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  • How to Bind Data and manipulate it in a GridView with MVP

    - by DotNetDan
    I am new to the whole MVP thing and slowly getting my head around it all. The a problem I am having is how to stay consistent with the MVP methodology when populating GridViews (and ddls, but we will tackle that later). Is it okay to have it connected straight to an ObjectDataSourceID? To me this seems wrong because it bypasses all the separation of concerns MVP was made to do. So, with that said, how do I do it? How do I handle sorting (do I send over handler events to the presentation layer, if so how does that look in code)? Right now I have a GridView that has no sorting. Code below. ListCustomers.aspx.cs: public partial class ListCustomers : System.Web.UI.Page, IlistCustomer { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //On every page load, create a new presenter object with //constructor recieving the // page's IlistCustomer view ListUserPresenter ListUser_P = new ListUserPresenter(this); //Call the presenter's PopulateList to bind data to gridview ListUser_P.PopulateList(); } GridView IlistCustomer.UserGridView { get { return gvUsers; } set { gvUsers = value; } } } Interface ( IlistCustomer.cs): is this bad sending in an entire Gridview control? public interface IlistCustomer { GridView UserGridView { set; get; } } The Presenter (ListUserPresenter.cs): public class ListUserPresenter { private IlistCustomer view_listCustomer; private GridView gvListCustomers; private DataTable objDT; public ListUserPresenter( IlistCustomer view) { //Handle an error if an Ilistcustomer was not sent in) if (view == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("ListCustomer View cannot be blank"); //Set local IlistCustomer interface view this.view_listCustomer = view; } public void PopulateList() { //Fill local Gridview with local IlistCustomer gvListCustomers = view_listCustomer.UserGridView; // Instantiate a new CustomerBusiness object to contact database CustomerBusiness CustomerBiz = new CustomerBusiness(); //Call CustomerBusiness's GetListCustomers to fill DataTable object objDT = CustomerBiz.GetListCustomers(); //Bind DataTable to gridview; gvListCustomers.DataSource = objDT; gvListCustomers.DataBind(); } }

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  • Question about the Cloneable interface and the exception that should be thrown

    - by Nazgulled
    Hi, The Java documentation says: A class implements the Cloneable interface to indicate to the Object.clone() method that it is legal for that method to make a field-for-field copy of instances of that class. Invoking Object's clone method on an instance that does not implement the Cloneable interface results in the exception CloneNotSupportedException being thrown. By convention, classes that implement this interface should override Object.clone (which is protected) with a public method. See Object.clone() for details on overriding this method. Note that this interface does not contain the clone method. Therefore, it is not possible to clone an object merely by virtue of the fact that it implements this interface. Even if the clone method is invoked reflectively, there is no guarantee that it will succeed. And I have this UserProfile class: public class UserProfile implements Cloneable { private String name; private int ssn; private String address; public UserProfile(String name, int ssn, String address) { this.name = name; this.ssn = ssn; this.address = address; } public UserProfile(UserProfile user) { this.name = user.getName(); this.ssn = user.getSSN(); this.address = user.getAddress(); } // get methods here... @Override public UserProfile clone() { return new UserProfile(this); } } And for testing porpuses, I do this in main(): UserProfile up1 = new UserProfile("User", 123, "Street"); UserProfile up2 = up1.clone(); So far, no problems compiling/running. Now, per my understanding of the documentation, removing implements Cloneable from the UserProfile class should throw an exception in up1.clone() call, but it doesn't. I've read around here that the Cloneable interface is broken but I don't really know what that means. Am I missing something?

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  • Passing control references as ref parameters

    - by Enmanuel
    Hi everyone. Please help me out here because im getting kind of confused.. I have a form in a C# winforms project and a couple of methods that are suposed to perform some tasks for this particular form and all derived ones, so one of those helper methods can make the example.. this one should fill comboboxes with a dataset. Its working properly now but when i coded the method with this signature protected void FillComboBox(kComboBox target, IEntClass_DA entity) { target.DataSource = entity.GetList().Tables[0]; target.DisplayMember = "name"; target.ValueMember = "id"; } I saw that the displayMember and ValueMember in the comboboxes were not holding the values after the method call. I just thought I should use ref parameters so the asignments are not wasted in read-only reference variables. It was ok by then but later, making an exercise of passing the whole form as a parameter I was warned by the compiler with the notice that this could not be passed as a ref parameter because it is read-only. Fine then, I keep working and see that even without the ref keyword i can use the ref variable from the form, update some properties and see the changes. So whats happening here: passing a reference of the control to the helper method gives me ability to change its members even when not using the ref parameter?? Thanks.

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  • Disable Painting of the VScrollbar in a System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a custom control inherited from RichTextBox. This control has the ability to "disable" rich text editing. I achive this by just setting the Rtf property to the text property during the TextChanged event. this is how my code looks like: private bool lockTextChanged; void RichTextBox_TextChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // prevent StackOverflowException if (lockTextChanged) return; // remember current position int rtbstart = rtb.SelectionStart; int len = rtb.SelectionLength; // prevent painting rtb.SuspendLayout(); // set the text property to remove the entire formatting. lockTextChanged = true; rtb.Text = rtb.Text; rtb.Select(rtbstart, len); lockTextChanged = false; rtb.ResumeLayout(true); } That worked well. However in a large text with like 200 lines the controls jitters (you see the first lines of text for the wink). To prevent that from happening I filter the WM_PAINT between SuspendLayout() and ResumeLayout() private bool layoutSuspended; public new void SuspendLayout() { layoutSuspended = true; base.SuspendLayout(); } public new void ResumeLayout() { layoutSuspended = false; base.ResumeLayout(); } public new void ResumeLayout(bool performLayout) { layoutSuspended = false; base.ResumeLayout(performLayout); } private const int WM_PAINT = 0x000F; protected override void WndProc(ref System.Windows.Forms.Message m) { if (!(m.Msg == WM_PAINT && layoutSuspended)) base.WndProc(ref m); } that did the trick, the RichTextBox isn't jittering anymoe. That's what I wanted to achive, except one thing: The scrollbar is still jittering everytime I type text to my control. Now my question: Does anyone have a clue for me how to prevent the scrollbar from redrawing during Suspend/Resume Layout?

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  • How can you handle cross-cutting conerns in JAX-WS without Spring or AOP? Handlers?

    - by LES2
    I do have something more specific in mind, however: Each web service method needs to be wrapped with some boiler place code (cross cutting concern, yes, spring AOP would work great here but it either doesn't work or unapproved by gov't architecture group). A simple service call is as follows: @WebMethod... public Foo performFoo(...) { Object result = null; Object something = blah; try { soil(something); result = handlePerformFoo(...); } catch(Exception e) { throw translateException(e); } finally { wash(something); } return result; } protected abstract Foo handlePerformFoo(...); (I hope that's enough context). Basically, I would like a hook (that was in the same thread - like a method invocation interceptor) that could have a before() and after() that could could soil(something) and wash(something) around the method call for every freaking WebMethod. Can't use Spring AOP because my web services are not Spring managed beans :( HELP!!!!! Give advice! Please don't let me copy-paste that boiler plate 1 billion times (as I've been instructed to do). Regards, LES

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  • Android: Unable to make httprequest behind firewall

    - by Yang
    The standard getUrlContent works welll when there is no firewall. But I got exceptions when I try to do it behind a firewall. I've tried to set "http proxy server" in AVD manager, but it didn't work. Any idea how to correctly set it up? protected static synchronized String getUrlContent(String url) throws ApiException { if(url.equals("try")){ return "thanks"; } if (sUserAgent == null) { throw new ApiException("User-Agent string must be prepared"); } // Create client and set our specific user-agent string HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet request = new HttpGet(url); request.setHeader("User-Agent", sUserAgent); try { HttpResponse response = client.execute(request); // Check if server response is valid StatusLine status = response.getStatusLine(); if (status.getStatusCode() != HTTP_STATUS_OK) { throw new ApiException("Invalid response from server: " + status.toString()); } // Pull content stream from response HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); InputStream inputStream = entity.getContent(); ByteArrayOutputStream content = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); // Read response into a buffered stream int readBytes = 0; while ((readBytes = inputStream.read(sBuffer)) != -1) { content.write(sBuffer, 0, readBytes); } // Return result from buffered stream return new String(content.toByteArray()); } catch (IOException e) { throw new ApiException("Problem communicating with API", e); } }

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  • Pthread Queue System

    - by Wallace
    Hi. I'm working on my assignment on pthreads. I'm new and never touched on pthreads before. Is there any sample codes or resources out there that anyone of you have, that might aid me in my assignment? Here are my assignment details. A pthread program about queue system: Write a C/C++ Pthread program for a Dental clinic’s queuing system that declares an array of integers of size N, where N is the maximum number of queue for the day. The pthread program uses two threads. Whenever there is a new dental appointment, the first thread (the creator) puts the queue numbers in the array, one after the other. The second thread (the remover) removes the queue numbers from the array whenever the dentist has seen the patient. This is done in a FIFO fashion (First In First Out). The algorithm of the creator is as follows: • If the array is not full then put a new number in it (the numbers start at 1 and are incremented by one each time, so the creator create queue number 1, 2, 3 etc.) • sleep for 1 to 10 seconds, randomly • repeat The algorithm of the remover is as follows: • If the array is not empty then remove its smallest queue number • sleep for 1 to 10 seconds, randomly • repeat You should use mutex locks to protect things that must be protected. Each thread should print on the screen what it is doing (eg: "number 13 is added into the queue", "number 7 is removed from the queue", etc.). The program should run forever. Any help will be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • JavaEE : "Access to default session denied" when sending mail using smtp.gmail.com

    - by Harry Pham
    I am trying to write email authentication feature for my website and I encounter some issues. I got java.lang.SecurityException: Access to default session denied, when I try to do Session.getDefaultInstance. Here are my codes: private static final String SMTP_HOST_NAME = "smtp.gmail.com"; private static final String SMTP_PORT = "465"; private static final String emailSubjectTxt = "Email Confirmation"; private static final String emailFromAddress = "[email protected]"; private static final String SSL_FACTORY = "javax.net.ssl.SSLSocketFactory"; ... String sendTo = "[email protected]"; boolean debug = true; Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", SMTP_HOST_NAME); props.put("mail.smtp.auth", "true"); props.put("mail.debug", "true"); props.put("mail.smtp.port", SMTP_PORT); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.port", SMTP_PORT); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.class", SSL_FACTORY); props.put("mail.smtp.socketFactory.fallback", "false"); //It dies at the next line Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, new javax.mail.Authenticator() { @Override protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication("myUserName", "myPassword"); } }); session.setDebug(debug); //Set the FROM address Message msg = new MimeMessage(session); InternetAddress addressFrom = new InternetAddress(emailFromAddress); msg.setFrom(addressFrom); //Set the TO address InternetAddress[] addressTo = new InternetAddress[1]; addressTo[0] = new InternetAddress(sendTo); msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, addressTo); //Construct the content of the email confirmation String message = "Test Content" // Setting the Subject and Content Type msg.setSubject(emailSubjectTxt); msg.setContent(message, "text/plain"); Transport.send(msg);

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  • Deploying ASP.NET MVC to IIS6: pages are just blank

    - by BryanGrimes
    I have an MVC app that is actually on a couple other servers but I didn't do the deploy. For this deploy I have added the wildcard to aspnet_isapi.dll which has gotten rid of the 404 error. But the pages are not pulling up, rather everything is just blank. I can't seem to find any IIS configuration differences. The Global asax.cs file does have routing defined, but as I've seen on a working server, that file isn't just hanging out in the root or anything so obvious. What could I be missing here? All of the servers are running IIS6 and I have compared the setups and they look the same to me at this point. Thanks... Bryan EDIT for the comments thus far: I've looked in the event logs with no luck, and scoured various IIS logs per David Wang: blogs.msdn.com. Below is the Global.asax.cs file... public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("error.axd"); // for Elmah // For deployment to IIS6 routes.Add(new Route ( "{controller}.mvc/{action}/{id}", new RouteValueDictionary(new { action = "Index", id = (string)null }), new MvcRouteHandler() )); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeSave", "Time/Save", new { controller = "Time", action = "Save" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeAdd", "Time/Add", new { controller = "Time", action = "Add" } ); routes.MapRoute( "WeeklyTimeEdit", "Time/Edit/{id}", new { controller = "Time", action = "Edit", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "FromSalesforce", "Home/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" }); routes.MapRoute( "Default2", "{controller}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } Maybe this is as stupid as the asax file not being somewhere it needs to be, but heck if I know at this point.

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  • PHP syntax for referencing self with late static binding

    - by Chris
    When I learned PHP it was pretty much in procedural form, more recently I've been trying to adapt to the OOP way of doing things. Hoever the tutorials I've been following were produced before PHP 5.3 when late static binding was introduced. What I want to know is how do I reference self when calling a function from a parent class. For example these two methods were written for a User class which is a child of DatabaseObject. Right now they're sitting inside the User class, but, as they're used in other child classes of DatabaseObject I'd like to promote them to be included inside DatabaseObject. public static function find_all() { global $database; $result_set = self::find_by_sql("select * from ".self::$table_name); return $result_set; } and: protected function cleaned_attributes() { global $database; $clean_attributes = array(); foreach($this->attributes() as $key => $value) { $clean_attributes[$key] = $database->escape_value($value); } return $clean_attributes; } So I have three questions: 1) How do I change the self:: reference when I move it to the parent. Is it static:: or something similar? 2) When calling the function from my code do I call it in the same way, as a function of the child class eg User::find_all() or is there a change there also? 3) Is there anything else I need to know before I start chopping bits up?

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  • Avoiding Service Locator with AutoFac 2

    - by Page Brooks
    I'm building an application which uses AutoFac 2 for DI. I've been reading that using a static IoCHelper (Service Locator) should be avoided. IoCHelper.cs public static class IoCHelper { private static AutofacDependencyResolver _resolver; public static void InitializeWith(AutofacDependencyResolver resolver) { _resolver = resolver; } public static T Resolve<T>() { return _resolver.Resolve<T>(); } } From answers to a previous question, I found a way to help reduce the need for using my IoCHelper in my UnitOfWork through the use of Auto-generated Factories. Continuing down this path, I'm curious if I can completely eliminate my IoCHelper. Here is the scenario: I have a static Settings class that serves as a wrapper around my configuration implementation. Since the Settings class is a dependency to a majority of my other classes, the wrapper keeps me from having to inject the settings class all over my application. Settings.cs public static class Settings { public static IAppSettings AppSettings { get { return IoCHelper.Resolve<IAppSettings>(); } } } public interface IAppSettings { string Setting1 { get; } string Setting2 { get; } } public class AppSettings : IAppSettings { public string Setting1 { get { return GetSettings().AppSettings["setting1"]; } } public string Setting2 { get { return GetSettings().AppSettings["setting2"]; } } protected static IConfigurationSettings GetSettings() { return IoCHelper.Resolve<IConfigurationSettings>(); } } Is there a way to handle this without using a service locator and without having to resort to injecting AppSettings into each and every class? Listed below are the 3 areas in which I keep leaning on ServiceLocator instead of constructor injection: AppSettings Logging Caching

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  • How do I print an HTML document from a web service?

    - by Chris Marasti-Georg
    I want to print HTML from a C# web service. The Web Browser control is overkill, and does not function well in a service-environment, nor does it function well on a system with very tight security constraints. Is there any sort of free .NET library that will support the printing of a basic HTML page? Here is the code I have so far, that is not running properly. public void PrintThing(string document) { if (Thread.CurrentThread.GetApartmentState() != ApartmentState.STA) { Thread thread = new Thread((ThreadStart) delegate { PrintDocument(document); }); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); thread.Start(); } else { PrintDocument(document); } } protected void PrintDocument(string document) { WebBrowser browser = new WebBrowser(); browser.DocumentText = document; while (browser.ReadyState != WebBrowserReadyState.Complete) { Application.DoEvents(); } browser.Print(); } This works fine when called from UI-type threads, but nothing happens when called from a service-type thread. Changing Print() to ShowPrintPreviewDialog() yields the following IE script error: Error: 'dialogArguments.___IE_PrintType' is null or not an object URL: res://ieframe.dll/preview.dlg And a small empty print preview dialog appears.

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  • Can a class inherit from LambdaExpression in .NET? Or is this not recommended?

    - by d.
    Consider the following code (C# 4.0): public class Foo : LambdaExpression { } This throws the following design-time error: Foo does not implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) There's absolutely no problem with public class Foo : Expression { } but, out of curiosity and for the sake of learning, I've searched in Google System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) and guess what: zero results returned (when was the last time you saw that?). Needless to say, I haven't found any documentation on this method anywhere else. As I said, one can easily inherit from Expression; on the other hand LambdaExpression, while not marked as sealed (Expression<TDelegate> inherits from it), seems to be designed to prevent inheriting from it. Is this actually the case? Does anyone out there know what this method is about? EDIT (1): More info based on the first answers - If you try to implement Accept, the editor (C# 2010 Express) automatically gives you the following stub: protected override Expression Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor visitor) { return base.Accept(visitor); } But you still get the same error. If you try to use a parameter of type StackSpiller directly, the compiler throws a different error: System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller is inaccessible due to its protection level. EDIT (2): Based on other answers, inheriting from LambdaExpression is not possible so the question as to whether or not it is recommended becomes irrelevant. I wonder if, in cases like this, the error message should be Foo cannot implement inherited abstract member System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression.Accept(System.Linq.Expressions.Compiler.StackSpiller) because [reasons go here]; the current error message (as some answers prove) seems to tell me that all I need to do is implement Accept (which I can't do).

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  • Dependency Injection Question - ASP.NET

    - by Paul
    I'm starting a web application that contains the following projects: Booking.Web Booking.Services Booking.DataObjects Booking.Data I'm using the repository pattern in my data project only. All services will be the same, no matter what happens. However, if a customer wants to use Access, it will use a different data repository than if the customer wants to use SQL Server. I have StructureMap, and want to be able to do the following: Web project is unaffected. It's a web forms application that will only know about the services project and the dataobjects project. When a service is called, it will use StructureMap (by looking up the bootstrapper.cs file) to see which data repository to use. An example of a services class is the error logging class: public class ErrorLog : IErrorLog { ILogging logger; public ErrorLog() { } public ErrorLog(ILogging logger) { this.logger = logger; } public void AddToLog(string errorMessage) { try { AddToDatabaseLog(errorMessage); } catch (Exception ex) { AddToFileLog(ex.Message); } finally { AddToFileLog(errorMessage); } } private void AddToDatabaseLog(string errorMessage) { ErrorObject error = new ErrorObject { ErrorDateTime = DateTime.Now, ErrorMessage = errorMessage }; logger.Insert(error); } private void AddToFileLog(string errorMessage) { // TODO: Take this value from the web.config instead of hard coding it TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(@"E:\Work\Booking\Booking\Booking.Web\Logs\ErrorLog.txt", true); writer.WriteLine(DateTime.Now.ToString() + " ---------- " + errorMessage); writer.Close(); } } I want to be able to call this service from my web project, without defining which repository to use for the data access. My boostrapper.cs file in the services project is defined as: public class Bootstrapper { public static void ConfigureStructureMap() { ObjectFactory.Initialize(x => { x.AddRegistry(new ServiceRegistry()); } ); } public class ServiceRegistry : Registry { protected override void configure() { ForRequestedType<IErrorLog>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<Booking.Services.Logging.ErrorLog>(); ForRequestedType<ILogging>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<SqlServerLoggingProvider>(); } } } What else do I need to get this to work? When I defined a test, the ILogger object was null. Thanks,

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler does not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • How to catch HttpRequestValidationException in production

    - by bruno
    Hello all, I have this piece of code to handle the HttpRequestValidationException in my global.asax.cs file. protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var context = HttpContext.Current; var exception = context.Server.GetLastError(); if (exception is HttpRequestValidationException) { Response.Clear(); Response.StatusCode = 200; Response.Write(@"<html><head></head><body>hello</body></html>"); Response.End(); return; } } If I debug my webapplication, it works perfect. But when i put it on our production-server, the server ignores it and generate the "a potentially dangerous request.form value was detected from the client" - error page. I don't know what happens exactly... If anybody knows what the problem is, or what i do wrong..? Also I don't want to set the validaterequest on false in the web.config. The server uses IIS7.5, And I'm using asp.net 3.5. Thanks, Bruno

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  • buttonField clicking problem in blackberry

    - by Master
    hi when i am setting the BackGround image through VerticalField Manager. only one buttonField is gettin clicked ,other button field is not working. can i have the solution for it. please if not i want alternative which will position the buttonfield ,set by user. and i want a image as a background help me out. its urgent.. public GreetingsMainScreen() { homeBackgroundImage=Bitmap.getBitmapResource("com/greetings/Images/HomeBackgroundImage.jpg"); exitField=new ButtonField("Exit",ButtonField.CONSUME_CLICK); exitField.setChangeListener(this); greetField=new ButtonField("GREET",ButtonField.CONSUME_CLICK); greetField.setChangeListener(this); VerticalFieldManager manager = new VerticalFieldManager() { protected void sublayout(int width, int height) { width=fwidth; height=fHeight; super.sublayout(width,height); setPositionChild(greetField, width-232, height-150); setPositionChild(exitField, width-205, height-110); setExtent(width, height); } }; manager.setBackground(BackgroundFactory.createBitmapBackground(homeBackgroundImage)); manager.add(exitField); manager.add(greetField); add(manager); } public void fieldChanged(Field field, int context) { if(field == exitField) { Dialog.alert("Hi"); System.exit(0); } if(field == greetField) { System.exit(0); } } } Thanks alot

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  • rich suggestions - why input is null? (seam framework)

    - by Cristian Boariu
    Hi, I'm trying to build a rich suggestions and i do not understand WHY the input value is null... I mean, why inputText value is not taken when i enter something. The .xhtml code: <h:inputText value="#{suggestion.input}" id="text"> </h:inputText> <rich:suggestionbox id="suggestionBoxId" for="text" tokens=",[]" suggestionAction="#{suggestion.getSimilarSpacePaths()}" var="result" fetchValue="#{result.path}" first="0" minChars="2" nothingLabel="No similar space paths found" columnClasses="center" > <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{result.path}" style="font-style:italic"/> </h:column> </rich:suggestionbox> and action class: @Name("suggestion") @Scope(ScopeType.CONVERSATION) public class Suggestion { @In protected EntityManager entityManager; private String input; public String getInput() { return input; } public void setInput(final String input) { this.input = input; } public List<Space> getSimilarSpacePaths() { List<Space> suggestionsList = new ArrayList<Space>(); if (!StringUtils.isEmpty(input) && !input.equals("/")) { final Query query = entityManager.createNamedQuery("SpaceByPathLike"); query.setParameter("path", input + '%'); suggestionsList = (List<Space>) query.getResultList(); } return suggestionsList; } } So, input beeing null, suggestionList is always empty... Why input's value is not posted?

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  • [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • C# override WndProc in Control level to detect

    - by Nullstr1ng
    I have overridden WndProc in UserControl level to detect MouseDown, MouseUp, and MouseMove to any Control added in that UserControl. protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { Point mouseLoc = new Point(); switch (m.Msg) { case WM_LBUTTONDOWN: System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("mouse down"); //this.OnMouseDown(new MouseEventArgs(MouseButtons.Left, 1, mouseLoc.X, mouseLoc.Y, 0)); break; case WM_LBUTTONUP: System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("mouse up"); //this.OnMouseDown(new MouseEventArgs(MouseButtons.Left, 1, mouseLoc.X,mouseLoc.Y, 0)); break; case WM_MOUSEMOVE: int lParam = m.LParam.ToInt32(); //mouseLoc.X = lParam & 0xFFFF; //mouseLoc.Y = (int)(lParam & 0xFFFF0000 >> 16); mouseLoc.X = (Int16)m.LParam; mouseLoc.Y = (Int16)((int)m.LParam >> 16); System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("mouse move: " + mouseLoc.X + ", " + mouseLoc.Y); //this.OnMouseDown(new MouseEventArgs(MouseButtons.Left, 1, mouseLoc.X,mouseLoc.Y, 0)); break; } base.WndProc(ref m); } MouseMove, Down, and Up are working when the mouse pointer is in UserControl but when the mouse pointer is on other control (inside my UserControl) it doesn't work. Am I doing something wrong? Currently developing a flick and scroll control.

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • How to Read some of the properties of the ItemSource when Laying out the Children?

    - by user275561
    Assume that I have the ItemSource bound and i am getting the data. Now what I want is this. The ItemSource will contain Data that tells where each button should be. For Example: The first Button could be at Left:200,Top:0, the Second could be Left:50 Top:20. </ItemsControl.Resources> <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <Controls:MatrixCanvas /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <item:CustomButton Height="{Binding btnSize}" Width="{Binding btnSize}" Style="{Binding bbColor,Converter={StaticResource ButtonStyleConverter}}" /> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> protected override Size ArrangeOverride(Size finalSize) { foreach (var child in Children) { //The child } return base.ArrangeOverride(finalSize); } The Child however is not giving me access to the Item that I want. Is their a good solution for this? Am I going about this the wrong way? The reason I am doing it like this is because their can be buttons added dynamically, removed, some buttons will need to move around etc..

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  • ASP.NET UpdatePanel > Get selected value from checbox list outside of panel

    - by Rob
    Hi, I have a listing in an UpdatePanel I have some filters for that list in the form a checkboxList control. The checkboxList is created dynamically on page load During the Ajax update (postback), the checkbox list is not populated form the viewstate, so I cannot get the listing to filter. Note: If I put the checkbox list items directly in the markup, it all works, just not if the listing is populated on-postback. protected override void OnLoad(EventArgs e) { if (!Page.IsPostBack) { foreach (var p in global.Product) CheckListManufacurer.Items.Add(new ListItem(p, p)); } base.OnLoad(e); } <form id="ProductListForm" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager" runat="server" EnablePartialRendering="true"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:CheckBoxList ID="CheckListManufacurer" runat="server" EnableViewState="true"> <asp:ListItem Value="" Text="(All)"></asp:ListItem> </asp:CheckBoxList> <asp:Button id="btnTestAjax" runat="server" Text="Test" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="ProductsPanel" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="btnTestAjax" /> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="CheckListManufacurer" /> </Triggers> <ContentTemplate> <sr:ProductList ID="Products" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form>

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  • Spring MVC with annotations: how to beget that method always is called

    - by TheStijn
    hi, I'm currently migrating a project that is using Spring MVC without annotations to Spring MVC with annotations. This is causing less problems than expected but I did come across one issue. In my project I have set up an access mechanisme. Whether or not a User has access to a certain view depends on more than just the role of the User (e.g. it also depends on the status of the entity, the mode (view/edit), ...). To address this I had created an abstract parent controller which has a method hasAccess. This method calls also other methods like getAllowedEditStatuses which are here and there overridden by the child controllers. The hasAccess method gets called from the showForm method (below code was minimized for your readability): @Override protected ModelAndView showForm(final HttpServletRequest request, final HttpServletResponse response, final BindException errors) throws Exception { Integer id = Integer.valueOf(request.getParameter("ID")); Project project = this.getProject(id); if (!this.hasAccess(project, this.getActiveUser())) { return new ModelAndView("errorNoAccess", "code", project != null ? project.getCode() : null); } return this.showForm(request, response, project, errors); } So, if the User has no access to the view then he gets redirected to an error page. Now the 'pickle': how to set this up when using annotations. There no longer is a showForm or other method that is always called by the framework. My (and maybe your) first thought was: simply call this method from within each controller before going to the view. This would of course work but I was hoping for a nicer, more generic solution (less code duplication). The only other solution I could think of is preceeding the hasAccess method with the @ModelAttribute annotation but this feels a lot like raping the framework :-). So, does anyone have a (better) idea? thanks, Stijn

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  • Error when calling SQL SP via LINQ

    - by PaulC
    Newbie problem: I have a SQL SP with ten parameters (eight input, two output) but when I attempt to call it via LINQ from code I get the following error message: "The best overloaded method match for 'DataClassesDataContext.ST_CR_CREATE_CASE_BASIS(string, string, string, string, System.DateTime?, string, string, string, ref int?, ref int?)' has some invalid arguments". The params with ? appear to be unrecognized, but I'm baffled: the data types match the SQL types, the number of parameters match, the other parmeters don't exhibit the same behaviour. Can anyone tell me what's going on? Thanks in advance. -- SQL SP: create procedure ST_CR_CREATE_CASE_BASIS @p_Pers_No nvarchar (50), @p_Subject nvarchar (255), @p_RQ_XML nvarchar(max), @p_RQ_XSL nvarchar(max), @p_Date_Submit smalldatetime, @p_User_ID_Submit nvarchar (255), @p_RQ_Status nvarchar (50), @p_User_ID_OnBehalf nvarchar (255), @p_Case_Number int output, @p_RQ_ID int output as begin -- ... etc.; the SP works fine when called from SSMS The code-behind proc from the aspx page looks like this: protected void cmdSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (DataClassesDataContext vDataCont = new DataClassesDataContext()) { Int32 vNewCaseNr; Int32 vNewReqNr; DateTime vNow = System.DateTime.Now; vDataCont.ST_CR_CREATE_CASE_BASIS("101", "Test Subject Late Wed", null, null, vNow , "101", "1", "101", ref vNewCaseNr, vNewReqNr); } }

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