Search Results

Search found 11453 results on 459 pages for 'hibernate session'.

Page 46/459 | < Previous Page | 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53  | Next Page >

  • Long running transactions with Spring and Hibernate?

    - by jimbokun
    The underlying problem I want to solve is running a task that generates several temporary tables in MySQL, which need to stay around long enough to fetch results from Java after they are created. Because of the size of the data involved, the task must be completed in batches. Each batch is a call to a stored procedure called through JDBC. The entire process can take half an hour or more for a large data set. To ensure access to the temporary tables, I run the entire task, start to finish, in a single Spring transaction with a TransactionCallbackWithoutResult. Otherwise, I could get a different connection that does not have access to the temporary tables (this would happen occasionally before I wrapped everything in a transaction). This worked fine in my development environment. However, in production I got the following exception: java.sql.SQLException: Lock wait timeout exceeded; try restarting transaction This happened when a different task tried to access some of the same tables during the execution of my long running transaction. What confuses me is that the long running transaction only inserts or updates into temporary tables. All access to non-temporary tables are selects only. From what documentation I can find, the default Spring transaction isolation level should not cause MySQL to block in this case. So my first question, is this the right approach? Can I ensure that I repeatedly get the same connection through a Hibernate template without a long running transaction? If the long running transaction approach is the correct one, what should I check in terms of isolation levels? Is my understanding correct that the default isolation level in Spring/MySQL transactions should not lock tables that are only accessed through selects? What can I do to debug which tables are causing the conflict, and prevent those tables from being locked by the transaction?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate noob fetch join problem

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I have two classes, Test2 and Test3. Test2 has an attribute test3 that is an instance of Test3. In other words, I have a unidirectional OneToOne association, with test2 having a reference to test3. When I select Test2 from the db, I can see that a separate select is being made to get the details of the associated test3 class. This is the famous 1+N selects problem. To fix this to use a single select, I am trying to use the fetch=join annotation, which I understand to be @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) However, with fetch set to join, I still see separate selects. Here are the relevant portions of my setup.. hibernate.cfg.xml: <property name="max_fetch_depth">2</property> Test2: public class Test2 { @OneToOne (cascade=CascadeType.ALL , fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn (name="test3_id") @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) public Test3 getTest3() { return test3; } NB I set the FetchType to EAGER out of desperation, even though it defaults to EAGER anyway for OneToOne mappings, but it made no difference. Thanks for any help! Edit: I've pretty much given up on trying to use FetchMode.JOIN - can anyone confirm that they have got it to work ie produce a left outer join? In the docs I see that "Usually, the mapping document is not used to customize fetching. Instead, we keep the default behavior, and override it for a particular transaction, using left join fetch in HQL" If I do a left join fetch instead: query = session.createQuery("from Test2 t2 left join fetch t2.test3"); then I do indeed get the results I want - ie a left outer join in the query.

    Read the article

  • Two Applications using the same index file with Hibernate Search

    - by Dominik Obermaier
    Hi, I want to know if it is possible to use the same index file for an entity in two applications. Let me be more specific: We have an online Application with a frondend for the users and an application for the backend tasks (= administrator interface). Both are running on the same JBOSS AS. Both Applications are using the same database, so they are using the same entities. Of course the package names are not the same in both applications for the entities. So this is our usecase: A user should be able to search via the frondend. The user is only allowed to see results which are tagged with "visible". This tagging happens in our admin interface, so the index for the frontend should be updated every time an entity is tagged as "visible" in the backend. Of course both applications do have the same index root folder. In my index folder there are 2 index files: de.x.x.admin.model.Product de.x.x.frondend.model.Product How to "merge" this via Hibernate Search Configuration? I just did not get it via the documentation... Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Spring import runs hibernate persistence twice

    - by Jaanus
    I have 2 spring configurations : spring-servlet.xml spring-security.xml needed to add this line to security: <beans:import resource="spring-servlet.xml"/> Now hibernate is ran twice, this is log screenshot : my web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> <listener> <listener-class> org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value> /WEB-INF/spring-security.xml </param-value> </context-param>

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Transient Extends problem

    - by mrvreddy
    @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseAbstract implements Serializable{ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; protected String test = //some random value; public String getTest() { return test; } public void setTest(String test){ this.test = test; } } @Entity public class Artist extends BaseAbstract { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; private Integer id; @override @Transient public String getTest() { return test; } ..... } My question is... when i am trying to do any operation on the artist, along with id and name, test is also getting saved which should not be the case... if i add the same transient on the baseabstract class getTest() method, i see test column NOT getting created(ideally what it should happen) but if i try to override the method with adding annotaion in the sub class it creates the test column... I dont know why this is happening since when hibernate is creating the artist object and checks for annotations, it should see the transient annotation present on the getTest() of artist method...and should not create a column in the database... Let me know if you need any clarification.... Any response on this is greatly appreciated.... Thank you

    Read the article

  • Hibernate JPA Caching Problem, Please help!

    - by Sameer Malhotra
    Ok, Here is my problem. I have a table named Master_Info_tbl. Its a lookup table: Here is the code for the table: @Entity @Table(name="MASTER_INFO_T") public class CodeValue implements java.io.Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -3732397626260983394L; private Integer objectid; private String codetype; private String code; private String shortdesc; private String longdesc; private Integer dptid; private Integer sequen; private Timestamp begindate; private Timestamp enddate; private String username; private Timestamp rowlastchange; //getter Setter methods I have a service layer which calls the method       service.findbycodeType("Code1");   same way this table is queried for the other code types as well e.g. code2, code3 and so on till code10 which gets the result set from the same table and is shown into the drop down of the jsp pages since these drop downs are in 90% of the pages I am thinking to cache them globally. Any idea how to achieve this? FYI: I am using JPA and Hibernate with Struts2 and Spring. The database being used is DB2 UDB8.2 Please help!

    Read the article

  • How to call stored procedure by hibernate?

    - by user367097
    Hi I have an oracle stored procedure GET_VENDOR_STATUS_COUNT(DOCUMENT_ID IN NUMBER , NOT_INVITED OUT NUMBER,INVITE_WITHDRAWN OUT NUMBER,... rest all parameters are OUT parameters. In hbm file I have written - <sql-query name="getVendorStatus" callable="true"> <return-scalar column="NOT_INVITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="INVITE_WITHDRAWN" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="INVITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="DISQUALIFIED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_AWAITED" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_IN_PROGRESS" type="string"/> <return-scalar column="RESPONSE_RECEIVED" type="string"/> { call GET_VENDOR_STATUS_COUNT(:DOCUMENT_ID , :NOT_INVITED ,:INVITE_WITHDRAWN ,:INVITED ,:DISQUALIFIED ,:RESPONSE_AWAITED ,:RESPONSE_IN_PROGRESS ,:RESPONSE_RECEIVED ) } </sql-query> In java I have written - session.getNamedQuery("getVendorStatus").setParameter("DOCUMENT_ID", "DOCUMENT_ID").setParameter("NOT_INVITED", "NOT_INVITED") ... continue till all the parametes . I am getting the sql exception 18:29:33,056 WARN [JDBCExceptionReporter] SQL Error: 1006, SQLState: 72000 18:29:33,056 ERROR [JDBCExceptionReporter] ORA-01006: bind variable does not exist Please let me know what is the exact process of calling a stored procedure from hibernate. I do not want to use JDBC callable statement.

    Read the article

  • Using Enum in Hibernate causes select followed by an update statement

    - by Leonardo
    Hi all, I have a mapped entity wich has an enum property. By loking at log file, whenever I run a select statement on such entity, the result is an immediately following update. For example if my result set contains 100 records, then I have: [INFO org... select...] [INFO org... update... where id=?] [INFO org... update... where id=?] .... repeated 100 times If I mark the property as update=false the problem disappear. The enum is assigned trough an enum converter class, which I copied from a well known book. So I don't know if I just copy and paste the code. Here it is how is declared on hbm file. <typedef class="mypackage.HbnEnumConverter" name="the_type"> <param name="enumClassname">mypackage.TheType</param> </typedef> Can you point out a direction to investigate this ? Beside, what are the consequences of having update=false on hibernate field ? thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC: ensure user always has a session variable set

    - by pcampbell
    Consider an ASP.NET MVC application that requires a session variable be set. It's used throughout the app. It'll be set by either reading a hashed value on the browser cookie, or after having the user login. In the WebForms + Master Page model, I'd check the Page_Load() of the master page. Perhaps not the ultimate event, but it was an easy one to find. How would you check and enforce the existance of a session variable in ASP.NET MVC? Consider that this question might not involve user login details, but some other piece of data (first visit time, perhaps).

    Read the article

  • asp.net 2.0 session timeout

    - by d3020
    I apologize in advance for this likely being asked before. I have an asp.net 2.0 web application and am trying to set the session timeout. My first attempt was to add this to the web.config. < sessionState mode="InProc" timeout="300" Users would tell me though that after about 20 minutes of being idle and then trying to do something again on the site they'd be redirected back to the login page. So now I'm trying timeout="60" in my < forms tag in the web.config. I also tried Session.Timeout=60 in my global.asax. Should these work? Do I need something else? Thank you for your time and help.

    Read the article

  • COMET with [Session ] TimeOut

    - by Amitd
    hi guys, Just Wondering how [Session] timeouts are(or can be) implemented when using Comet? I'm using Long polling Comet solution and want to implement a kind of Timeout feature. Example : If the user is on a Comet enabled page and doesn't respond to server events/notification for a period of time say 10 mins then invalidate his session and remove his request from server and redirect the user to a timeout page? Will this require Javascript XHR requests to check for a timeout explictly? Using ASP.NET 3.5 / C# (Doesn't need to be language specific) Thanks

    Read the article

  • Detect Client Computer name when an RDP session is open

    - by Ubiquitous Che
    Hey all, My manager has pointed out to me a few nifty things that one of our accounting applications can do because it can load different settings based on the machine name of the host and the machine name of the client when the package is opened in an RDP session. We want to provide similar functionality in one of my company's applications. I've found out on this site how to detect if I'm in an RDP session, but I'm having trouble finding information anywhere on how to detect the name of the client computer. Any pointers in the right direction would be great. I'm coding in C# for .NET 3.5 EDIT The sample code I cobbled together from the advice below - it should be enough for anyone who has a use for the WTSQuerySessionInformation to get a feel for what's going on. Note that this isn't necessarily the best way of doing it - just a starting point that I've found useful. When I run this locally, I get boring, expected answers. When I run it on our local office server in an RDP session, I see my own computer name in the WTSClientName property. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; namespace TerminalServicesTest { class Program { const int WTS_CURRENT_SESSION = -1; static readonly IntPtr WTS_CURRENT_SERVER_HANDLE = IntPtr.Zero; static void Main(string[] args) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); uint byteCount; foreach (WTS_INFO_CLASS item in Enum.GetValues(typeof(WTS_INFO_CLASS))) { Program.WTSQuerySessionInformation( WTS_CURRENT_SERVER_HANDLE, WTS_CURRENT_SESSION, item, out sb, out byteCount); Console.WriteLine("{0}({1}): {2}", item.ToString(), byteCount, sb); } Console.WriteLine(); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to exit..."); Console.ReadKey(); } [DllImport("Wtsapi32.dll")] public static extern bool WTSQuerySessionInformation( IntPtr hServer, int sessionId, WTS_INFO_CLASS wtsInfoClass, out StringBuilder ppBuffer, out uint pBytesReturned); } enum WTS_INFO_CLASS { WTSInitialProgram = 0, WTSApplicationName = 1, WTSWorkingDirectory = 2, WTSOEMId = 3, WTSSessionId = 4, WTSUserName = 5, WTSWinStationName = 6, WTSDomainName = 7, WTSConnectState = 8, WTSClientBuildNumber = 9, WTSClientName = 10, WTSClientDirectory = 11, WTSClientProductId = 12, WTSClientHardwareId = 13, WTSClientAddress = 14, WTSClientDisplay = 15, WTSClientProtocolType = 16, WTSIdleTime = 17, WTSLogonTime = 18, WTSIncomingBytes = 19, WTSOutgoingBytes = 20, WTSIncomingFrames = 21, WTSOutgoingFrames = 22, WTSClientInfo = 23, WTSSessionInfo = 24, WTSSessionInfoEx = 25, WTSConfigInfo = 26, WTSValidationInfo = 27, WTSSessionAddressV4 = 28, WTSIsRemoteSession = 29 } }

    Read the article

  • Java Date Hibernate cut off time

    - by Vlad
    Hi folks, I have a Date type column in Oracle DB and it contains date and time for sure. But when I'm trying to get data in java application it will return date with bunch of zeros instead of real time. In code it'll be like: SQLQuery sqlQuery = session.createSQLQuery("SELECT table.id, table.date FROM table"); List<Object[]> resultArray = sqlQuery.list(); Date date = (Date)resultArray[1]; If it was 26-feb-2010 17:59:16 in DB I'll get 26-feb-2010 00:00:00 How to get it with time?

    Read the article

  • Sharing ASP.NET State databases between multiple apps

    - by MikeWyatt
    Is it better for a collection of ASP.NET web apps to share the same session database, or should each one have its own? If there is no significant difference, having a single database would be preferable due to easier maintenance. Background My team has an assortment of ASP.NET web apps, all written in either Monorail 1.1 or ASP.NET MVC 1.0. Each app currently uses a dedicated session state database. I'm working on adding a new site to that list, and am debating whether I should create another new session database, or just share an existing one with another app.

    Read the article

  • Java - Google App Engine - InvalidClassException when I change a class that was stored in session sc

    - by Spines
    I updated my User class, and now whenever someone that had the old version of the User class stored in their session scope accesses my site, I get an InvalidClassException. javax.servlet.ServletException: java.lang.RuntimeException: java.io.InvalidClassException: User; local class incompatible: stream classdesc serialVersionUID = 4949038118012519093, local class serialVersionUID = -971500502189813151 How do I stop this error from happening for those users? I could probably invalidate everyone's sessions every time I want to update a class that gets stored in session scope, but is there a better way, so that my user's don't have to login again?

    Read the article

  • Users being forced to re-login randomly, before session and auth ticket timeout values are reached

    - by Don
    I'm having reports and complaints from my user that they will be using a screen and get kicked back to the login screen immediately on their next request. It doesn't happen all the time but randomly. After looking at the Web server the error that shows up in the application event log is: Event code: 4005 Event message: Forms authentication failed for the request. Reason: The ticket supplied has expired. Everything that I read starts out with people asking about web gardens or load balancing. We are not using either of those. We're a single Windows 2003 (32-bit OS, 64-bit hardware) Server with IIS6. This is the only website on this server too. This behavior does not generate any application exceptions or visible issues to the user. They just get booted back to the login screen and are forced to login. As you can imagine this is extremely annoying and counter-productive for our users. Here's what I have set in my web.config for the application in the root: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name=".TcaNet" protection="All" timeout="40" loginUrl="~/Login.aspx" defaultUrl="~/MyHome.aspx" path="/" slidingExpiration="true" requireSSL="false" /> </authentication> I have also read that if you have some locations setup that no longer exist or are bogus you could have issues. My path attributes are all valid directories so that shouldn't be the problem: <location path="js"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <location path="images"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <location path="anon"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <location path="App_Themes"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <location path="NonSSL"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> The only thing I'm not clear on is if my timeout value in the forms property for the auth ticket has to be the same as my session timeout value (defined in the app's configuration in IIS). I've read some things that say you should have the authentication timeout shorter (40) than the session timeout (45) to avoid possible complications. Either way we have users that get kicked to the login screen a minute or two after their last action. So the session definitely should not be expiring. Update 2/23/09: I've since set the session timeout and authentication ticket timeout values to both be 45 and the problem still seems to be happening. The only other web.config in the application is in 1 virtual directory that hosts Community Server. That web.config's authentication settings are as follows: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name=".TcaNet" protection="All" timeout="40" loginUrl="~/Login.aspx" defaultUrl="~/MyHome.aspx" path="/" slidingExpiration="true" requireSSL="true" /> </authentication> And while I don't believe it applies unless you're in a web garden, I have both of the machine key values set in both web.config files to be the same (removed for convenience): <machineKey validationKey="<MYVALIDATIONKEYHERE>" decryptionKey="<MYDECRYPTIONKEYHERE>" validation="SHA1" /> <machineKey validationKey="<MYVALIDATIONKEYHERE>" decryptionKey="<MYDECRYPTIONKEYHERE>" validation="SHA1"/> Any help with this would be greatly appreciated. This seems to be one of those problems that yields a ton of Google results, none of which seem to be fitting into my situation so far.

    Read the article

  • How Easy Is It to Hijack Session Vars on GoDaddy (PHP)

    - by yar
    This article states that If your site is run on a shared Web server, be aware that any session variables can easily be viewed by any other users on the same server. On a larger host like GoDaddy, are there really no protections in place against this? Could it really be that easy? If it is that easy, where are the session vars of the other users on my host so I can check them out? Edit: I didn't believe it, but here's my little program which shows that this is true! I wonder if those are really the same as the value stored in the cookies on the users' machine?

    Read the article

  • Recursive FTP directory listing in shell/bash with a single session (using cURL or ftp)

    - by Timo
    I am writing a little shellscript that needs to go through all folders and files on an ftp server (recursively). So far everything works fine using cURL - but it's pretty slow, becuase cURL starts a new session for every command. So for 500 directories, cURL preforms 500 logins. Does anybody know, whether I can stay logged in using cURL (this would be my favourite solution) or how I can use ftp with only one session in a shell script? I know how to execute a set of ftp commands and retrieve the response, but for the recursive listing, it has to be a little more dynamic... Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • IE won't start session from an iframe?..

    - by jayarjo
    The task was to bypass login form on remote server with a session_id acquired through a call to server's web API. So that user wouldn't have to login twice. Since there's no way to set cookies for different domain. What we came up to was - put a little file on remote server, to which we pass encrypted session_id from hidden iframe and which is supposed to start a proper session for a remote app, which is then loaded in another iframe. This approach works fine in FF/Chrome, but not IE... However if I copy url to self-made remote authorization script from iframe's src attribute to to IE's address bar and load it from there, session get's created as expected. But for some reason it just doesn't want to do the same from an iframe. Does anyone have any clue, why this is happening?

    Read the article

  • Is it safe to access asp.net session variables through static properties of a static object?

    - by Ronnie Overby
    Is it safe to access asp.net session variables through static properties of a static object? Here is what I mean: public static class SessionHelper { public static int Age { get { return (int)HttpContext.Current.Session["Age"]; } set { HttpContext.Current.Session["Age"] = value; } } public static string Name { get { return (string)HttpContext.Current.Session["Name"]; } set { HttpContext.Current.Session["Name"] = value; } } } Is it possible that userA could access userB's session data this way?

    Read the article

  • Invalidating session before iPhone application quits

    - by tartox
    Hello I would like to tell the server to invalidate an ongoing session when the user quits the iPhone application. In the app delegate, I send a request to the server in the (void)applicationWillTerminate:(UIApplication *)application method. I am not waiting for a server answer, I just want to send the request and quit. However I cant see any packet leaving the application. The same code in another place works fine. Session has a limited duration anyway and the server will invalidate it after a while, but I would prefer to do it nicely when leaving application. Is it normal that no NSURLConnection can be established from the applicationWillTerminate method ? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • IIS 6 session timing out a lot quicker than expected

    - by Echiban
    I am working with an web application that has its sessions timing out a lot quicker than expected. We expected a timeout of 15 minutes but it's timing out at 3-4 minutes. Info about environment: IIS6 classic ASP / COM+ app timeout OK on current PROD, much quicker in dev / QA environments We already disabled app pool recycling, and even put IIS in isolation mode - no effect HTTP err log doesn't display any lines when session times out We've done a close comparison of PROD and DEV / QA environments, and given we use virtual machines on all of them, settings should be preserved. I tried to find IIS blog notes from David Wang but many of them now have HTTP 404 errors, and I don't know what else to do. Please help! At the very least, is there a way to get IIS to log every time a session expires? At the very least some means of logging / debugging IIS would be useful. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Criteria hibernate

    - by apb
    my code session.createCriteria(Input.class); DateFormat format = new SimpleDateFormat("yyyy-MM-dd hh:mm:ss"); Date startDate = (Date)format.parse("2005-01-01 00:00:00"); Date endDate = (Date)format.parse("2005-03-03 00:00:00"); crit.add(Expression.between ("inputDate", new Date(startDate.getTime()), new Date(endDate.getTime()))); This code return a list, but there is no element present in it. i think it doesn't match the condition. Anybody help.

    Read the article

  • PHP session destroyed / lost after header

    - by ILMV
    I've got a script that sets some session values before redirecting to / using header(). I've read many posts about the $_SESSION variable being destroyed / lost after header(), even after I implemented this: // set session here session_regenerate_id(true); session_write_close(); header("Location: /"); session_start() is set in the correct places, does anyone know of anything that I might be missing? On the index.php page I have this: session_start(); print_r($_SESSION); // outputs nothing :'( The code is pretty complex so will not post it all, just snippets.

    Read the article

  • Combining Session and Cache

    - by Zyphrax
    To make my extranet web application even faster/more scalable I think of using some of the caching mechanisms. For some of the pages we'll use HTML caching, please ignore that technique for this question. E.g.: at some point in time 2500 managers will simultaneously login on our application (most of them with the same Account/Project) I think of storing an Account-cachekey and Project-cachekey into the user's Session and use that to get the item from the Cache. I could have simply stored the Account into the session, but that would result in 2500 of the same Accounts in memory. Is there a better solution to this or does it make sense :)?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53  | Next Page >