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  • In SQL How do I copy values from one table to another based on another field's value?

    - by Joshua1729
    Okay I have two tables VOUCHERT with the following fields ACTIVATIONCODE SERIALNUMBER VOUCHERDATADBID UNAVAILABLEAT UNAVAILABLEOPERATORDBID AVAILABLEAT AVAILABLEOPERATORDBID ACTIVATIONCODENEW EXT1 EXT2 EXT3 DENOMINATION -- I added this column into the table. and the second table is VOUCHERDATAT with the following fields VOUCHERDATADBID BATCHID VALUE CURRENCY VOUCHERGROUP EXPIRYDATE AGENT EXT1 EXT2 EXT3 What I want to do is copy the corresponding VALUE from VOUCHERDATAT and put it into DENOMINATION of VOUCHERT. The linking between the two is VOUCHERDATADBID. How do I go about it? It is not a 1:1 mapping. What I mean is there may be 1000 SERIALNUMBERS with a same VOUCHERDATADBID. And that VOUCHERDATADBID has only entry in VOUCHERDATAT, hence one value. Therefore, all serial numbers belonging to a certain VOUCHERDATADBID will have the same value. Will JOINS work? What type of JOIN should I use? Or is UPDATE table the way to go? Thanks for the help !!

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  • How to insert a value based on lookup from another table [SQL]?

    - by Shaitan00
    I need to find a way to do an INSERT INTO table A but one of the values is something that comes from a lookup on table B, allow me to illustrate. I have the 2 following tables: Table A: A1: String A2: Integer value coming from table B A3: More Data Table B: B1: String B2: Integer Value Example row of A: {"Value", 101, MoreData} Example row of B: {"English", 101} Now, I know I need to INSERT the following into A {"Value2", "English", MoreData} but obviously that won't work because it is expecting an Integer in the second column not the word "English", so I need to do a lookup in Table B first. Something like this: INSERT INTO tableA (A1, A2, A3) VALUES ("Value2", SELECT B2 FROM tableB where B1="English", MoreData); Obviously this doesn't work as-is ... Any suggestions?

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  • What is a good solution to link different tables in Hibernate based on some field value?

    - by serg555
    I have article table and several user tables a_user, b_user, ... with exactly the same structure (but different data). I can't change anything in *_user tables except their table name prefix but can change everything else (user tables contain only user information, there is nothing about article or user_type in them). I need to link article to a user (many-to-one), but user table name is defined by user_type field. For example Article table record: ... user_id="5" user_type="a" means that it is linked to a user with id=5 from a_user table (id 5 is not unique in users scope, each user table can have its id 5). Any suggestions how to handle this situation? How can I map this relation in Hibernate (xml mapping, no annotations) so it will automatically pick up correct user for an article during select/update? How should I map user tables (one or multiple classes?)? I would need to run some queries like this: from Article a where a.userType=:type and a.user.name=:name Thanks.

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  • Setting a cookie based on the name of the link that is clicked.

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR When clicking on a link I want to assign a cookie with a name of instrument and a value of the text on the link clicked. Using Jquery.1.4.2.min.js, Jquery.cookie.1.0.js I am trying to create a cookie when a link is clicked (will always link to "page.html"). name of instrument value of the TEXT So far I am trying to use: Link1: <a href="page.html">link1</a> Link2: <a href="page.html">link2</a> Script: $('a[href=page.html]').click(function() { var name = 'instrument'; var value = $(this).text(); $.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 }); }); When I click the link it just loads the link and no cookie is set. Debugging with firebug, firecookie, firequery. No cookie for instrument or anything along the lines is found. Onload I'll hit the "<a href="page.html">projects</a>" but not the "$.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 });" at all.

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  • Trouble managing events in Flex/actionscript

    - by Zaka
    Hello all, I'm doing some newbie tests, so I decided to capture the keyboard events to move a rectangle. But I don't get the desired result. Unless I click on the TextArea box, I'm not able to capture the event key code. After that, all goes pretty well. I'm using Eclipse 3.3 + Flex 3.0 on Linux. Here's my code: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" enterFrame="enterFrame(event)" keyDown="onKeyDown(event)"> <mx:TextArea id="myText" x="200" y="200" width="100" height="100" /> <mx:Canvas id="myCanvas" x="0" y="0" width="100" height="100" /> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public var clearColor : uint = 0xFF456798; public var myPoint : Point = new Point(0,0); public function enterFrame(event:Event):void { myCanvas.graphics.clear(); myCanvas.graphics.beginFill(0xFF344ff0); myCanvas.graphics.drawRect(myPoint.x,myPoint.y,40,40); myCanvas.graphics.endFill(); } public function onKeyDown(event:KeyboardEvent):void { myText.text = "Keycode is: " + event.keyCode + "\n"; switch(event.keyCode) { case 37: //Left myPoint.x -= 1; break; case 38: //Up myPoint.y -= 1; break; case 39: //Right myPoint.x += 1; break; case 40: //Down myPoint.y += 1; break; } } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application>

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  • Resizing of AS-based Flash app from FireFox vs. IE...

    - by bferster
    I have put in some controls to allow users to resize my Flash app via Javascript: document.getElementById("flashApp").height*=1.25; document.getElementById("flashApp").width*=1.25; This works great in IE/Safari, but is ignored in Firefox. I know it's talking the the flash app and gets and sets the height/width vars ok, but the same code run in FireFox ignores the scaling. (It's not the DOC spec issue) Any thoughts? Bill

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  • How to add on to an existing onclick event?

    - by Corey Sarnia
    I'm currently writing a Greasemonkey script for a page, so I can't modify the script myself. There is a form submit button on the page. When you click this button, it executes some fancy AJAX calls and such to update the page and do serverside things. What I'm trying to is basically set a "lastClick" value when the button is clicked. I want to add the code GM_setValue("lastClicked", (new Date()).getTime().toString()) to store the last time the button was clicked (for future uses of the script, it will actually do something with this date). How exactly can I accomplish this?

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  • Under Windows CE, how can I check which RAM based DLLs are loaded in virtual memory space?

    - by Michal Drozdowicz
    I have a problem with loading a DLL under Windows Mobile 5.0. I'm pretty confident that this is caused by running out of the application virtual memory (the 32 MB slot of the process, as explained in Windows CE .NET Advanced Memory Management). I'm looking for a way to actually make sure that this is the issue and investigate whether my efforts bring expected results. Do you know of a way to check the contents of the virtual memory application slot? Any applications that can help me with this task?

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  • How to access device settings on a S60 symbian based mobile phone?

    - by TheRHCP
    Hello everyone, I recently bought a Sony Ericsson mobile phone which embeds Symbian S60 and I would like to add a missing feature myself. In fact I cannot actually disable Internet connection in an easy way when roaming, which cost me a lot of money last time I moved away ... So I would like to develop a little application that would just replace the actual Internet configuration with a fake configuration to avoid auto-connections. So what I would like to know is how can I access programmatically to my phone settings? I believe that this is possible but I do not really have a clue where to start. I know that Sony Ericsson provides a SDK to run Java applications on its customised JVM but Symbian is also providing a SDK to develop applications for S60 devices in many languages. The real questions is which SDK will provide an API able to access phone settings. This is not well documented so I am asking this question with the hope that someone here already had experience with development for Sony Ericsson/Symbian devices. Thanks.

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  • Persisting object changes from child form to parent form based on button press.

    - by Shyran
    I have created a form that is used for both adding and editing a custom object. Which mode the form takes is provided by an enum value passed from the calling code. I also pass in an object of the custom type. All of my controls at data bound to the specific properties of the custom object. When the form is in Add mode, this works great as when the controls are updated with data, the underlying object is as well. However, in Edit mode, I keep two variables of the custom object supplied by the calling code, the original, and a temporary one made through deep copying. The controls are then bound to the temporary copy, this makes it easy to discard the changes if the user clicks the Cancel button. What I want to know is how to persist those changes back to the original object if the user clicks the OK button, since there is now a disconnect because of the deep copying. I am trying to avoid implementing a internal property on the Add/Edit form if I can. Below is an example of my code: public AddEditCustomerDialog(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { InitializeComponent(); InitializeCustomer(customer, mode); } private void InitializeCustomer(Customer customer, DialogMode mode) { this.customer = customer; if (mode == DialogMode.Edit) { this.Text = "Edit Customer"; this.tempCustomer = ObjectCopyHelper.DeepCopy(this.customer); this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.tempCustomer.PhoneList; } else { this.customerListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer; this.phoneListBindingSource.DataSource = this.customer.PhoneList; } }

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  • How to delete rows based on comparison from Data Flow Task in an SSIS?

    - by vikasde
    I have a DataFlow task with two OLE DB Source objects. This is the SQL I want to achieve using SSIS: Insert into server2.db.dbo.[table2] (...) Select col1, col2, col3 ... from Server1.db.dbo.[table1] where [table1.col1] not in (Select col5 from server2.db.dbo.[table2] Where ...) I am pretty new to SSIS and not sure how to achieve this. I thought I could do this using the Data Flow task and populating the first source with the data from server1.db.dbo.table1 and the second source with server2.db.dbo.[table2] and then do the conditional check before inserting it into server2.db.dbo.[table2]. I am not sure how to do the conditional check though. Any help is appreciated.

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  • How to combine two rows and calculate the time difference between two timestamp values in MySQL?

    - by Nadar
    I have a situation that I'm sure is quite common and it's really bothering me that I can't figure out how to do it or what to search for to find a relevant example/solution. I'm relatively new to MySQL (have been using MSSQL and PostgreSQL earlier) and every approach I can think of is blocked by some feature lacking in MySQL. I have a "log" table that simply lists many different events with their timestamp (stored as datetime type). There's lots of data and columns in the table not relevant to this problem, so lets say we have a simple table like this: CREATE TABLE log ( id INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name VARCHAR(16), ts DATETIME NOT NULL, eventtype VARCHAR(25), PRIMARY KEY (id) ) Let's say that some rows have an eventtype = 'start' and others have an eventtype = 'stop'. What I want to do is to somehow couple each "startrow" with each "stoprow" and find the time difference between the two (and then sum the durations per each name, but that's not where the problem lies). Each "start" event should have a corresponding "stop" event occuring at some stage later then the "start" event, but because of problems/bugs/crashed with the data collector it could be that some are missing. In that case I would like to disregard the event without a "partner". That means that given the data: foo, 2010-06-10 19:45, start foo, 2010-06-10 19:47, start foo, 2010-06-10 20:13, stop ..I would like to just disregard the 19:45 start event and not just get two result rows both using the 20:13 stop event as the stop time. I've tried to join the table with itself in different ways, but the key problems for me seems to be to find a way to correctly identify the corresponding "stop" event to the "start" event for the given "name". The problem is exactly the same as you would have if you had table with employees stamping in and out of work and wanted to find out how much they actually were at work. I'm sure there must be well known solutions to this, but I can't seem to find them...

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  • How to implement event listener in background of the main program in java?

    - by Johny
    Hi im a beginner so sorry for my question if it sounds naive. I want to implement a thread that runs in the background and listens all the time. By listening i mean, say it keeps check on a value returned from main thread and if the vaue exceeds certain figure, it executes some method, or say exits the program. If you could give me some idea or at least refer me to something useful, that'll be great.

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  • Javascript match part of url, if statement based on result.

    - by nick
    Here is an example of the url i'm trying to match: http://store.mywebsite.com/folder-1/folder-2/item3423434.aspx What im trying to match is http: //store.mywebsite.com/folder-1 except that "folder-1" will always be a different value. I can't figure out how to write an if statement for this: Example (pseudo-code) if(url contains http://store.mywebsite.com/folder-1) do this else if (url contains http://store.mywebsite.com/folder-2) do something else etc

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  • How do I stop a jquery animation based on CSS values?

    - by kevn
    So, I have two divs: #div1 and #div2. I want '#div2' to disappear when '#div1' has the CSS value: top = 0px. Here is the CSS: #div1 { top: 0px; } #div2 { display: block; } if ( $('#div1').css('top') == '0px' ) { $("#div2").hide(); } else { $("div2").fadeIn(); } $("div2").click(function(){ $("#div1").animate({top:"+=315px"}, "slow"); }); The problem I am running into is that I'm changing that CSS value (for #div1) via Javascript and for this reason, my js doesn't acknowledge the change and doesn't make the div disappear (I think). Is there any way to make #div2 disappear when #div1's CSS property top = 0 and reappear whenever it is changed? Or is there a better way to implement this?

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  • What is the difference between the * and the & operators in c programming?

    - by Wesley
    I am just making sure I understand this concept correctly. With the * operator, I make a new variable, which is allocated a place in memory. So as to not unnecessarily duplicate variables and their values, the & operator is used in passing values to methods and such and it actually points to the original instance of the variable, as opposed to making new copies...Is that right? It is obviously a shallow understanding, but I just want to make sure I am not getting them mixed up. Thanks!

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  • Is it bad practice to select upstream servers based upon the HTTP method?

    - by PartlyCloudy
    I'm wondering if it is bad practice to have a reverse proxy that selects the upstream server depending on the HTTP method used? The background is that I have an abitrary web server that handles POST requests with some logic behind. The same resources also contain static content, that can be retrieved using GET. After some benchmarking I realized that nginx would handle the static content way faster than my abitrary web server doing this. I checked the option to forward incoming requests internally using nginx, which is feasible. But this would lead to the fact that different servers would serve a distinct resource, only depending on issuing a GET or POST, including different header fields.

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  • Change the image height and width based on the scale?

    - by user281947
    I want to resize the image height and width after setting its scale, below is what i am doing : <Image x:Name="img" Source="sii.PNG" > <Image.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform x:Name="scale" /> </Image.RenderTransform> </Image> below is the cs code : void Slider_ValueChanged(object sender, RoutedPropertyChangedEventArgs<double> e) { scale.ScaleX = scale.ScaleY =e.NewValue; //here i have to change the height and width of an image }

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  • What is a good cms that is postgres compatible, open source and either php or python based?

    - by hackg
    Php or python Use and connect to our existing postgres databases open source / or very low license fees Common features of cms, with admin tools to help manage / moderate community have a large member base on very basic site where members provide us contact info and info about their professional characteristics. About to expand to build new community site (to migrate our member base to) where the users will be able to msg each other, post to forums, blog, share private group discussions, and members will be sent inivitations to earn compensation for their expertise. Profile pages, job postings, and video chat would be plus. Already have a team of admins savvy with web apps to help manage it but our developer resources are limited (3-4 programmers) and looking to save time in development as opposed to building our new site from scratch.

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  • How do I pass objects through a _url based on a routing in rails?

    - by Angela
    I want to pass the attributes associated with two objects into a path created from a route. In this case, the _url is skip_contact_letter_url. contact_letter and letter are passed through a render partial. The clip below resides in the partial. <%= link_to_remote "Skip Letter Remote #{contact_letter}", :url => skip_contact_letter_url(contact_letter, letter), :update => "update-area-#{contact_letter.id}-#{letter.id}" %> <span id='update-area-<%="#{contact_letter.id}-#{letter.id}"%>'> </span> The route I created looks like this: map.resources :contact_letters, :member => {:skip => :post} And the controller looks like this: def skip @contact_letter = ContactLetter.new(params[:all]) @contact_letter.status = "skipped" @contact_letter.date_sent = Date.today #@contact_letter.date_created = Date.today if @contact_letter.save render :text => 'This letter was skipped!' end end When I look at the console, none of the parameters from contact_letter or letter get passed through.

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  • Are programming languages and methods ineffective? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in asemlber form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually trully believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1, Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when adress you desire is further translated before reaching actuall RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Becouse you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect adressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2, Variable allocation duplicitly: When you run aaplication, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actuall instruction for do so, and that actuall number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in fomr of instruction, second in form of actuall bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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