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  • Changing App.config at Runtime

    - by born to hula
    I'm writing a test winforms / C# / .NET 3.5 application for the system we're developing and we fell in the need to switch between .config files at runtime, but this is turning out to be a nightmare. Here's the scene: the Winforms application is aimed at testing a WebApp, divided into 5 subsystems. The test proccess works with messages being sent between the subsystems, and for this proccess to be sucessful each subsystem got to have its own .config file. For my Test Application I wrote 5 separate configuration files. I wish I was able to switch between these 5 files during runtime, but the problem is: I can programatically edit the application .config file inumerous times, but these changes will only take effect once. I've been searching a long time for a form to address this problem but I still wasn't sucessful. I know the problem definition may be a bit confusing but I would really appreciate it if someone helped me. Thanks in advance! --- UPDATE 01-06-10 --- There's something I didn't mention before. Originally, our system is a Web Application with WCF calls between each subsystem. For performance testing reasons (we're using ANTS 4), we had to create a local copy of the assemblies and reference them from the test project. It may sound a bit wrong, but we couldn't find a satisfying way to measure performance of a remote application. --- End Update --- Here's what I'm doing: public void UpdateAppSettings(string key, string value) { XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); foreach (XmlElement item in xmlDoc.DocumentElement) { foreach (XmlNode node in item.ChildNodes) { if (node.Name == key) { node.Attributes[0].Value = value; break; } } } xmlDoc.Save(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection("section/subSection"); }

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  • JSF Render response programmatically

    - by Shamik
    I have one parent page with a parentManagedBean (attached to Session Scope). On click of a button on this parent page, one popup comes which has a childManagedBean (attached to Request scope). Now ChildManagedBean holds a reference to parentManaged bean through JSF's managed property facility. On this popup window, user selects some option which populates a large value object. I use the managed property of childManagedBean to set the values from this large object to that of parentManagedBean. Problem is - The parent page shows a link, on click of which a popup comes, on selection of the popup, the popup disappears and set the values to the parentManaged bean. So far so good, but the newly set values need to appear on the parent page. This is where I am stuck. How to programmatically render the master page/render page when I am at the child managed bean? Is there a way I can get handle of the parent page and refresh it? Note: I'm using JSF 1.1 EDIT- After following the solution of "resubmit-ing the form" from javascript, I am seeing that the old form is getting resubmitting which overwrites all of my changed values.

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  • Flow control in a batch file

    - by dboarman-FissureStudios
    Reference Iterating arrays in a batch file I have the following: for /f "tokens=1" %%Q in ('query termserver') do ( if not ERRORLEVEL ( echo Checking %%Q for /f "tokens=1" %%U in ('query user %UserID% /server:%%Q') do (echo %%Q) ) ) When running query termserver from the command line, the first two lines are: Known ------------------------- ...followed by the list of terminal servers. However, I do not want to include these as part of the query user command. Also, there are about 4 servers I do not wish to include. When I supply UserID with this code, the program is promptly exiting. I know it has something to do with the if statement. Is this not possible to nest flow control inside the for-loop? I had tried setting a variable to exactly the names of the servers I wanted to check, but the iteration would end on the first server: set TermServers=Server1.Server2.Server3.Server7.Server8.Server10 for /f "tokens=2 delims=.=" %%Q in ('set TermServers') do ( echo Checking %%Q for /f "tokens=1" %%U in ('query user %UserID% /server:%%Q') do (echo %%Q) ) I would prefer this second example over the first if nothing else for cleanliness. Any help regarding either of these issues would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How can I access master page text box from jquery file?

    - by stackuser1
    In my master page i've a textbox. <asp:TextBox ID="SearchTextBox" runat="server" class="searchtxtbox" onfocus="HideSearchWaterMark();" Text="Search" onblur="ShowSearchWaterMark(this);" /> I added jquery references in code behind. TextBox SearchTextBox = this.FindControl("SearchTextBox") as TextBox; StringBuilder objStringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); objStringBuilder.Append("<script type=\"text/javascript\" language=\"javascript\">\n"); objStringBuilder.AppendFormat("var searchTextBox = '{0}';\n", SearchTextBox.ClientID); objStringBuilder.Append("</script>\n"); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), "RegisterVariables", objStringBuilder.ToString()); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/Search.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/TagsScripts/jquery.autocomplete.js")); in Search.js i've the following methods to access the text box of master page: $(document).ready(function () { $("#" + searchTextBox).autocomplete("Handlers/GenericHandler.ashx?tgt=12", { multiple: true, multipleSeparator: ";", mustMatch: false, autoFill: true }); }); function HideSearchWaterMark() { var control = $("#" + searchTextBox); if (control[0].className == "searchtxtbox ac_input") control[0].value = ""; control[0].className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } function ShowSearchWaterMark(tagsTextBox) { if (searchTextBox.value.length == 0) { searchTextBox.value = "Search"; searchTextBox.className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } When i run my application i'm getting object reference not set error. Please tell me where i need to change my code.

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  • Finding source of over release

    - by Benedict Lowndes
    Hi, I'm consistently seeing the same message sent in as a crash report from users of an app. It's clear that an object is being over-released but I'm unable to replicate it and I'm looking for tips on tracing the source of it. The relevant section from the crash report shows this: Application Specific Information: objc_msgSend() selector name: release Thread 0 Crashed: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x90892edb objc_msgSend + 27 1 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ec5a40 __CFBasicHashStandardCallback + 384 2 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ec564e __CFBasicHashDrain + 478 3 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95ead6f1 _CFRelease + 353 4 com.apple.CoreFoundation 0x95eda0ed _CFAutoreleasePoolPop + 253 5 com.apple.Foundation 0x97ecedd6 NSPopAutoreleasePool + 76 6 com.apple.Foundation 0x97ececfe -[NSAutoreleasePool drain] + 130 7 com.apple.AppKit 0x9211255f -[NSApplication run] + 1013 8 com.apple.AppKit 0x9210a535 NSApplicationMain + 574 9 TheApp 0x000020a6 start + 54 I've used zombies and leaks, but haven't seen anything there. I've gone through the code and can't see it. What's the next step? Are there any hints I can discern from this information as to the source of it? Does the fact that this nearly exact same crash report is coming in repeatedly mean that it's the same object that's being over released, or because this is referring to the autorelease pool mean it could be any object? Does the reference to _CFRelease mean it's a Core Foundation object that's being over released?

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  • Bind members of different classes

    - by 7vies
    In a C++ program I have two classes (structs) like struct A { int x; double y; // other members }; struct B { int x; double y2; // other members }; I'd like to somehow "bind" the corresponding members, e.g. A::x to B::x and A::y to B::y2. By "bind" I mean ability to obtain a reference to the bound variable, for example given a member of class A I could assign it to the value of the corresponding B member. Once I have such bind, I'd like to build a bind table or something similar which I could iterate over. This would allow, for example, copying the corresponding fields from A a; to B b; like CopyBound(a, b, bind_table);, but probably also doing some other things not limited to Copy interface. The problem with this bind_table is that I want static typing and the bind_table would have to contain different types in this case. For example, a table of pointers to class members would contain &A::x and &A::y, but they are of different type, so I cannot just put them say into an array. Any ideas how this can be conveniently implemented, having as much compile-time type checking as possible?

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  • NullReferenceException when testing DefaultModelBinder.

    - by Byron Sommardahl
    I'm developing a project using BDD/TDD techniques and I'm trying my best to stay the course. A problem I just ran into is unit testing the DefaultModelBinder. I'm using mspec to write my tests. I have a class like this that I want to bind to: public class EmailMessageInput : IMessageInput { public object Recipient { get; set; } public string Body { get; set; } } Here's how I'm building my spec context. I'm building a fake form collection and stuffing it into a bindingContext object. public abstract class given_a_controller_with_valid_email_input : given_a_controller_context { Establish additional_context = () => { var form = new FormCollection { new NameValueCollection { { "EmailMessageInput.Recipient", "[email protected]"}, { "EmailMessageInput.Body", "Test body." } } }; _bindingContext = new ModelBindingContext { ModelName = "EmailMessageInput", ValueProvider = form }; _modelBinder = new DefaultModelBinder(); }; protected static ModelBindingContext _bindingContext; protected static DefaultModelBinder _modelBinder; } public abstract class given_a_controller_context { protected static MessageController _controller; Establish context = () => { _controller = new MessageController(); }; } Finally, my spec throws an null reference exception when I execute .BindModel() from inside one of my specs: Because of = () => { _model = _modelBinder.BindModel(_controller.ControllerContext, _bindingContext); }; Any clue what it could be? Feel free to ask me for more info, if needed. I might have taken something for granted.

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  • maps, iterators, and complex structs - STL errors

    - by Austin Hyde
    So, I have two structs: struct coordinate { float x; float y; } struct person { int id; coordinate location; } and a function operating on coordinates: float distance(const coordinate& c1, const coordinate& c2); In my main method, I have the following code: map<int,person> people; // populate people map<int,map<float,int> > distance_map; map<int,person>::iterator it1,it2; for (it1=people.begin(); it1!=people.end(); ++it1) { for (it2=people.begin(); it2!=people.end(); ++it2) { float d = distance(it1->second.location,it2->second.location); distance_map[it1->first][d] = it2->first; } } However, I get the following error upon build: stl_iterator_base_types.h: In instantiation of ‘std::iterator_traits<coordinate>’: stl_iterator_base_types.h:129: error: no type named ‘iterator_category’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:130: error: no type named ‘value_type’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:131: error: no type named ‘difference_type’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:132: error: no type named ‘pointer’ in ‘struct coordinate’ stl_iterator_base_types.h:133: error: no type named ‘reference’ in ‘struct coordinate’ And it blames it on the line: float d = distance(it1->second.location,it2->second.location); Why does the STL complain about my code?

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  • Doubts About Core Data NSManagedObject Deep Copy

    - by Jigzat
    Hello everyone, I have a situation where I must copy one NSManagedObject from the main context into an editing context. It sounds unnecessary to most people as I have seen in similar situations described in Stackoverflow but I looks like I need it. In my app there are many views in a tab bar and every view handles different information that is related to the other views. I think I need multiple MOCs since the user may jump from tab to tab and leave unsaved changes in some tab but maybe it saves data in some other tab/view so if that happens the changes in the rest of the views are saved without user consent and in the worst case scenario makes the app crash. For adding new information I got away by using an adding MOC and then merging changes in both MOCs but for editing is not that easy. I saw a similar situation here in Stackoverflow but the app crashes since my data model doesn't seem to use NSMutableSet for the relationships (I don't think I have a many-to-many relationship, just one-to-many) I think it can be modified so I can retrieve the relationships as if they were attributes for (NSString *attr in relationships) { [cloned setValue:[source valueForKey:attr] forKey:attr]; } but I don't know how to merge the changes of the cloned and original objects. I think I could just delete the object from the main context, then merge both contexts and save changes in the main context but I don't know if is the right way to do it. I'm also concerned about database integrity since I'm not sure that the inverse relationships will keep the same reference to the cloned object as if it were the original one. Can some one please enlighten me about this?

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  • Implementing BindingList<T>

    - by EtherealMonkey
    I am trying to learn more about BindingList because I believe that it will help me with a project that I am working on. Currently, I have an object class (ScannedImage) that is a subtype of a class (HashedImage) that subtypes a native .Net object (Image). There is no reason why I couldn't move the two subtypes together. I am simply subtyping an object that I had previously constructed, but I will now be storing my ScannedImage object in an RDB (well, not technically - only the details and probably the thumbnail). Also, the object class has member types that are my own custom types (Keywords). I am using a custom datagridview to present these objects, but am handling all changes to the ScannedImage object with my own code. As you can probably imagine, I have quite a few events to handle that occur in these base types. So, if I changed my object to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would the object collection (implementing BindingList) receive notifications of changes to the ScannedImage object? Also, if Keywords were to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would changes be accessible to the BindingList through the ScannedImage object? Sorry if this seems rather newbish. I only recently discovered the BindingList and not having formal training in C# programming - am having a difficult time moving forward with this. Also, if anyone has any good reference material, I would be thankful for links. Obviously, I have perused the MSDN Library. I have found a few good links on the web, but it seems that a lot of people are now using WPF and ObservableCollection. My project is based on Winforms and .Net3.5 framework. TIA

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  • Call long running operation in WSS feature OnActivated Event

    - by dirq
    More specifically - How do I reference SPContext in Web Service with [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)]? We are creating a feature that needs to run a job when a site is created. The job takes about 4 minutes to complete. So, we made a web service that we can call when the feature is activated. This works but we want it to run asynchronously now. We've found the SoapDocumentMethod's OneWay property and that would work awesomely but the SPContext is now NULL. We have our web services in the _vti_bin virtual directory so it's available in each Windows Sharepoint Services site. I was using the SPContext.Current.Web to get the site and perform the long running operation. I wanted to just fire and forget about it by returning a soap response right away and letting the process run. How can I get the current SPContext? I used to be able to do this in my web service: SPWeb mySite = SPContext.Current.Web; Can I get the same context when I have the [SoapDocumentMethod(OneWay=true)] attribute applied to my web service? Or must I recreate the SPWeb from the url? This is similar to this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/340192/webservice-oneway-and-new-spsitemyurl Update: I've tried these two ways but they didn't work: SPWeb targetSite = SPControl.GetContextWeb(this.Context); SPWeb targetSite2 = SPContext.GetContext(this.Context).Web;

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  • xsd.exe - schema to class - for use with WCF

    - by NealWalters
    I have created a schema as an agreed upon interface between our company and an external company. I am now creating a WCF C# web service to handle the interface. I ran the XSD utility and it created a C# class. The schema was built in BizTalk, and references other schemas, so all-in-all there are over 15 classes being generated. I put [DataContract} attribute in front of each of the classes. Do I have to put the [DataMember] attribute on every single property? When I generate a test client program, the proxy does not have any code for any of these 15 classes. We used to use this technique when using .asmx services, but not sure if it will work the same with WCF. If we change the schema, we would want to regenerate the WCF class, and then we would haev to each time redecorate it with all the [DataMember] attributes? Is there an newer tool similar to XSD.exe that will work better with WCF? Thanks, Neal Walters SOLUTION (buried in one of Saunders answer/comments): Add the XmlSerializerFormat to the Interface definition: [OperationContract] [XmlSerializerFormat] // ADD THIS LINE Transaction SubmitTransaction(Transaction transactionIn); Two notes: 1) After I did this, I saw a lot more .xsds in the my proxy (Service Reference) test client program, but I didn't see the new classes in my intellisense. 2) For some reason, until I did a build on the project, I didn't get all the classes in the intellisense (not sure why).

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  • Lucene complex structure search

    - by archer
    Basically I do have pretty simple database that I'd like to index with Lucene. Domains are: // Person domain class Person { Set<Pair> keys; } // Pair domain class Pair { KeyItem keyItem; String value; } // KeyItem domain, name is unique field within the DB (!!) class KeyItem{ String name; } I've tens of millions of profiles and hundreds of millions of Pairs, however, since most of KeyItem's "name" fields duplicates, there are only few dozens KeyItem instances. Came up to that structure to save on KeyItem instances. Basically any Profile with any fields could be saved into that structure. Lets say we've profile with properties - name: Andrew Morton - eduction: University of New South Wales, - country: Australia, - occupation: Linux programmer. To store it, we'll have single Profile instance, 4 KeyItem instances: name, education,country and occupation, and 4 Pair instances with values: "Andrew Morton", "University of New South Wales", "Australia" and "Linux Programmer". All other profile will reference (all or some) same instances of KeyItem: name, education, country and occupation. My question is, how to index all of that so I can search for Profile for some particular values of KeyItem::name and Pair::value. Ideally I'd like that kind of query to work: name:Andrew* AND occupation:Linux* Should I create custom Indexer and Searcher? Or I could use standard ones and just map KeyItem and Pair as Lucene components somehow?

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  • jquery form validation: validation script specified externally

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i have a jquery form validation in the master page and it works fine and i got that working from this article: http://www.dotnetcurry.com/ShowArticle.aspx?ID=310 my question is: if i place the .js to external and add a reference to my page then its not working... it says object expected here is how i have done: in my content page (i am using master page, asp.net ) add in my content page: <script src="myform_validation.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { ValidateMe(this); }); </script> below is in the external .js file: function ValidateMe() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=TextBox1.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true }, <%=TextBox2.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 12, required: true }, <%=TextBox3.UniqueID %>: { minlength: 12, required: true }//, // }, messages: { <%=TextBox1.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter your firstname", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") }, <%=TextBox2.UniqueID %>: { required: "Please enter a valid email address", minlength: "Please enter a valid email address" } , <%=TextBox3.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter your firstname", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters") } } , success: function(label) { // set &nbsp; as text for IE label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); } ;

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  • Episerver Scheduled Job fails (scheduler service)

    - by Igor
    Our scheduled jobs started failing since yesterday with the following error message: CustomUpdate.Execute - System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(String username) at EPiServer.Security.PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(String username) The scheduled job uses anonymous execution and logs in programmatically using the following call: if (PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name == string.Empty) { PrincipalInfo.CurrentPrincipal = PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal(ApplicationSettings.ScheduledJobUsername); } I have put in some more logging around PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal call which is in Episerver.Security and noticed that PrincipalInfo.CreatePrincipal calls System.Web.Security.Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) and Roles.GetRolesForUser(username) returns an empty string array. There were no changes code wise or on the server (updates, etc). I checked that the user name used to run the task is in the database and has roles associated with it. I checked that applicationname is set up correctly and is associated with the user If i run the job manually using the same user it executes with no issues (i know there is a difference between running the job manually and using the scheduler) I also tried creating a new user, that didn’t work either. Has anyone come across the same or similar issue? Any thoughts how to resolve this issue?

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  • Error displaying a WinForm in Design mode with a custom control on it.

    - by George
    I have a UserControl that is part of a Class library. I reference this project from my solution. This adds a control from the referenced project to my toolbox. I add tghe control to a form. Everything looks good, I compile all and run. Perfect... But when I close the .frm with the control on it and re-open it, I get this error. The code continues to run. It may have something to do with namespaces. The original namespace was simply "Design" and this was ambiguous and conflicting so i decided to rename it. I think that's when my problems began. To prevent possible data loss before loading the designer, the following errors must be resolved: 2 Errors Ignore and Continue Why am I seeing this page? Could not find type 'Besi.Winforms.HtmlEditor.Editor'. Please make sure that the assembly that contains this type is referenced. If this type is a part of your development project, make sure that the project has been successfully built using settings for your current platform or Any CPU. Instances of this error (1) 1. There is no stack trace or error line information available for this error. Help with this error Could not find an associated help topic for this error. Check Windows Forms Design-Time error list Forum posts about this error Search the MSDN Forums for posts related to this error The variable 'Editor1' is either undeclared or was never assigned. Go to code Instances of this error (1) 1. BesiAdmin frmOrder.Designer.vb Line:775 Column:1 Show Call Stack at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.Error(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String exceptionText, String helpLink) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeExpression(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String name, CodeExpression expression) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeExpression(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, String name, CodeExpression expression) at System.ComponentModel.Design.Serialization.CodeDomSerializerBase.DeserializeStatement(IDesignerSerializationManager manager, CodeStatement statement) Help with this error MSDN Help Forum posts about this error Search the MSDN Forums for posts related to this error

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  • Call dll - pcshll32.dll using delphi

    - by Davis
    Hi, I need to call hllapi function of pcshll32.dll using delphi. It's works with personal communications of ibm. How can i change the code bellow to delphi ? Thanks !!! The EHLLAPI entry point (hllapi) is always called with the following four parameters: EHLLAPI Function Number (input) Data Buffer (input/output) Buffer Length (input/output) Presentation Space Position (input); Return Code (output) The prototype for IBM Standard EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPWORD, LPSTR, LPWORD, LPWORD); The prototype for IBM Enhanced EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPINT, LPSTR, LPINT, LPINT); Each parameter is passed by reference not by value. Thus each parameter to the function call must be a pointer to the value, not the value itself. For example, the following is a correct example of calling the EHLLAPI Query Session Status function: #include "hapi_c.h" struct HLDQuerySessionStatus QueryData; int Func, Len, Rc; long Rc; memset(QueryData, 0, sizeof(QueryData)); // Init buffer QueryData.qsst_shortname = ©A©; // Session to query Func = HA_QUERY_SESSION_STATUS; // Function number Len = sizeof(QueryData); // Len of buffer Rc = 0; // Unused on input hllapi(&Func, (char *)&QueryData, &Len, &Rc); // Call EHLLAPI if (Rc != 0) { // Check return code // ...Error handling } All the parameters in the hllapi call are pointers and the return code of the EHLLAPI function is returned in the value of the 4th parameter, not as the value of the function.

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  • iPhone SQLite Password Field Encryption

    - by Louis Russell
    Good Afternoon Guys and Girls, Hopefully this will be a quick and easy question. I am building an App that requires the user to input their login details for an online service that it links to. Multiple login details can be added and saved as the user may have several accounts that they would like to switch between. These details will be stored in an SQLite database and will contain their passwords. Now the questions are: 1: Should these passwords be encrypted in the database? My instinct would say yes but then I do not know how secure the device and system is and if this is necessary. 2: If they should be encrypted what should I use? I think encrypting the whole database file sounds a bit over-kill so should I just encrypt the password before saving it to the database? If this is case what could I use to achieve this? I have found reference to a "crypt(3)" but am having trouble finding much about it or how to implement it. I eagerly await your replies!

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  • Web.Routing for the site root or homepage

    - by Aquinas
    I am doing some work with Web.Routing, using it to have friendly urls and nice Rest like interfaces to a site that is essentially rendered by a single IHttpHandler. There are no webforms, the handler generates all the html/json and writes it as part of process request. This works well for things like /Sites/Accounting for example, but I can't get it to work for the site root, i.e. '/'. I have tried registering a route with an empty string, with 'default.aspx' (which is the empty aspx file I keep in my root folder to play nice with cassini and iis). I set RouteExistingFiles to false explicitly, but whatever I do when hitting the root url it still opens default.axpx, which has no code it inherits from, and contains a simple h1 tag to show that I've hit it. I don't want to change the default file to redirect to a desired route, I just want the equivalent of a 'default' route that is applied when no other routes are found, similar to MVC. For reference, the previous version of the site didn't use Web.Routing, but had a handler referenced in the web.config that was perfectly capable of intercepting requests for the root or default.aspx. Specs: ASP.NET 3.5sp1, C#, no webforms, MVC or openrasta. Plain old IHttpHandlers.

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  • Google Contacts Error: If-Match or If-None-Match header or entry etag attribute required

    - by Ali
    Hi guys I'm following the example code as defined on this website: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/x-phpgooglecontact/index.html I want to be able to integrate with my google apps account and play around with teh contacts. However I get this error whenever I try to run the modify contacts code: If-Match or If-None-Match header or entry etag attribute required This is my code: Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_ClientLogin'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Http_Client'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_Query'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_Feed'); $client = getGoogleClient('cp'); // this is a function I made - its working fine $client->setHeaders('If-Match: *'); $gdata = new Zend_Gdata($client); $gdata->setMajorProtocolVersion(3); $query = new Zend_Gdata_Query($id);// id is the google reference $entry = $gdata->getEntry($query); $xml = simplexml_load_string($entry->getXML()); $xml->name->fullName = trim($contact->first_name).' '.trim($contact->last_name); $entryResult = $gdata->updateEntry($xml->saveXML(), $id);

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  • custom C++ boost::lambda expression help

    - by aaa
    hello. A little bit of background: I have some strange multiple nested loops which I converted to flat work queue (basically collapse single index loops to single multi-index loop). right now each loop is hand coded. I am trying to generalized approach to work with any bounds using lambda expressions: For example: // RANGE(i,I,N) is basically a macro to generate `int i = I; i < N; ++i ` // for (RANGE(lb, N)) { // for (RANGE(jb, N)) { // for (RANGE(kb, max(lb, jb), N)) { // for (RANGE(ib, jb, kb+1)) { // is equivalent to something like (overload , to produce range) flat<1, 3, 2, 4>((_2, _3+1), (max(_4,_3), N), N, N) the internals of flat are something like: template<size_t I1, size_t I2, ..., class L1_, class L2, ..._> boost::array<int,4> flat(L1_ L1, L2_ L2, ...){ //boost::array<int,4> current; class variable bool advance; L2_ l2 = L2.bind(current); // bind current value to lambda { L1_ l1 = L1.bind(current); //bind current value to innermost lambda l1.next(); advance = !(l1 < l1.upper()); // some internal logic if (advance) { l2.next(); current[0] = l1.lower(); } } //..., } my question is, can you give me some ideas how to write lambda (derived from boost) which can be bound to index array reference to return upper, lower bounds according to lambda expression? thank you much

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  • Using the MVVM Light Toolkit to make Blendable applications

    - by Dave
    A while ago, I posted a question regarding switching between a Blend-authored GUI and a Visual Studio-authored one. I got it to work okay by adding my Blend project to my VS2008 project and then changing the Startup Application and recompiling. This would result in two applications that had completely different GUIs, yet used the exact same ViewModel and Model code. I was pretty happy with that. Now that I've learned about the Laurent Bugnion's MVVM Light Toolkit, I would really like to leverage his efforts to make this process of supporting multiple GUIs for the same backend code possible. The question is, does the toolkit facilate this, or am I stuck doing it my previous way? I've watched his video from MIX10 and have read some of the articles about it online. However, I've yet to see something that indicates that there is a clean way to allow a user to either dynamically switch GUIs on the fly by loading a different DLL. There are MVVM templates for VS2008 and Blend 3, but am I supposed to create both types of projects for my application and then reference specific files from my VS2008 solution? UPDATE I re-read some information on Laurent's site, and seemed to have forgotten that the whole point of the template was to allow the same solution to be opened in VS2008 and Blend. So anyhow, with this new perspective it looks like the templates are actually intended to use a single GUI, most likely designed entirely in Blend (with the convenience of debugging through VS2008), and then be able to use two different ViewModels -- one for design-time, and one for runtime. So it seems to me like the answer to my question is that I want to use a combination of my previous solution, along with the MVVM Light Toolkit. The former will allow me to make multiple, distinct GUIs around my core code, while the latter will make designing fancy GUIs in Blend easier with the usage of a design-time ViewModel. Can anyone comment on this?

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  • Classic ASP to WCF using the Service Moniker

    - by Jab
    I am trying to consume a WCF logging service from classic ASP without deploy a Com wrapper. I found a method of doing so here. Here is the vb script, simplified. Dim addr addr = "service:mexAddress=""net.pipe://localhost/Services/Logging/LoggingManager/Mex""," _ & "address=""net.pipe://localhost/Services/Logging/LoggingManager/classic/""," _ & "contract=""ILoggingManagerClassic"", contractNamespace=""http://Services.Logging.Classic/""," _ & "binding=""NetNamedPipeBinding_ILoggingManagerClassic"", bindingNamespace=""http://Services.Logging.Classic/""" set objErrorLogger = GetObject(addr) Dim strError : strError = objErrorLogger.LogError("blahblah") This works on Server 2008, but fails with this error on Server 2003. Failed to do mex retrieval:Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: net.pipe://localhost/Services/Logging/LoggingManager/Mex.. Only when running through ASP does it fail, a sample VBS file on the same machine using the same code works fine. I think it may be permission related, but don't know where to begin. Anyone have any ideas? EDIT - let me clarify that the WCF host is a windows service running as NETWORK SERVICE. If this belongs on server fault, a moderator can move it. I have an account there as well.

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  • Why doesn't my cursor change to an Hourglass in my FindDialog in Delphi?

    - by lkessler
    I am simply opening my FindDialog with: FindDialog.Execute; In my FindDialog.OnFind event, I want to change the cursor to an hourglass for searches through large files, which may take a few seconds. So in the OnFind event I do this: Screen.Cursor := crHourglass; (code that searches for the text and displays it) ... Screen.Cursor := crDefault; What happens is while searching for the text, the cursor properly changes to the hourglass (or rotating circle in Vista) and then back to the pointer when the search is completed. However, this only happens on the main form. It does not happen on the FindDialog itself. The default cursor remains on the FindDialog during the search. While the search is happening if I move the cursor over the FindDialog it changes to the default, and if I move it off and over the main form it becomes the hourglass. This does not seem like what is supposed to happen. Am I doing something wrong or does something special need to be done to get the cursor to be the hourglass on all forms? For reference, I'm using Delphi 2009.

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  • Jeditable with jQuery UI Datepicker

    - by BrynJ
    I need to have a click to edit element on a page, that will in turn invoke an instance of the jQuery UI Datepicker. Currently, I'm using JEditable to provide the in place editing, which is working fine. However, I have a date control input that I would like to have appear as a calendar, which is where the fun starts. I've found a Comment in the this blog by Calle Kabo (the page is a little mashed unfortunately) that details a way to do this: $.editable.addInputType("datepicker", { element: function(settings, original) { var input = $("<input type=\"text\" name=\"value\" />"); $(this).append(input); return(input); }, plugin: function(settings, original) { var form = this; $("input", this).filter(":text").datepicker({ onSelect: function(dateText) { $(this).hide(); $(form).trigger("submit"); } }); } }); However, I can't get the above to work - no errors, but no effect either. I've tried placing it within the jQuery document ready function and also outside of it - no joy. My UI Datepicker class is date-picker and my Jeditable class is ajaxedit, I'm sure the above inaction is due to the need to reference them somehow in the code, but I don't know how. Also, the Jeditable control is one of many element ids, if that has a bearing. Any ideas from those more in the know?

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