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  • C# & SQL Server Authentication

    - by Peter
    Hello, I'm currently developing a C# app with an SQL Server DB back-end. I'm approaching the point of deployment and hitting a problem. The applicaiton will be deployed within an active directory network. As far as SQL authentication goes, I understand that I have 2 options - Windows Authenticaiton or Server Authenticaiton. If I use Server Authentication, I'm concerned that the username and password for the account will be stored in plain text in the app.config file, and therefore leave the database vulnerable. Using Windows Authenticaiton will avoid this issue, however it would mean giving every member of staff within our organisation read/write access to the database in order to run the app correctly. Whilst this is ok, it also means that they can easily connect to the database themselves via other means and directly alter the data outside of the app. I'm guessing there is someting really obvious I'm missing here, but I've been googling all evening to no avail. Any advice/guidance would be much appreciated! Peter Addition - my project is Windows Form based not ASP.NET - is encrypting the app.config file still the right answer? If it is, does anyone have any examples that are not ASP.NET based?

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  • Java ArrayList remove dupes without sets

    - by Kieran
    I'm having problems removing duplicates from an ArrayList. It's for an assignment for college. Here's the code I have already: public int numberOfDiffWords() { ArrayList<String> list = new ArrayList<>(); for(int i=0; i<words.size()-1; i++) { for(int j=i+1; j<words.size(); j++) { if(words.get(i).equals(words.get(j))) { // do nothing } else { list.add(words.get(i)); } } } return list.size(); } The problem is in the numberOfDiffWords() method. The populate list method is working correctly, as my instructor has given me a sample string (containing 4465 words) to analyse - printing words.size() gives the correct result. I want to return the size of the new ArrayList with all duplicates removed. words is an ArrayList class attribute. UPDATE: I should have mentioned I'm only allowed to use dynamic indexed-based storage for this part of the assignment, which means no hash-based storage.

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  • iPhone -trouble with a loading data from webservice into a tableview

    - by medampudi
    I am using a Window based application and then loading up my initial navigationview based controller. After loading it if the user is not registered/ does not have a credentials present then it takes the user to a login view controller . loginViewController *sampleView = [[loginViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"loginViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController presentModalViewController:sampleView animated:YES]; [sampleView release]; then right after that i try to load the table with data that i get from a webservice using asiHTTP .. for this question lets say it takes 3 seconds time to get the data and then deserialize it . now... my question is it works out okey in the later runs as I store the username and password in a seure location... but in the first instance.... i am not able to get the data to laod to the tableview... I have tried a lot of things... 1. Initially the data fetch methods was in a diffrent methods.. so i thought that might be the problem as then moved it the same place as the tbleviewController(navigationController) 2. I event put in the Reload data at the end of the functionality for the data parsing and deserialization... nothing happens. 3. i did not understand the concept of @property and alll.... 4. The screen is black screen with nothing displayed on it for a good 5 seconds in the consecutive launches of the app.... so could we have something like a MBPorgressHUD implemented for the same. could any one please help for these scenarios and guidance as to what paths to take from here...

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  • Javascript place in header

    - by JibW
    I am not clear why its not working the javascript code when I add it to the header section as follows. We can place a javascript code within the body as follows <html> <head> <title> Simple Test </title> </head> <body> <div id="mydiv"> This is the div content </div> <script type="text/javascript" > document.getElementById("mydiv").innerHTML=Date(); </script> </body> </html> But when I place the same JavaScript code in the header section it doesn't work. <html> <head> <title> Simple Test </title> <script type="text/javascript" > document.getElementById("mydiv").innerHTML=Date(); </script> </head> Can Someone please explain the issue. I know I can Write a JavaScript function in header and call it in an event. But can't we Use in this way. If Can't why.

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  • JQuery with css3 keydown keyCode = 37 and 39

    - by rayrule
    I have tested both ways. jquery animation and css3 transition, and css3 is a little bit faster. But i have a problem with the following code: $(document).keydown(function(e){ if (e.keyCode == 39) { var DocHeight = $(document).height(); $('.container').css("margin-top","-="+DocHeight) } }); if i hit twice on keyCode 39 (arrow to the right) than my transition is outer space. Does anyone has an solution for this thing? outer space maybe not the correct word. But the problem is. if i hit twice the arrow key i'll get the last request, in other words... animation is started, and another animation start from the position that i don't want. example: hit #1 margin-top is at 0px and goes to 1024px. but when i hit it twice the margin-top is at 23px, and it stops at 1047px. This is not what i want. It has to stop at 1024px. I hope so.

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  • encapsulation in python list (want to use " instead of ')

    - by Codehai
    I have a list of users users["pirates"] and they're stored in the format ['pirate1','pirate2']. If I hand the list over to a def and query for it in MongoDB, it returns data based on the first index (e.g. pirate1) only. If I hand over a list in the format ["pirate1","pirate"], it returns data based on all the elements in the list. So I think there's something wrong with the encapsulation of the elements in the list. My question: can I change the encapsulation from ' to " without replacing every ' on every element with a loop manually? Short Example: aList = list() # get pirate Stuff # users["pirates"] is a list returned by a former query # so e.g. users["pirates"][0] may be peter without any quotes for pirate in users["pirates"]: aList.append(pirate) aVar = pirateDef(aList) print(aVar) the definition: def pirateDef(inputList = list()): # prepare query col = mongoConnect().MYCOL # query for pirates Arrrr pirates = col.find({ "_id" : {"$in" : inputList}} ).sort("_id",1).limit(50) # loop over users userList = list() for person in pirates: # do stuff that has nothing to do with the problem # append user to userlist userList.append(person) return userList If the given list has ' encapsulation it returns: 'pirates': [{'pirate': 'Arrr', '_id': 'blabla'}] If capsulated with " it returns: 'pirates' : [{'_id': 'blabla', 'pirate' : 'Arrr'}, {'_id': 'blabla2', 'pirate' : 'cheers'}] EDIT: I tried figuring out, that the problem has to be in the MongoDB query. The list is handed over to the Def correctly, but after querying pirates only consists of 1 element... Thanks for helping me Codehai

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  • Positioning Javascript Tag on HTML Page

    - by user3385997
    I'm growing frustrated in positioning my javascript date in the center of my html page. Everything else is centered but the javascript date. Here's a screenshot: My HTML: <section> <a href="http://validator.w3.org/check?uri=http%3A%2F%2Fhills.ccsf.edu%2F~avu%2Fhw1.html" target="_blank"><img id="html5logo"src="images/html5_logo.png" alt="html5" height="50" width="50" /></a> <a href="http://alturl.com/9kv4o" target="_blank"><img id="csslogo" src="images/css_logo.gif" alt="css" height="50" width="50" /></a> </section> <br /> <p id="pagelastupdated">Page last updated:</p> <script type="text/javascript"> document.write(document.lastModified); </script> And here's my CSS: section { margin-top: 10px; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; width: 112px; } section img#html5logo { display: inline; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; } section img#csslogo { display: inline; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; } #pagelastupdated { text-align: center; } script { border: 4px solid purple; } PLEASE HELP ME!

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  • Can i change the identity of the logged in user in ASP.net?

    - by Rising Star
    I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work?

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  • Javascript memory leak/ performance issue?

    - by Tom
    I just cannot for the life of me figure out this memory leak in Internet Explorer. insertTags simple takes string str and places each word within start and end tags for HTML (usually anchor tags). transliterate is for arabic numbers, and replaces normal numbers 0-9 with a &#..n; XML identity for their arabic counterparts. fragment = document.createDocumentFragment(); for (i = 0, e = response.verses.length; i < e; i++) { fragment.appendChild((function(){ p = document.createElement('p'); p.setAttribute('lang', (response.unicode) ? 'ar' : 'en'); p.innerHTML = ((response.unicode) ? (response.surah + ':' + (i+1)).transliterate() : response.surah + ':' + (i+1)) + ' ' + insertTags(response.verses[i], '<a href="#" onclick="window.popup(this);return false;" class="match">', '</a>'); try { return p } finally { p = null; } })()); } params[0].appendChild( fragment ); fragment = null; I would love some links other than MSDN and about.com, because neither of them have sufficiently explained to me why my script leaks memory. I am sure this is the problem, because without it everything runs fast (but nothing displays). I've read that doing a lot of DOM manipulations can be dangerous, but the for loops a max of 286 times (# of verses in surah 2, the longest surah in the Qur'an).

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  • Ideal HTTP cache control headers for different types of resources

    - by chris_l
    I want to find a minimal set of headers, that work with "all" caches and browsers (also when using HTTPS!) On my (GWT-based) web site, I'll have three kinds of resources: 1. Forever cacheable (public / equal for all users) These files don't ever change, and they get a filename based on the MD5 of their contents (this is GWT's approach). They should get cached as much as possible, even when using HTTPS (so I assume, I should set Cache-Control: public, especially for Firefox?) 2. Changing for every new version of the site (public / equal for all users) These files can be cached, but probably need to be revalidated every time. 3. Individual for each request (private / user specific) These resources (e. g. JSON responses) should never be cached unencrypted to disk under no circumstances. (Maybe I'll have a few specific requests that could be cached.) I have a general idea on which headers I would probably use for each type, but there's always something I could be missing.

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  • call back function set by JS settimeout doesn't work in IE8....

    - by NAG
    <html <head <script function addEvent( obj, type, fn ) { if ( obj.attachEvent ) { obj['e'+type+fn] = fn; obj[type+fn] = function(){obj['e'+type+fn]( window.event );} obj.attachEvent( 'on'+type, obj[type+fn] ); } else obj.addEventListener( type, fn, false ); } </script </head <body <!-- HTML for example event goes here -- <div id="mydiv" style="border: 1px solid black; width: 100px; height: 100px; margin-top: 10px;"</div <script // Script for example event goes here addEvent(document.getElementById('mydiv'), 'contextmenu', function(event) { display_short('right-clicked (contextmenu)'); }); function display_short(str) { clearTimeout(); document.getElementById('mydiv').innerHTML = str; if (str != '') alert("hello"); setTimeout("display_short('abcd')", 1000); } </script </body </html Behaves diffrently in IE and FF when you right click on the div area. In ff display_short will be called for evry 1 sec eventhough you dont release right click but in IE it will not call display_short if you dont release right click. But i expect in IE it should call display_short for every 1 sec if you dont release also. Is there any solution for this?

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  • ItemUpdating called twice after ItemAdded in event receiver

    - by Jason
    I've created an event receiver to handle the ItemAdded and ItemUpdating events on a document library in SharePoint 2010. I've encountered a problem where when I add a document to the library (e.g. by saving it back from Word) the ItemAdded method is correctly called however this is then followed by two calls to ItemUpdating. I have removed all code from my handlers to ensure that it's not something I'm doing inside that is causing the problem. They literally look like: public override void ItemUpdating(SPItemEventProperties properties) { } public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { } Does anyone have a solution to this issue? Here is my elements.xml file for the event receiver: <Elements xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/"> <Receivers ListTemplateId="101"> <Receiver> <Name>DocumentsEventReceiverItemUpdating</Name> <Type>ItemUpdating</Type> <Assembly>$SharePoint.Project.AssemblyFullName$</Assembly> <Class>My.Namespace.DocumentsEventReceiver</Class> <SequenceNumber>10000</SequenceNumber> <Synchronization>Synchronous</Synchronization> </Receiver> <Receiver> <Name>DocumentsEventReceiverItemAdded</Name> <Type>ItemAdded</Type> <Assembly>$SharePoint.Project.AssemblyFullName$</Assembly> <Class>My.Namespace.DocumentsEventReceiver</Class> <SequenceNumber>10000</SequenceNumber> <Synchronization>Synchronous</Synchronization> </Receiver> </Receivers> </Elements>

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  • HTML5 Video Element on iPad doesn't fire onclick?

    - by bhups
    I am using the video element in my HTML as following:<div id="container" style="background:black; overflow:hidden;width:320px;height:240px" <video style="background:black;display:block" id="vdo" height="240px" width="320px" src="http://mydomain/vid.mp4"</video</div And in javascript I am doing this:var video=document.getElementById('vdo'); var container=document.getElementById('container'); video.addEventListener('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); console.log("clicked"); }, false); container.addEventListener('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); console.log("clicked"); }, false); On desktop safari/chrome everything is working fine. I can see two "clicked" in the console. But on ipad there is nothing. First I tried with iOS versin 3.2, then I updated it to the latest one 4.2.1 without any success.I found a similar question HTML5 Video Element on iPad doesn't fire onclick or touchstart events? where it suggests not to use controls in video tag and I am not using it.

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  • PHP what is faster to use

    - by user1631500
    What is faster / better to use? To put html into variables and print them later, or to just html print / echo print the content based on condition? EXAMPLE 1:(html into variables) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = "<span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span>" } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = You are cool enough to view the content; } echo $var; EXAMPLE 2:(print based on condition) if(!isset($_SESSION['daddy'])) { $var = 1; } else { $one=$_SESSION["one"]; $two=$_SESSION["two"]; $three=$_SESSION["three"]; $var = 0; } if ($var==1) { ?> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span> <span class='something'>Go here:<a href='#'>Click</a></span <?php } else { ?> You are cool enough to view the content. <?php } ?>

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  • i read that for RESTful websites. it is not good to use $_SESSION. Why is it not good? how then do i

    - by keisimone
    I read that it is not good to use $_SESSION. http://www.recessframework.org/page/towards-restful-php-5-basic-tips I am creating a WEBSITE, not web service in PHP. and i am trying to make it more RESTful. at least in spirit. right now i am rewriting all the action to use Form tags POST and add in a hidden value called _method which would be "delete" for deleting action and "put" for updating action. however, i am not sure why it is recommended NOT to use $_SESSION. i would like to know why and what can i do to improve. To allow easy authorization checking, what i did was to after logging in the user, the username is stored in the $_SESSION. Everytime the user navigates to a page, the page would check if the username is stored inside $_SESSION and then based on the $_SESSION retrieves all the info including privileges from the database and then evaluates the authorization to access the page based on the info retrieved. Is the way I am implementing bad? not RESTful? how do i improve performance and security? Thank you.

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  • How do I load PersistentDocuments into the same window

    - by Brad Stone
    I want to open NSPersistentDocuments and load them into the same window one at a time. I'm almost there but missing some steps. Hopefully someone can help me. I have a few saved documents on the hard drive. On launch my app opens to an untitled NSPersistentDocument and creates a separate NSWindowController. When I press the button to load file 1 off the hard drive the data appears in the fields but two things are wrong that I can see: 1) changing the data doesn't make the document dirty 2) choosing save updates the persistentstore (I know this because when I open the file again I see the changes) but I get an error: +entityForName: could not locate an NSManagedObjectModel for entity name 'Book' Here's my code which is in the WindowController that was launched initially with the untitled document. This code isn't perfect. For example, I know I should processPendingChanges and save the current doc before I load the new one. This is test code to try to get over this hurdle. - (IBAction)newBookTwo:(id)sender { NSDocumentController *dc = [NSDocumentController sharedDocumentController]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath:[@"~/Desktop/File 2.binary" stringByExpandingTildeInPath]]; NSError *error; MainWindowDocument *thisDoc = [dc openDocumentWithContentsOfURL:url display:NO error:&error]; [self setDocument:thisDoc]; [self setManagedObjectContext:[thisDoc managedObjectContext]]; } Thanks!

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  • How to call Java code from Javascript and assign a value to a JSP page?

    - by Frank
    I have the following "form.jsp" program, it generates a drop down list, below the list is a textarea to show the display_name of a selected item, now when user selected a item, it shows the selected item id in the textarea, how to call the DB from my code and get the display_name in the javascript so the result display_name will be shown in the textarea ? <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags"%> <script type="text/javascript"> function callme(Display_Name) { alert('callme : Display_Name = '+Display_Name); var v=document.getElementById('hiddenValue').value; alert('hiddenValue : v = '+v); document.getElementById('defaultDisplayName').value=Display_Name; } </script> <s:hidden id="pricelist.id" name="pricelist.id" value="%{pricelist.id}"/> <div class="dialog"> <table> <tbody> <s:if test="%{enableProductList}"> <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name required"><label for="description">Product:</label></td> <td valign="top"> <s:select id="productPrice.product" name="productPrice.product" headerKey="0" headerValue="-- Select Product --" list="products" listKey="id" listValue="name" value="productPrice.product.id" theme="simple" displayName1='value' onchange="callme(value)" /> <s:hidden id="hiddenValue" name="hiddenValue" value="123"/> </td> </tr> </s:if> <tr class="prop"> <td valign="top" class="name"><label for="description">Default Display Name:</label></td> <td valign="top"><s:textarea id="defaultDisplayName" name="defaultDisplayName" theme="simple" readonly="true"/></td> </tr> See attached image for details, in the DB, a product table has the product Id and display_name, I know the Id, how to use Java to get the display_name and plug it into the jsp ?

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  • OOP design issue: Polymorphism

    - by Graham Phillips
    I'm trying to solve a design issue using inheritance based polymorphism and dynamic binding. I have an abstract superclass and two subclasses. The superclass contains common behaviour. SubClassA and SubClassB define some different methods: SubClassA defines a method performTransform(), but SubClassB does not. So the following example 1 var v:SuperClass; 2 var b:SubClassB = new SubClassB(); 3 v = b; 4 v.performTransform(); would cause a compile error on line 4 as performTransform() is not defined in the superclass. We can get it to compile by casting... (v as SubClassA).performTransform(); however, this will cause a runtime exception to be thrown as v is actually an instance of SubClassB, which also does not define performTransform() So we can get around that by testing the type of an object before casting it: if( typeof v == SubClassA) { (cast v to SubClassA).performTransform(); } That will ensure that we only call performTransform() on v's that are instances of SubClassA. That's a pretty inelegant solution to my eyes, but at least its safe. I have used interface based polymorphism (interface meaning a type that can't be instantiated and defines the API of classes that implement it) in the past, but that also feels clunky. For the above case, if SubClassA and SubClassB implemented ISuperClass that defined performTransform, then they would both have to implement performTransform(). If SubClassB had no real need for a performTransform() you would have to implement an empty function. There must be a design pattern out there that addresses the issue.

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  • chrome extension: get specific part of the current tab page in DOM object and display it in either popup.html or new html page?

    - by sandeep
    IS there any way so that i can convert any DOM object into HTML page within the script ? suppose I have dom object like this: content script.js chrome.extension.onRequest.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { if (request.method == "fromPopup") { console.log("got Request from Popup"); var myDivObj = document.getElementById("definition"); //sendResponse({data: "from Content Script to Popup"}); if ( myDivObj ) { sendResponse({data:myDivObj}); } else{ sendResponse({data:"Empty or No Tag"}); } console.log("sent Response1"); } else { sendResponse({}); // snub them. console.log("sent Response2"); } }); here is my popup.html <body> <Div>Searching..</Div> <Div id="output">Response??</Div> <script> console.log("Pop UP Clicked"); chrome.tabs.getSelected(null, function(tab) { chrome.tabs.sendRequest(tab.id, {method: "fromPopup", tabid: tab.id}, function(response) { console.log("got Response from Content Script"); document.getElementById("output").innerHTML=response.data; }); }); </script> </body> I know we can send onaly JSON type of data to the popup.html page.. am i right ? If yes is ther any way that I can creat HTML page with DOM Object( myDivObj ) which I collected.. Any alternative solution..? In short i want get only specific part of the current tab page in DOM object and display it in either popup.html or separate html page..

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  • AJAX UpdatePanel.Visible Property not working with Javascript

    - by Ahmet Altun
    I have code below. I want to hide the update panel by using Javascript (without going to server) when the user clicks Hide button. Although javascript funciton seems to be working fine in debugging, it does not hide! <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="_Default" % <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function Show() { document.getElementById("UpdatePanel1").Visible = true; } function Hide() { document.getElementById("UpdatePanel1").Visible = false; } </script> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ScriptManager> <asp:Button ID="btnShow" runat="server" Text="Show" OnClientClick="Show(); return false;" /> <asp:Button ID="BtnHide" runat="server" Text="Hide" OnClientClick="Hide(); return false;" /> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" TextMode="MultiLine"></asp:TextBox> <br /> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" Text="Gönder" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> <br /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </form>

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  • How do I capture keystrokes on the web?

    - by Sean
    Using PHP, JS, or HTML (or something similar) how would I capture keystokes? Such as if the user presses ctrl+f or maybe even just f, a certain function will happen. ++++++++++++++++++++++++EDIT+++++++++++++++++++ Ok, so is this correct, because I can't get it to work. And I apologize for my n00bness is this is an easy question, new to jQuery and still learning more and more about JS. <script> var element = document.getElementById('capture'); element.onkeypress = function(e) { var ev = e || event; if(ev.keyCode == 70) { alert("hello"); } } </script> <div id="capture"> Hello, Testing 123 </div> ++++++++++++++++EDIT++++++++++++++++++ Here is everything, but I can't get it to work: <link rel="icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <style> * { margin: 0px } div { height: 250px; width: 630px; overflow: hidden; vertical-align: top; position: relative; background-color: #999; } iframe { position: absolute; left: -50px; top: -130px; } </style> <script> document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].onkeyup = function(e) { var ev = e || event; if(ev.keyCode == 70 && ev.ctrlKey) { //control+f alert("hello"); } } </script> <div id="capture"> Hello, Testing 123<!--<iframe src="http://www.pandora.com/" scrolling="no" width="1000" height="515"frameborder="0"></iframe>--> </div>

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  • In C/C++ mode in Emacs, change face of code in #if 0...#endif block to comment face

    - by pogopop77
    I'm trying to add functionality found in some other code editors to my Emacs configuration, whereby C/C++ code within #if 0...#endif blocks is automatically set to the comment face/font. Based on my testing, cpp-highlight-mode does something like what I want, but requires user action. It seems like tying into the font-lock functionality is the correct option to make the behavior automatic. I have successfully followed examples in the GNU documentation to change the face of single-line regular expressions. For example: (add-hook 'c-mode-common-hook (lambda () (font-lock-add-keywords nil '(("\\<\\(FIXME\\|TODO\\|HACK\\|fixme\\|todo\\|hack\\)" 1 font-lock-warning-face t))))) works fine to highlight debug related keywords anywhere in a file. However, I am having problems matching #if 0...#endif as a multiline regular expression. I found some useful information in this post (How to compose region like ""), that suggested that Emacs must be told specifically to allow for multiline matches. But this code: (add-hook 'c-mode-common-hook (lambda () '(progn (setq font-lock-multiline t) (font-lock-add-keywords nil '(("#if 0\\(.\\|\n\\)*?#endif" 1 font-lock-comment-face t)))))) still does not work for me. Perhaps my regular expression is wrong (though it appears to work using M-x re-builder), I've messed up my syntax, or I'm following the wrong approach entirely. I'm using Aquamacs 2.1 (which is based on GNU Emacs 23.2.50.1) on OS X 10.6.5, if that makes a difference. Any assistance would be appreciated!

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  • odp.net SQL query retrieve set of rows from two input arrays.

    - by Karl Trumstedt
    I have a table with a primary key consisting of two columns. I want to retrieve a set of rows based on two input arrays, each corresponding to one primary key column. select pkt1.id, pkt1.id2, ... from PrimaryKeyTable pkt1, table(:1) t1, table(:2) t2 where pkt1.id = t1.column_value and pkt1.id2 = t2.column_value I then bind the values with two int[] in odp.net. This returns all different combinations of my resulting rows. So if I am expecting 13 rows I receive 169 rows (13*13). The problem is that each value in t1 and t2 should be linked. Value t1[4] should be used with t2[4] and not all the different values in t2. Using distinct solves my problem, but I'm wondering if my approach is wrong. Anyone have any pointers on how to solve this the best way? One way might be to use a for-loop accessing each index in t1 and t2 sequentially, but I wonder what will be more efficient. Edit: actually distinct won't solve my problem, it just did it based on my input-values (all values in t2 = 0)

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  • XPath and XML: Multiple namespaces

    - by emragins
    So I have a document that looks like <a xmlns="uri1" xmlns:pre2="uri2"> <b xmlns:pre3="uri3"> <pre3:c> <stuff></stuff> <goes></goes> <here></here> </pre3:c> <pre3:d xmlns="uri4"> <under></under> <the></the> <tree></tree> </pre3:d> </b> </a> I want an xpath expression that will get me <under>. This has a namespaceURI of uri4. Right now my expression looks like: //ns:a/ns:b/pre3:d/pre4:under I have the namespace manager add 'ns' for the default namespace (uri1 in this case) and I have it defined with pre2, pre3, and pre4 for uri2, uri3, and uri4 respectively. I get the error "Expression must evaluate to a node-set." I know that the node exists. I know that everything up until the pre4:under in my xpath works fine as I use it in the rest of the document with no issues. It's the additional pre4:under that causes the error, and I'm not sure why. Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • form target iframe not working in IE7- in facebook fan tab

    - by greatcaesarsghost
    This issue is similar to the one discussed in this thread, only mine is in a Facebook fan page tab (FBML/FBJS). The fix described in the referenced question works fine outside of Facebook, but for whatever reason I can't get it to work in the posted FBJS. Here's a stripped down version of what I'm trying to do: <script type="text/javascript"> function doit() { document.getElementById('msg').setInnerXHTML('<iframe id="testframe" name="testframe" frameborder="0" />'); } </script> <div id="msg"></div> <form action="http://somesite.com/whatever.php" method="post" id="testform" name="testform" target="testframe"> <input type="text" id="txt1" name="txt1" /> <input type="submit" id="btn" name="btn" value="test" onclick="doit();" /> </form> -- This behaves as you'd expect in all browsers, except IE <= 7, where it opens a new window. IE's dev tool shows the iframe as having a 'submitName' attribute, but no 'name' attribute. Even by manually setting the name (document.getElementbyId('testframe').setName('testframe') fails to work the way it would outside of Facebook. Has anyone run into this same issue, and if so, is there any way around it? Thank you.

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