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  • (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

    - by Ben Packard
    Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

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  • How do I set the Eclipse build path and class path from an Ant build file?

    - by Nels Beckman
    Hey folks, There's a lot of discussion about Ant and Eclipse, but no previously answered seems to help me. Here's the deal: I am trying to build a Java program that compiles successfully with Ant from the command-line. (To confuse matters further, the program I am attempting to compile is Ant itself.) What I really want to do is to bring this project into Eclipse and have it compile in Eclipse such that the type bindings and variable bindings (nomenclature from Eclipse JDT) are correctly resolved. I need this because I need to run a static analysis on the code that is built on top of Eclipse JDT. The normal way I bring a Java project into Eclipse so that Eclipse will build it and resolve all the bindings is to just import the source directories into a Java project, and then tell it to use the src/main/ directory as a "source directory." Unfortunately, doing that with Ant causes the build to fail with numerous compile errors. It seems to me that the Ant build file is setting up the class path and build path correctly (possibly by excluding certain source files) and Eclipse does not have this information. Is there any way to take the class path & build path information embedded in an Ant build file, and given that information to Eclipse to put in its .project and .classpath files? I've tried, creating a new project from an existing build file (an option in the File menu) but this does not help. The project still has the same compile errors. Thanks, Nels

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  • FileHelpers cannot map converted field into destination array

    - by jaffa
    I have the following record (reduced for brevity): [DelimitedRecord(",")] [IgnoreFirst] [IgnoreEmptyLines()] public class ImportRecord { [FieldQuoted] [FieldTrim(TrimMode.Both)] public string FirstName; [FieldQuoted] [FieldTrim(TrimMode.Both)] public string LastName; [FieldQuoted] [FieldTrim(TrimMode.Both)] [FieldOptional] [FieldConverter(typeof(TestPropertyConverter))] public int[] TestProperty; } Converter code: public class TestPropertyConverter : ConverterBase { public override object StringToField(string from) { var ret = from.Split('|').Select(x => Convert.ToInt32(x)).ToArray(); return ret; } } So an example record could be: John, Smith, 1|2|3|4 It would expect the values 1,2,3,4 to expand and fill the TestProperty array. However, I'm getting the following exception: At least one element in the source array could not be cast down to the destination array type. I've tried to debug into the code and it seems to blow-up in the ExtractFieldValue() function inside FieldBase.cs where it tries to return out of the function. The following line seems to be the culprit: res.ToArray(ArrayType); It seems to expect the 'res' variable to be the destination type array, but it contains 1 element of the array itself. Can anyone suggest if I'm doing this wrong or a possible fix?

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  • Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

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  • What is the preferred way in C++ for converting a builtin type (int) to bool?

    - by Martin
    When programming with Visual C++, I think every developer is used to see the warning warning C4800: 'BOOL' : forcing value to bool 'true' or 'false' from time to time. The reason obviously is that BOOL is defined as int and directly assigning any of the built-in numerical types to bool is considered a bad idea. So my question is now, given any built-in numerical type (int, short, ...) that is to be interpreted as a boolean value, what is the/your preferred way of actually storing that value into a variable of type bool? Note: While mixing BOOL and bool is probably a bad idea, I think the problem will inevitably pop up whether on Windows or somewhere else, so I think this question is neither Visual-C++ nor Windows specific. Given int nBoolean; I prefer this style: bool b = nBoolean?true:false; The following might be alternatives: bool b = !!nBoolean; bool b = (nBoolean != 0); Is there a generally preferred way? Rationale? I should add: Since I only work with Visual-C++ I cannot really say if this is a VC++ specific question or if the same problem pops up with other compilers. So it would be interesting to specifically hear from g++ or users how they handle the int-bool case. Regarding Standard C++: As David Thornley notes in a comment, the C++ Standard does not require this behavior. In fact it seems to explicitly allow this, so one might consider this a VC++ weirdness. To quote the N3029 draft (which is what I have around atm.): 4.12 Boolean conversions [conv.bool] A prvalue of arithmetic, unscoped enumeration, pointer, or pointer to member type can be converted to a prvalue of type bool. A zero value, null pointer value, or null member pointer value is converted to false; any other value is converted to true. (...)

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  • [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

    - by David
    I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

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  • Project management: Implementing custom errors in VS compilation process

    - by David Lively
    Like many architects, I've developed coding standards through years of experience to which I expect my developers to adhere. This is especially a problem with the crowd that believes that three or four years of experience makes you a senior-level developer.Approaching this as a training and code review issue has generated limited success. So, I was thinking that it would be great to be able to add custom compile-time errors to the build process to more strictly enforce this and other guidelines. For instance, we use stored procedures for ALL database access, which provides procedure-level security, db encapsulation (table structure is hidden from the app), and other benefits. (Note: I am not interested in starting a debate about this.) Some developers prefer inline SQL or parametrized queries, and that's fine - on their own time and own projects. I'd like a way to add a compilation check that finds, say, anything that looks like string sql = "insert into some_table (col1,col2) values (@col1, @col2);" and generates an error or, in certain circumstances, a warning, with a message like Inline SQL and parametrized queries are not permitted. Or, if they use the var keyword var x = new MyClass(); Variable definitions must be explicitly typed. Do Visual Studio and MSBuild provide a way to add this functionality? I'm thinking that I could use a regular expression to find unacceptable code and generate the correct error, but I'm not sure what, from a performance standpoint, is the best way to to integrate this into the build process. We could add a pre- or post-build step to run a custom EXE, but how can I return line- and file-specifc errors? Also, I'd like this to run after compilation of each file, rather than post-link. Is a regex the best way to perform this type of pattern matching, or should I go crazy and run the code through a C# parser, which would allow node-level validation via the parse tree? I'd appreciate suggestions and tales of prior experience.

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  • POST variables to web server?

    - by OverTheRainbow
    Hello I've been trying several things from Google to POST data to a web server, but none of them work: I'm still stuck at how to convert the variables into the request, considering that the second variable is an SQL query so it has spaces. Does someone know the correct way to use a WebClient to POST data? I'd rather use WebClient because it requires less code than HttpWebRequest/HttpWebResponse. Here's what I tried so far: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim wc = New WebClient() 'convert data wc.Headers.Add("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded") Dim postData = String.Format("db={0}&query={1}", _ HttpUtility.UrlEncode("books.sqlite"), _ HttpUtility.UrlEncode("SELECT id,title FROM boooks")) 'Dim bytArguments As Byte() = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes("db=books.sqlite|query=SELECT * FROM books") 'POST query Dim bytRetData As Byte() = wc.UploadData("http://localhost:9999/get", "POST", postData) RichTextBox1.Text = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(bytRetData) Exit Sub Dim client = New WebClient() Dim nv As New Collection nv.Add("db", "books.sqlite") nv.Add("query", "SELECT id,title FROM books") Dim address As New Uri("http://localhost:9999/get") 'Dim bytRetData As Byte() = client.UploadValues(address, "POST", nv) RichTextBox1.Text = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(bytRetData) Exit Sub 'Dim wc As New WebClient() 'convert data wc.Headers.Add("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded") Dim bytArguments As Byte() = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes("db=books.sqlite|query=SELECT * FROM books") 'POST query 'Dim bytRetData As Byte() = wc.UploadData("http://localhost:9999/get", "POST", bytArguments) RichTextBox1.Text = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(bytRetData) Exit Sub End Sub Thank you.

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  • Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

    - by rksprst
    I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

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  • Validating Time & Date To Be At Least A Certain Amount Of Time In The Future

    - by MJH
    I've built a reservation form for a taxi company which works fine, but I'm having an issue with users making reservations that are due too soon in the future. Since the entire form is kind of long, I first want to make sure the user is not trying to make a reservation for less than an hour ahead of time, without them having to fill out the whole form. This is what I have come up with so far, but it's just not working: <?php //Set local time zone. date_default_timezone_set('America/New_York'); //Get current date and time. $current_time = date('Y-m-d H:i:s'); //Set reservation time variable $res_datetime = $_POST['res_datetime']; //Set event time. $event_time = strtotime($res_datetime); ?> <!doctype html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>Check Date and Time</title> </head> <?php //Check to be sure reservation time is at least one hour in the future. if (($current_time - $event_time) <= (3600)) { echo "You must make a reservation at least one hour ahead of time."; } ?> <form name="datetime" action="" method="post"> <input name="res_datetime" type="datetime-local" id="res_datetime"> <input type="submit"> </form> <body> </body> </html> How can I create a validation check to make sure the date and time of the reservation is at least one hour ahead of time?

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  • What is a NULL value

    - by Adi
    I am wondering , what exactly is stored in the memory when we say a particular variable pointer to be NULL. suppose I have a structure, say typdef struct MEM_LIST MEM_INSTANCE; struct MEM_LIST { char *start_addr; int size; MEM_INSTANCE *next; }; MEM_INSTANCE *front; front = (MEM_INSTANCE*)malloc(sizeof(MEM_INSTANCE*)); -1) If I make front=NULL. What will be the value which actually gets stored in the different fields of the front, say front-size ,front-start_addr. Is it 0 or something else. I have limited knowledge in this NULL thing. -2) If I do a free(front); It frees the memory which is pointed out by front. So what exactly free means here, does it make it NULL or make it all 0. -3) What can be a good strategy to deal with initialization of pointers and freeing them . Thanks in advance

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  • How to set up django-admin.py on windows vista?

    - by shin
    I manage to install Django after some struggles by using setup.py install on Windows Vista Now I tried to use django-admin.py but it is not working. According to this document, http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/ref/django-admin/ The django-admin.py script should be on your system path if you installed Django via its setup.py utility. If it’s not on your path, ... For Windows users, who do not have symlinking functionality available, you can copy django-admin.py to a location on your existing path or edit the PATH settings (under Settings - Control Panel - System - Advanced - Environment...) to point to its installed location. I checked ComputerpropertiesEnvironment Variables, but path to django-admin.py is not in anywhere. So I added C:\Python25\Lib\site-packages\django\bin which is the folder of django-admin.py in User variables for shin Variable PATH, Value C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\;C:\Python25\Lib\site-packages\django\bin\ Am I supposed to add to System variables?? But it still does not work. Could anyone tell me how to add the Path in Environment Variables please? Thanks in advance.

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  • Linq is returning too many results when joined

    - by KallDrexx
    In my schema I have two database tables. relationships and relationship_memberships. I am attempting to retrieve all the entries from the relationship table that have a specific member in it, thus having to join it with the relationship_memberships table. I have the following method in my business object: public IList<DBMappings.relationships> GetRelationshipsByObjectId(int objId) { var results = from r in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() join m in _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() on r.rel_id equals m.rel_id where m.obj_id == objId select r; return results.ToList<DBMappings.relationships>(); } _Context is my generic repository using code based on the code outlined here. The problem is I have 3 records in the relationships table, and 3 records in the memberships table, each membership tied to a different relationship. 2 membership records have an obj_id value of 2 and the other is 3. I am trying to retrieve a list of all relationships related to object #2. When this linq runs, _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationships>() returns the correct 3 records and _context.Repository<DBMappings.relationship_memberships>() returns 3 records. However, when the results.ToList() executes, the resulting list has 2 issues: 1) The resulting list contains 6 records, all of type DBMappings.relationships(). Upon further inspection there are 2 for each real relationship record, both are an exact copy of each other. 2) All relationships are returned, even if m.obj_id == 3, even though objId variable is correctly passed in as 2. Can anyone see what's going on because I've spent 2 days looking at this code and I am unable to understand what is wrong. I have joins in other linq queries that seem to be working great, and my unit tests show that they are still working, so I must be doing something wrong with this. It seems like I need an extra pair of eyes on this one :)

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  • What is the cleanest way to use anonymous functions?

    - by Fletcher Moore
    I've started to use Javascript a lot more, and as a result I am writing things complex enough that organization is becoming a concern. However, this question applies to any language that allows you to nest functions. Essentially, when should you use an anonymous function over a named global or inner function? At first I thought it was the coolest feature ever, but I think I am going overboard. Here's an example I wrote recently, ommiting all the variable delcarations and conditionals so that you can see the structure. function printStream() { return fold(function (elem, acc) { ... var comments = (function () { return fold(function (comment, out) { ... return out + ...; }, '', elem.comments); return acc + ... + comments; }, '', data.stream); } I realized though (I think) there's some kind of beauty in being so compact, it is probably isn't a good idea to do this in the same way you wouldn't want a ton of code in a double for loop.

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  • Webfaction apache + mod_wsgi + django configuration issue

    - by Dmitry Guyvoronsky
    A problem that I stumbled upon recently, and, even though I solved it, I would like to hear your opinion of what correct/simple/adopted solution would be. I'm developing website using Django + python. When I run it on local machine with "python manage.py runserver", local address is http://127.0.0.1:8000/ by default. However, on production server my app has other url, with path - like "http://server.name/myproj/" I need to generate and use permanent urls. If I'm using {% url view params %}, I'm getting paths that are relative to / , since my urls.py contains this urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^(\d+)?$', 'myproj.myapp.views.index'), (r'^img/(.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve', {'document_root': settings.MEDIA_ROOT + '/img' }), (r'^css/(.*)$', 'django.views.static.serve', {'document_root': settings.MEDIA_ROOT + '/css' }), ) So far, I see 2 solutions: modify urls.py, include '/myproj/' in case of production run use request.build_absolute_uri() for creating link in views.py or pass some variable with 'hostname:port/path' in templates Are there prettier ways to deal with this problem? Thank you. Update: Well, the problem seems to be not in django, but in webfaction way to configure wsgi. Apache configuration for application with URL "hostname.com/myapp" contains the following line WSGIScriptAlias / /home/dreamiurg/webapps/pinfont/myproject.wsgi So, SCRIPT_NAME is empty, and the only solution I see is to get to mod_python or serve my application from root. Any ideas?

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  • Anchor tags are blank

    - by ryanday
    I'm having a problem where the my anchor tags sometimes aren't displaying their links. This is happening on Mobile Safari on multiple iPhones, and in the iPhone simulator. I'm using jQtouch r147, PhoneGap, and jQuery 1.4.2. I'm generating the data from a database call, and adding anchor tags to a list like this: for(var i=0;i<data.rows.length;i++) { var item = $('<li></li>'); var name = data.rows.item(i).name; var anchor = $('<a href="#lpage">'+name+'</a>'); item.addClass('arrow'); // This line always displays the name, even when I can't see // the name in the browser debug.log('The name: ' + name); (function(info) { anchor.bind('tap', function(e) { debug.log('Touch start ' + info.id); }); })(data.rows.item(i)); item.append(anchor); if( anchor.html() == null ) { debug.log('html is blank'); } $('#myUL').append(item); } Sometimes my list of names shows fine(http://imagebin.org/101462), and sometimes it is just blank(http://imagebin.org/101464). When the list is blank, I see the debug.log() line show me 'html is blank', and I also see the log line show me that the variable 'name' does, in fact, contain a valid name. When I check for anchor.html() == null, I've also tried to .remove() the anchor tag, and re-create it. But it always comes back without the name displayed. This happens on the mobile device and in the simulator, but I've never seen it happen in Safari or in Chrome. Has anyone seen something like this? I can't find the cause, and I can't get it to stop. Thank you for any ideas or suggestions!

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  • Set Custom ASP.NET UserControl variables when its in a Repeater

    - by tnriverfish
    <%@ Register Src="~/Controls/PressFileDownload.ascx" TagName="pfd" TagPrefix="uc1" %> <asp:Repeater id="Repeater1" runat="Server" OnItemDataBound="RPTLayer_OnItemDataBound"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="LBLHeader" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Label> <asp:Image ID="IMGThumb" Runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:Image> <asp:Label ID="LBLBody" Runat="server" class="layerBody"></asp:Label> <uc1:pfd ID="pfd1" runat="server" ShowContainerName="false" ParentContentTypeId="55" /> <asp:Literal ID="litLayerLinks" runat="server"></asp:Literal> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label lbl; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal lit; System.Web.UI.WebControls.Image img; System.Web.UI.WebControls.HyperLink hl; System.Web.UI.UserControl uc; I need to set the ParentItemID variable for the uc1:pdf listed inside the repeater. I thought I should be able to find uc by looking in the e.Item and then setting it somehow. I think this is the part where I'm missing something. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes["ParentItemID"] = i.ItemID.ToString(); } Any thoughts would be appreciated. Also tried this with similar results... when I debug inside my usercontrol (pfd1) the parameters I am trying to set have not been set. uc = (UserControl)e.Item.FindControl("pfd1"); if (uc != null) { uc.Attributes.Add("ContainerID", _cid.ToString()); uc.Attributes.Add("ParentItemId", i.ItemID.ToString()); }

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  • Object addSubview only works in viewDidLoad

    - by DecodingSand
    Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and need some help with adding subViews. I have a reusable object that I made that is stored in a separate .h .m and xib file. I would like to use this object in my main project's view controller. I have included the header and the assignment of the object generates no errors. I am able to load the object into my main project but can only do things with it inside my viewDidLoad method. I intend to have a few of these objects on my screen and am looking fora solution that is more robust then just hard wiring up multiple copies of the shape object. As soon as I try to access the object outside of the viewDidLoad it produces a variable unknown error - first use in this function. Here is my viewDidLoad method: shapeViewController *shapeView = [[shapeViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"shapeViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview: shapeView.view]; // This is the problem line // This code works changes the display on the shape object [shapeView updateDisplay:@"123456"]; ---- but the same code outside of the viewDidLoad generates the error. So to sum up, everything works except when I try to access the shapeView object in the rest of the methods. Thanks in advance

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  • How can I bind a simple Javascript array to an MVC3 controller action method?

    - by Sergio Tapia
    Here is the javascript code I use to create the array and send it on it's way: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#update-cart-btn").click(function() { var items = []; $(".item").each(function () { var productKey = $(this).find("input[name='item.ProductId']").val(); var productQuantity = $(this).find("input[type='text']").val(); items[productKey] = productQuantity; }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "@Url.Action("UpdateCart", "Cart")", data: items, success: function () { alert("Successfully updated your cart!"); } }); }); }); </script> The items object is properly constructed with the values I need. What data type must my object be on the backend of my controller? I tried this but the variable remains null and is not bound. [Authorize] [HttpPost] public ActionResult UpdateCart(object[] items) // items remains null. { // Some magic here. return RedirectToAction("Index"); }

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  • Using JAXB to customise the generation of java enums

    - by belltower
    I'm using an external bindings file when using jaxb against an XML schema. I'm mostly using the bindings file to map from the XML schema primitives to my own types. This is a snippet of the bindings file <jxb:bindings version="1.0" xmlns:jxb="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/jaxb" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:ai="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/jaxb/xjc" extensionBindingPrefixes="ai"> <jxb:bindings schemaLocation="xsdurl" node="xs:schema"> <jxb:globalBindings> <jxb:javaType name="com.companyname.StringType" xmlType="xs:string" parseMethod="parse" printMethod="print" hasNsContext="true"> </jxb:javaType> </jxb:globalBindings> </jxb:bindings> </jxb:bindings> So whenever a xs:string is encountered, the com.companyname.StringType the methods print / parse are called for marshalling/unmarshalling etc. Now if JAXB encounters an xs:enumeration it will generate a java enum. For example: <xs:simpleType name="Address"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="ADDR"/> <xs:enumeration value="PBOX"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> public enum Address { ADDR, PBOX, public String value() { return name(); } public static Address fromValue(String v) { return valueOf(v); } } Does anyone know if it is possible to customise the creation of an enum like it is for a primitive? I would like to be able to: Add a standard member variable / other methods to every enum generated by jaxb. Specify the static method used to create the enum.

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  • C# creating a Class, having objects as member variables? I think the objects are garbage collecte

    - by Bryan
    So I have a class that has the following member variables. I have get and set functions for every piece of data in this class. public class NavigationMesh { public Vector3 node; int weight; bool isWall; bool hasTreasure; public NavigationMesh(int x, int y, int z, bool setWall, bool setTreasure) { //default constructor //Console.WriteLine(x + " " + y + " " + z); node = new Vector3(x, y, z); //Console.WriteLine(node.X + " " + node.Y + " " + node.Z); isWall = setWall; hasTreasure = setTreasure; weight = 1; }// end constructor public float getX() { Console.WriteLine(node.X); return node.X; } public float getY() { Console.WriteLine(node.Y); return node.Y; } public float getZ() { Console.WriteLine(node.Z); return node.Z; } public bool getWall() { return isWall; } public void setWall(bool item) { isWall = item; } public bool getTreasure() { return hasTreasure; } public void setTreasure(bool item) { hasTreasure = item; } public int getWeight() { return weight; } }// end class In another class, I have a 2-Dim array that looks like this NavigationMesh[,] mesh; mesh = new NavigationMesh[502,502]; I use a double for loop to assign this, my problem is I cannot get the data I need out of the Vector3 node object after I create this object in my array with my "getters". I've tried making the Vector3 a static variable, however I think it refers to the last instance of the object. How do I keep all of these object in memory? I think there being garbage collected. Any thoughts?

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  • MySQL PHP SELECT throwing up an error?

    - by user1909695
    I am trying to make a comment section on my hand made site, using PHP and MySQL. I have got the comments stored in my database, but when I try to SELECT them my site throws up this error, mysql_result() [function.mysql-result]: Unable to jump to row 0 on MySQL result index 9 in /home/a9210109/public_html/comments.php on line 16 My code so far is below <?php $comment = $_POST['comment']; $mysql_host = ""; $mysql_database = ""; $mysql_user = ""; $mysql_password = ""; mysql_connect($mysql_host,$mysql_user,$mysql_password); @mysql_select_db($mysql_database) or die( "Unable to select database"); $CreateTable = "CREATE TABLE comments (comment VARCHAR(255), time VARCHAR(255));"; mysql_query($CreateTable); $UseComment = "INSERT INTO comments VALUES ('$comment')"; mysql_query($UseComment); $SelectComments = "SELECT * FROM comments"; $comments = mysql_query($SelectComments); $num=mysql_numrows($comments); $variable=mysql_result($comments,$i,"comment"); mysql_close(); ?> <a href="#" onclick="toggle_visibility('hidden');">Show/Hide Comments</a> <?php $i=0; while ($i < $num) { $comment=mysql_result($comments,$i,"comment"); echo "<div id='hidden' style='display:none'><h3>$comment</h3></div>"; $i++; } ?>

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  • Jquery click bindings are not working correctly when binding multiple copies

    - by KallDrexx
    I seem to have an issue when creating copies of a template and tying the .click() method to them properly. Take the following javascript for example: var list; // Loop through all of the objects var topics = data.objects; for (x = 0; x < objects.length; x++) { // Clone the object list item template var item = $("#object_item_list_template").clone(); // Setup the click action and inner text for the link tag in the template var objectVal = objects[x].Value; item.find('a').click(function () { ShowObject(objectVal.valueOf(), 'T'); }).html(objects[x].Text); // add the html to the list if (list == undefined) list = item; else list.append(item.contents()); } // Prepend the topics to the topic list $("#object_list").empty().append(list.contents()); The problem I am seeing with this is that no matter which item the user clicks on in the #object_list, ShowObject() is called with the last value of objectVal. So for example, if the 3rd item's <a> is clicked, ShowObject(5,'T'); is called even though objects[2].Value is successfully being seen as 2. How can I get this to work? The main purpose of this code is to take a variable number of items gotten from a JSON AJAX request, make copies of the item template, and insert those copies into the correct spot on the html page. I decided to do it this way so that I can keep all my HTML in one spot for when I need to change the layout or design of the page, and not have to hunt for the html code in the javascript.

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  • Why can't I get the value of this text input?

    - by Spilot
    It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

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  • volatile keyword seems to be useless?

    - by Finbarr
    import java.util.concurrent.CountDownLatch; import java.util.concurrent.atomic.AtomicInteger; public class Main implements Runnable { private final CountDownLatch cdl1 = new CountDownLatch(NUM_THREADS); private volatile int bar = 0; private AtomicInteger count = new AtomicInteger(0); private static final int NUM_THREADS = 25; public static void main(String[] args) { Main main = new Main(); for(int i = 0; i < NUM_THREADS; i++) new Thread(main).start(); } public void run() { int i = count.incrementAndGet(); cdl1.countDown(); try { cdl1.await(); } catch (InterruptedException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } bar = i; if(bar != i) System.out.println("Bar not equal to i"); else System.out.println("Bar equal to i"); } } Each Thread enters the run method and acquires a unique, thread confined, int variable i by getting a value from the AtomicInteger called count. Each Thread then awaits the CountDownLatch called cdl1 (when the last Thread reaches the latch, all Threads are released). When the latch is released each thread attempts to assign their confined i value to the shared, volatile, int called bar. I would expect every Thread except one to print out "Bar not equal to i", but every Thread prints "Bar equal to i". Eh, wtf does volatile actually do if not this?

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