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  • How to explain to someone that a data structure should not draw itself, explaining separation of con

    - by leeand00
    I have another programmer who I'm trying to explain why it is that a UI component should not also be a data-structure. For instance say that you get a data-structure that contains a record-set from the "database", and you wish to display that record-set in a UI component within your application. According to this programmer (who will remain nameless, he's young and I'm teaching him...), we should subclass the data-structure into a class that will draw the UI component within our application!!!!!! And thus according to this logic, the record-set should manage the drawing of the UI. **Head Desk*** I know that asking a record-set to draw itself is wrong, because, if you wish to render the same data-structure on more than one type of component on your UI, you are going to have a real mess on your hands; you'll need to extend yet another class for each and every UI component that you render from the base-class of your record-set; I am well aware of the "cleanliness" of the of the MVC pattern (and by that what I really mean is you don't confuse your data (the Model) with your UI (the view) or the actions that take place on the data (the Controller more or less...okay not really the API should really handle that...and the Controller should just make as few calls to it as it can, telling it which view to render)) But it's certainly alot cleaner than using data-structures to render UI components! Is there any other advice I could send his way other than the example above? I understand that when you first learn OOP you go through "a stage" where you where just want to extend everything. Followed by a stage when you think that Design Patterns are the solution every single problem...which isn't entirely correct either...thanks Jeff. Is there a way that I can gently nudge this kid in the right direction? Do you have any more examples that might help explain my point to him?

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  • MVC 2 Data annotations problem

    - by Louzzzzzz
    Hi. Going mad now. I have a MVC solution that i've upgraded from MVC 1 to 2. It all works fine.... except the Validation! Here's some code: In the controller: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Globalization; using System.Linq; using System.Security.Principal; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using MF.Services.Authentication; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; namespace MF.Controllers { //basic viewmodel public class LogOnViewData { [Required] public string UserName { get; set; } [Required] public string Password { get; set; } } [HandleError] public class AccountController : Controller { [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOn(LogOnViewData lvd, string returnUrl) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { //do stuff - IsValid is always true } } } } The ModelState is always valid. The model is being populated correctly however. Therefore, if I leave both username and password blank, and post the form the model state is still valid. Argh! Extra info: using structure map for IoD. Previously, before upgrading to MVC 2 was using the MS data annotation library so had this in my global.asax.cs: ModelBinders.Binders.DefaultBinder = new Microsoft.Web.Mvc.DataAnnotations.DataAnnotationsModelBinder(); Have removed that now. I'm sure i'm doing something really basic and wrong. If someone could point it out that would be marvellous. Cheers

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  • CodeIgniter's Scaffolding and Helper Functions Not Working

    - by 01010011
    Hi, I'm following CodeIgniter's tutorial "Create a blog in 20 minutes" and I am having trouble getting the helper, anchor and Scaffolding functions to work. I can't seem to create links on my HTML page using the helper and anchor functions. I put $this->load->helper('url'); $this->load->helper('form'); in the constructor under parent::Controller(); and <p>&lt;?php anchor('blog/comments','Comments'); ?&gt;</p> within the foreach loop as specified in the tutorial. But Im not getting the links to appear. Secondly, I keep getting a 404 Page Not Found error whenever I try to access CodeIgniter's Scaffolding page in my browser, like so: localhost/codeignitor/index.php/blog/scaffolding/mysecretword I can access localhost/codeignitor/index.php/blog just fine. I followed CodeIgnitor's instructions in their "Create a blog in 20 minutes" by storing my database settings in the database.php file; and automatically connecting to the database by inserting "database" in the core array of the autoload.php; and I've added both parent::Controller(); and $this->load->scaffolding('myTableName') to blog's constructor. It still gives me this 404. Any assistance will be appreciated. Thanks in advance?

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  • Optional route parameters in ASP.NET 4 RTM no longer work as before

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I upgraded my project to ASP.NET 4 RTM with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM today. I was previously using ASP.NET 3.5 with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM. Some of my routes don't work suddenly and I don't know why. I'm not sure if something changed between 3.5 and 4.0 - or if this was a regression type issue in the 4.0 RTM. (I never previously tested my app with 4.0). I like to use Url.RouteUrl("route-name", routeParams) to avoid ambiguity when generating URLs. Here's my route definition for a gallery page. I want imageID to be optional (you get a thumbnail page if you don't specify it). // gallery id routes.MapRoute( "gallery-route", "gallery/{galleryID}/{imageID}/{title}", new { controller = "Gallery", action = "Index", galleryID = (string) null, imageID = (string) null, title = (string) null} ); In .NET 3.5 / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => /gallery/cats Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles In .NET 4.0 RTM / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => null Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles Previously I could supply only the galleryID and everything else would be ignored in the generated URL. But now it's looking like I need to specify all the parameters up until title - or it gives up in determining the URL. Incoming URLs work fine for /gallery/cats and that is correctly mapped through this rule with imageID and title both being assigned null in my controller. I also tested the INCOMING routes with http://haacked.com/archive/2008/03/13/url-routing-debugger.aspx and they all work fine.

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  • Debugging NSoperation BAD ACCESS within graphics context

    - by Joe
    I tried everything to debug this one but I can't get to the bottom of it. This code lives in a subclass of NSOperation which is processed from a queue: (borders is an ivar NSArray containing 5 UIimage objects) NSMutableArray *images = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; for (unsigned i = 0; i < 5; i++) { CGSize size = CGSizeMake(60, 60); UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(size); CGPoint thumbPoint = CGPointMake(6, 6); [controller.image drawAtPoint:thumbPoint]; CGPoint borderPoint = CGPointMake(0, 0); [[borders objectAtIndex:i] drawAtPoint:borderPoint]; [images addObject:UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext()]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); } [images release]; The code works fine most of the time but when I push the iphone by access subviews and pressing lots of buttons on the UI I either get this exception which is trapped by the operation: Exception Load view: *** -[NSCFArray insertObject:atIndex:]: attempt to insert nil or I get this: Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. The exception is caused because UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext() return nil. I don't know how to debug the EXC_BAD_ACCESS but I'm guessing that this error (in fact both of these errors) is caused by low memory. The debugger stops at the line: [controller.image drawAtPoint:thumbPoint]; As I mentioned I've trapped the exception so I can live with that but the EXC_BAD_ACCESS is more serious. IF this is memory related how can I tell and is it possible to increase the memory available to NSOperation?

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  • How to display a subview loaded from a separate NIB file

    - by Marcus Netter
    I'm developing a Cocoa desktop application that uses a source list in the style of iTunes: different elements in the source list cause the main content area to display different views. The content area is entirely filled with a (vertical) NSSplitView; on the left is an NSOutlineView source list. When the user selects an item on the left, the relevant view appears on the right side of the splitter. I can make it work well enough by putting everything in one NIB file and putting a borderless NSTabView to the right of the splitter; to switch views, I just have to change the selected tab. But putting all the views in one NIB is bad practice, so I'm trying to move each of the subviews into their own NIB files. I have a pretty good idea of most of this process — I've created an NSViewController subclass for each of these views (EntityDetailViewController, GroupDetailViewController, and so on), set the File's Owner of each new NIB to the relevant controller class, set the view connection in each NIB, and reworked the bindings. What I don't know is how to actually change which subview is being shown on screen. I've tried using the default generic NSView on the right side and sending it addSubview: messages; I've tried connecting to it as the first subview and calling NSView *newSubview = /* get subview from the new subview controller */ [[subview superview] replaceSubview:subview with:newSubview]; [self setSubview:newSubview]; But everything just leaves the space blank. How do I display a subview loaded from a separate NIB?

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  • Entity Framework with ASP.NET MVC. Updating entity problem

    - by Kitaly
    Hi people. I'm trying to update an entity and its related entities as well. For instance, I have a class Car with a property Category and I want to change its Category. So, I have the following methods in the Controller: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var categories = context.Categories.ToList(); ViewData["categories"] = new SelectList(categories, "Id", "Name"); var car = context.Cars.Where(c => c.Id == id).First(); return PartialView("Form", car); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { var category = context.Categories.Where(c => c.Id == car.Category.Id).First(); car.Category = category; context.UpdateCar(car); context.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } The UpdateCar method, in ObjectContext class, follows: public void UpdateCar(Car car) { var attachedCar = Cars.Where(c => c.Id == car.Id).First(); ApplyItemUpdates(attachedCar, car); } private void ApplyItemUpdates(EntityObject originalItem, EntityObject updatedItem) { try { ApplyPropertyChanges(originalItem.EntityKey.EntitySetName, updatedItem); ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(updatedItem, originalItem); } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } public void ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(IEntityWithRelationships newEntity, IEntityWithRelationships oldEntity) { foreach (var relatedEnd in oldEntity.RelationshipManager.GetAllRelatedEnds()) { var oldRef = relatedEnd as EntityReference; if (oldRef != null) { var newRef = newEntity.RelationshipManager.GetRelatedEnd(oldRef.RelationshipName, oldRef.TargetRoleName) as EntityReference; oldRef.EntityKey = newRef.EntityKey; } } } The problem is that when I set the Category property after the POST in my controller, the entity state changes to Added instead of remaining as Detached. How can I update one-to-one relationship with Entity Framework and ASP.NET MVC without setting all the properties, one by one like this post?

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  • log4j vs. System.out.println - logger advantages?

    - by wishi_
    Hi! I'm newly using log4j in a project. A fellow programmer told me that using System.out.println is considered bas style and that log4j is something like standard for logging matters nowadays. We do lots of JUnit testing - System.out stuff turns out to be harder to test. Therefore I began utilizing log4j for a Console controller class, that's just handling commandline parameters. // some logger config org.apache.log4j.BasicConfigurator.configure(); Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Console.class); Category cat = Category.getRoot(); Seems to work: logger.debug("String"); Produces: 1 [main] DEBUG project.prototype.controller.Console - String I got two questions regarding this: From my basic understanding using this logger should provide me comfortable options to write a logfile with timestamps - instead of spamming the console - if debug mode is enabled at the logger? Why is System.out.println harder to test? I searched stackoverflow and found a testing recipe. So I wonder what kind of advantage I really get by using log4j.

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  • Why I cannot add a JPanel to JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Here is the code: import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.JLabel; import java.awt.event.*; import java.awt.*; public class GameWindow { private String[] players; private JFrame frame; // Constructor. public GameWindow(String[] players) { this.players = players; } // Start the window in the EDT. public void start() { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { showWindow(); controller.start(); } }); } // Defines the general properties of and starts the window. public void showWindow() { frame = new JFrame("Game"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setSize(600,400); frame.setVisible(true); } // The thread controlling changes of panels in the main window. private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { frame.add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }; // Generate the panel for the selection of a partner. private JPanel generatePartnerSelectionPanel() { JPanel panel = new JPanel(); panel.add(new JLabel("Pleas select a partner:")); return panel; } } I should see "Pleas select the partner" and I don't. Why? I suppose that it's because I do not see frame from the run method of the Thread.

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  • In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

    - by Navi
    I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

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  • Strage character encoding problem with Eclipse / Spring / Tomcat 6

    - by Czar
    Hi, I have been trying things all da but can't get a proper solution. My problem is: I am developing a Spring MVC based app in my local Tomcat. My MYSQl database has UTF-8 encoding set, all content in there displays properly when using phpMyAdmin. Also the output in LOG files using log4j in catalina.out works fine. My JSP pages are configured by <!-- encoding --> <%@ page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" %> <%@ page pageEncoding="UTF-8" %> Also showing data on my JSP works fine. I can also send data from my Controller without any DB intereference using special chars, e.g. String str = "UTF-8 Test: Ä Ö Ü ß è é â"; logger.debug(str); mav.addObject("utftest", str); That displays correctly in log and on jsp page in browser. BUT: When having special chars directly in my JSP file, e.g. for text in headers, this does not work. FF and Google Chrome display strange chars but report the page to be UTF-8. When switching to Latin, the chars just get more and more strange. Same problem when showing text tokens from my messages.properties file, although Eclipse says when right-clicking that UTF-8 will be used. I am a little it lost and don't know where to check now. Summary: DB storage is fine DB output on JSP is fine Output on JSP directly form controller is fine even reading in form forms is fine .properties files and JSP text is not fine !!! Any ideas? I really appreciate and tips.

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  • Warning: preg_match() [function.preg-match]: Unknown modifier '/' problem

    - by SonOfOmer
    I am building custom implementation of php MVC routing engine, and I have custom routes like one in $routes array below. Each time when I send asynchronous GET request like xmlhttp.open("GET","someurl"); I get following message Warning: preg_match() [function.preg-match]: Unknown modifier '/' problem but with synchronous (normal) request it all works fine <?php $routes = array( array('url' => '/^someurl$/', 'controller' => 'somecontroller', 'view' => 'someview') ); $url = $_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']; $url = substr( $url, 1 ); $params = array(); $route_match = false; foreach($routes as $urls => $route) { if(preg_match($route['url'], $url, $matches)) { $params = array_merge($params, $matches); $route_match = true; break; } } require_once(CONTROLLER_PATH.$route['controller'].'.php'); ?> string(11) "/^someurl$/" is the result of var_dump($route['url']); Thanks.

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

    - by Tim Geerts
    Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • Seam:token tag not being respected

    - by JBristow
    When I click a command button, and then hit the browser back button to the form and click it again, it submits a second time without throwing the proper exception... Even stranger, the form id itself is DIFFERENT when I come back, which implies it has regenerated a "valid" form id at some point. Here's the relevant code: Any ideas? <h:form id="accountActivationForm"> <s:token/> <a4j:commandButton id="cancelActivateAccountButton" action="#{controller[cancelAction]}" image="/images/button-Cancel-gray.gif" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onCancelComplete}" /> &#160; <a4j:commandButton id="activateAccountButton" action="#{controller[agreeAction]}" image="/images/button-i-agree-continue.gif" styleClass="activate-account-button" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onActivationComplete}"/> </h:form> Clarifications: I inherited this, so I'm trying to change it as little as possible. (It's used in a couple places.) Each action returns a view, not null. I have confirmed this by stepping through line-by-line. The reRenderList is empty in my current test-case. onActivationComplete is also empty. I'm going to be going template-by-template to see if someone made it with nested forms, because my coworkers have had unrelated problems due to that, so it couldn't hurt to eliminate that as a possible problem.

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  • Attempted to read or write protected memory

    - by Interfector
    I have a sample ASP.NET MVC 3 web application that is following Jonathan McCracken's Test-Drive Asp.NET MVC (great book , by the way) and I have stumbled upon a problem. Note that I'm using MVCContrib, Rhino and NUnit. [Test] public void ShouldSetLoggedInUserToViewBag() { var todoController = new TodoController(); var builder = new TestControllerBuilder(); builder.InitializeController(todoController); builder.HttpContext.User = new GenericPrincipal(new GenericIdentity("John Doe"), null); Assert.That(todoController.Index().AssertViewRendered().ViewData["UserName"], Is.EqualTo("John Doe")); } The code above always throws this error: System.AccessViolationException : Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. The controller action code is the following: [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { ViewData.Model = Todo.ThingsToBeDone; ViewBag.UserName = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; return View(); } From what I have figured out, the app seems to crash because of the two assignements in the controller action. However, I cannot see how there are wrong!? Can anyone help me pinpoint the solution to this problem. Thank you.

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  • @Autowire strange problem

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a strange behaviour when autowiring I have a similar code like this one, and it works @Controller public class Class1 { @Autowired private Class2 object2; ... } @Service @Transactional public class Class2{ ... } The problem is that I need that the Class2 implements an interface so I've only changed the Class2 so it's now like: @Controller public class Class1 { @Autowired private Class2 object2; ... } @Service @Transactional public class Class2 implements IServiceReference<Class3, Long>{ ... } public interface IServiceReference<T, PK extends Serializable> { public T reference(PK id); } with this code I get a org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No matching bean of type for Class2. It seems that @ Transitional annotation is not compatible with the interface because if I remove the @Transitional annotation or the "implements IServiceReference" the problem disapears and the bean is injected (though I need to have both in this class). It also happens if I put the annotation @Transitional in the methods instead of in the Class. I use Spring 3.0.2 if this helps. Is not compatible the interface with the transactional method? May it be a Spring bug? Thanks

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  • Use the repository pattern when using PLINQO generated data?

    - by Chad
    I'm "upgrading" an MVC app. Previously, the DAL was a part of the Model, as a series of repositories (based on the entity name) using standard LINQ to SQL queries. Now, it's a separate project and is generated using PLINQO. Since PLINQO generates query extensions based on the properties of the entity, I started using them directly in my controller... and eliminated the repositories all together. It's working fine, this is more a question to draw upon your experience, should I continue down this path or should I rebuild the repositories (using PLINQO as the DAL within the repository files)? One benefit of just using the PLINQO generated data context is that when I need DB access, I just make one reference to the the data context. Under the repository pattern, I had to reference each repository when I needed data access, sometimes needing to reference multiple repositories on a single controller. The big benefit I saw on the repositories, were aptly named query methods (i.e. FindAllProductsByCategoryId(int id), etc...). With the PLINQO code, it's _db.Product.ByCatId(int id) - which isn't too bad either. I like both, but where it gets "harrier" is when the query uses predicates. I can roll that up into the repository query method. But on the PLINQO code, it would be something like _db.Product.Where(x = x.CatId == 1 && x.OrderId == 1); I'm not so sure I like having code like that in my controllers. Whats your take on this?

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  • Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

    - by Bob
    I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue?

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  • Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

    - by Bob
    I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue? EDIT: I used Fiddler to see if AjaxPage was being cached, but it appears not to be. I assume if it were cached, I'd get an HTTP Status Code 200 back. I may simply misunderstand this though.

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  • How can I capture Rake output when invoked from with a Ruby script?

    - by Adrian O'Connor
    I am writing a web-based dev-console for Rails development. In one of my controller actions, I am calling Rake, but I am unable to capture any of the output that Rake generates. For example, here is some sample code, from the controller: require 'rake' require 'rake/rdoctask' require 'rake/testtask' require 'tasks/rails' require 'stringio' ... def show_routes @results = capture_stdout { Rake.tasks['routes'].invoke } # @results is nil -- the capture_stdout doesn't catpure anything that Rake generates end def capture_stdout s = StringIO.new $stdout = s yield s.string ensure $stdout = STDOUT end Does anybody know why I can't capture the Rake output? I've tried going through the Rake source, and I can't see where it fires a new process or anything, so I think I ought to be able to do this. Many thanks! Adrian I have since discovered the correct way to call Rake from inside Ruby that works much better: Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].reenable Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].invoke Strangely, some rake tasks work perfectly now (routes), some capture the output the first time the run and after that are always blank (db:migrate:redo) and some don't seem to ever capture output (test). Odd.

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  • jQuery ajax success not work in codeigniter

    - by softboxkid
    I had a problem with ajax. The trick is, when user click on the top hyperlink, it will send the link id through onclick=getChildMenuLink(str). Then from getChildMenuLink(str) function, it will send the str to the controller (to set the session) thru ajax. here is the code. html code <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig" onclick="getChildMenuLink(1)">Administrator</a> <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/welcome" onclick="getChildMenuLink(22)">Home</a> jquery ajax function getChildMenuLink(str) { 'use strict'; $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig/getLink/" + str, success: function () {} // End of success function of ajax form }); // End of ajax call //alert(document.URL); } codeigniter controller function getLink($id='') { $this->session->unset_userdata('parentLink'); $this->session->set_userdata('parentLink',$id); } if i uncomment the alert() function on that script, it work. the PHP session is properly set. please help me

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  • Where to put data management rules for complex data validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by TheRHCP
    Hello, I am currently working on an ASP.NET MVC2 project. This is the first time I am working on a real MVC web application. The ASP.NET MVC website really helped me to get started really fast, but I still have some obscure knowledge concerning datamodel validation. My problem is that I do not really know where to manage my filled datamodel when it comes to complex validation rules. For example, validating a string field with a Regex is quite easy and I know that I just have to decorate my field with a specific attribute, so data management rules are implemented in the model. But if I have multiple fields that I need to validate which each other, for example multiple datetime that need to be correctly set following a specific time rule, where do I need to validate them? I know that I could create my own validation attributes, but sometimes validation ask a specific validation path which is to complex to be validated using attributes. This first question also leads me to a related question which is, is it right to validate a model in the controller? Because for the moment that is the only way I found for complex validation. But I find this a bit dirty and I feel it does not really fit a the controller role and much harder to test (multiple code path). Thanks.

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  • NSPopupButton bound to NSArrayController not updating

    - by BuzzB
    I've got an NSPopupButton bound to an NSArrayController. (Man, that was harder than I thought it would be!) I have an NSArrayController bound to an NSMutableArray via the NSArrayController's "Controller Content" binding. The "Content" and "Content Values" bindings of the NSPopupButton are bound to my NSArrayController, and "Selected Object" is bound to a member in my app delegate. It is working as I expect. Except, when I add items to the NSMutableArray that my NSArrayController is bound to they don't appear in the popup. I kind of expected this to work automagically... with the NSArrayController observing the NSMutableArray and updating the NSPopupButton as necessary. Clearly I am missing something. [Update] Ok, clearly I am adding items to my array in a way that the array controller can't see. I finally found this... https://developer.apple.com/library/mac/documentation/cocoa/conceptual/CocoaBindings/Concepts/Troubleshooting.html But I really don't understand what it means. Does anyone know of a simple example of the proper way to dynamically added items to a bound NSMutableArray when the "adder" has no idea that there is a UI element bound to the array? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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