID - Associated to ID in Category Table LevelID - Associated to ID in Level Table. Name Address Normally, it's easy for me to add data to the DB (using Entity Framework). However, I'm not sure how to add data to the fields with associations. The numerous ID fields just need to hold an int value that corresponds with the ID in the associated table. For example; when I try to access the column in the following manner I get a "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." error. Listing NewListing = new Listing(); NewListing.Tbl_User.ID = 1; NewListing.Tbl_Category.ID = 2; ... DBEntities.AddToListingSet(NewListing); DBEntities.SaveChanges(); I am using NewListing.Tbl_User.ID instead of NewListing.UserID because the UserID field is not available through intellisense. If I try and create an object for each related field I get a "The relationship between the two objects cannot be defined because they are attached to different ObjectContext objects." error. With this method, I am trying to add the object without the .ID shown above - example NewListing.User = UserObject. I know this should be simple as I just want to reference the ID from the associated table in the main Listing's table. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance, -S

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• What is a good solution to log the deletion of a row in MySQL?

  - by hobodave

  Background I am currently logging deletion of rows from my tickets table at the application level. When a user deletes a ticket the following SQL is executed: INSERT INTO alert_log (user_id, priority, priorityName, timestamp, message) VALUES (9, 4, 'WARN', NOW(), "TICKET: David A. deleted ticket #6 from Foo"); Please do not offer schema suggestions for the alert_log table. Fields: user_id - User id of the logged in user performing the deletion priority - Always 4 priorityName - Always 'WARN' timestamp - Always NOW() message - Format: "[NAMESPACE]: [FullName] deleted ticket #[TicketId] from [CompanyName]" NAMESPACE - Always TICKET FullName - Full name of user identified by user_id above TicketId - Primary key ID of the ticket being deleted CompanyName - Ticket has a Company via tickets.company_id Situation/Questions Obviously this solution does not work if a ticket is deleted manually from the mysql command line client. However, now I need to. The issues I'm having are as follows: Should I use a PROCEDURE, FUNCTION, or TRIGGER? -- Analysis: TRIGGER - I don't think this will work because I can't pass parameters to it, and it would trigger when my application deleted the row too. PROCEDURE or FUNCTION - Not sure. Should I return the number of deleted rows? If so, that would require a FUNCTION right? How should I account for the absence of a logged in user? -- Possibilities: Using either a PROC or FUNC, require the invoker to pass in a valid user_id Require the user to pass in a string with the name Use the CURRENT_USER - meh Hard code the FullName to just be "Database Administrator" Could the name be an optional parameter? I'm rather green when it comes to sprocs. Assuming I went with the PROC/FUNC approach, is it possible to outright restrict regular DELETE calls to this table, yet still allow users to call this PROC/FUNC to do the deletion for them? Ideally the solution is usable by my application as well, so that my code is DRY.

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• rails route question

  - by badnaam

  I am trying to build a search functionality which at a high level works like this. 1 - I have a Search model, controller with a search_set action and search views/partial to render the search. 2 - At the home page a serach form is loaded with an empty search object or a search object initialized with session[:search] (which contains user search preferences, zip code, proximity, sort order, per page etc). This form has a post(:put) action to search_set. 3 - When a registered user performs a set the params of the search form are collected and a search record is saved against that user. If a unregistered user performs a search then the search set action simply stores the params in the session[:search]. In either case, the search is executed with the given params and the results are displayed. At this point the url of in the location bar is something like.. http://localhost:3000/searches/search_set?stype=1 At this point if the user simply hits enter on the location bar, I get an error that says "No action responded to show" I am guessing because the URL contains search_set which uses a put method and even though I have a search_show (:get) action (which simply reruns the search in the session or saved in the database) does not get called. How can I handle this situation where I can route a user hitting enter into the location bar to a get method? If this does not explain the problem , please let me know I can share more details/code etc. Thanks!

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• two view controllers and reusability with delegate

  - by netcharmer

  Newbie question about design patterns in objC. I'm writing a functionality for my iphone app which I plan to use in other apps too. The functionality is written over two classes - Viewcontroller1 and Viewcontroller2. Viewcontroller1 is the root view of a navigation controller and it can push Viewcontroller2. Rest of the app will use only ViewController1 and will never access Viewcontroller2 directly. However, triggered by user events, Viewcontroller2 has to send a message to the rest of the app. My question is what is the best way of achieving it? Currently, I use two level of delegation to send the message out from Viewcontroller2. First send it to Viewcontroller1 and then let Viewcontroller1 send it to rest of the app or the application delegate. So my code looks like - //Viewcontroller1.h @protocol bellDelegate -(int)bellRang:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller1 : UITableViewController <dummydelegate> { id <bellDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller1.m @implementation Viewcontroller1 -(void)viewDidLoad { //some stuff here Viewcontroller2 *vc2 = [[Viewcontroller2 alloc] init]; vc2.delegate = self; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; } -(int)dummyBell:(int)size { return([self.delegate bellRang:size]); } //Viewcontroller2.h @protocol dummyDelegate -(int)dummyBell:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller2 : UITableViewController { id <dummyDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller2.m @implementation Viewcontroller2 -(int)eventFoo:(int)size { rval = [self.delegate dummyBell:size]; } @end

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• Can it be done?

  - by bzarah

  We are in design phase of a project whose goal is replatforming an ASP classic application to ASP.Net 4.0. The system needs to be entirely web based. There are several new requirements for the new system that make this a challenging project: The system needs to be database independent. It must, at version 1.0, support MS SQL Server, Oracle, MySQL, Postgres and DB2. The system must be able to allow easy reporting from the database by third party reporting packages. The system must allow an administrative end user to create their own tables in the database through the web based interface. The system must allow an administrative end user to design/configure a user interface (web based) where they can select tables and fields in the system (either our system's core tables or their own custom tables created in #3) The system must allow an administrative end user to create and maintain relationships between these custom created tables, and also between these tables and our system's core tables. The system must allow an administrative end user to create business rules that will enforce validation, show/hide UI elements, block certain actions based on the identity of specific users, specific user groups or privileges. Essentially it's a system that has some core ticket tracking functionality, but allows the end user to extend the interface, business rules and the database. Is this possible to build in a .Net, Web based environment? If so, what do you think the level of effort would be to get this done? We are currently a 6 person shop, with 2.5 full time developers.

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• MySQL table doesn't update, can't find the error message

  - by mobius1ski

  My knowledge level here is like zilch, but please bear with me. I have a site built in PHP/MySQL that uses the Smarty template engine. There's a registration form that, for some reason, isn't posting the data to the DB. Here's the function: $u = new H_User; $u->setFrom($p); $smarty->assign('user', $u); $val = $u->validate(); if ($val === true) { $temp = new H_User; $temp->orderBy('user_id desc'); $temp->find(true); $next_id = $temp->user_id + 1; $u->user_id = $next_id; $u->user_password = md5($p['user_password']); $u->user_regdate = mktime(); $u->user_active = 0; $u->insert(); $hash = md5($u->user_email . $u->user_regdate); $smarty->assign('hash', $hash); $smarty->assign('user', $u); $smarty->assign('registration_complete', true); $d = new H_Demographic; $d->setFrom($p); $d->insert(); How can I figure out what's wrong here? I don't get any PHP errors and I don't know how to get MySQL to display the errors that might indicate what's wrong with that syntax.

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• How do I deal with different requests that map to the same response?

  - by daxim

  I'm designing a Web service. The request is idempotent, so I chose the GET method. The response is relatively expensive to calculate and not small, so I want to get caching (on the protocol level) right. (Don't worry about memoisation at my part, I have that already covered; my question here is actually also paying attention to the Web as a whole.) There's only one mandatory parameter and a number of optional parameter with default values if missing. For example, the following two map to the same representation of the response. (If this is a dumb way to go about it the interface, propose something better.) GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data HTTP/1.1 GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data;optional_parameter=default1;another_optional_parameter=default2;yet_another_optional_parameter=default3 HTTP/1.1 However, I imagine clients do not know this and would treat them separate and therefore waste cache storage. What should I do to avoid violating the golden rule of caching? Make up a canonical form, document it (e.g. all parameters are required after all and need to be sorted in a specific order) and return a client error unless the required form is met? Instead of an error, redirect permanently to the canonical form of a request? Or is it enough to not mind how the request looks like, and just respond with the same ETag for same responses?

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• IIS redirect url for virtual directory

  - by Jouni

  Hello, How i can set redirect url for virtual directory in iis 7.0.I have installed lates url rewrite module 2. ? I could explain my problem with exsample. I have website on my iis 7.0 server: www.mysite.com I desided to create virtual directory sales under my site which is pointing to website root directory.Now I need create redirect url for the vdir. The vdir is pointing same virtual root directory as my site root is The big idea is that i can write on browser www.mysite/sales and i will automaticly redirect to url www.mysite.com?productid=200. I tried to make redirect with rewite url for vdir(not website), but I always get this error message : cannot add duplicate colletion entry of type 'rule' with unique key key attribute 'name' set to "test".This happens when i am pointing for virtual vdir and try to add rule. I can add rules to website level,but rules doesn work. I mean url www.mysite/sales gives me follwing error. I know that key is unique I checked it from web.config. This kind of feature was really easy use in IIS 6.0, just point vdir with your mouse and set properties--a redirect to url. Please some one explain what is right way to do it in IIS 7.0

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• Hacking the WordPress Category Widget

  - by Scott B

  The default WordPress categories widget does not allow excluding named categories. I've created a plugin which creates adds a Customized category widget to the "Available Widgets" listing which gives me some control over the items I want to exclude. Code is below... <?php /* Plugin Name: Custom Categories Widget Plugin URI: http://mysite.com Description: Removes the Specified Categories from the Default Categories Listing Author: Me Version: 1.0 Author URI: http://mysite.com */ function widget_my_categories() { wp_list_categories('exclude=1'); } function my_categories_init() { register_sidebar_widget(__('Custom Categories Widget'), 'widget_my_categories'); } add_action("plugins_loaded", "my_categories_init"); ?> However, I want the generated code to emulate the same look and feel as the default categories widget (ie, the word "categories" appears as a bullet in my widget, but as an h4 level heading element in the default categories widget. I want the same structure to be applied to my custom widget as the default categories widget has. I'd also like to give the user the options to specify the title of the categories listing (just as they can do in the default categories widget). btw, I'm using id 1 which is the default "uncategorized" category and assigning items to that category that I don't want to appear in the listing. Any help much appreciated! :)

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• While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

  - by Mahn

  I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

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