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  • How to develop a Jquery plugin to find the first child that match with a selector?

    - by Ivan
    I'm trying to make a Jquery plugin (findFirst()) to find the first child with a given characteristics (something in the middle of the find() and children() functions. For instance, given this markup: <div id="start"> <div> <span>Hello world</span> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> <ul class="valid-result"> <li> <ul class="not-a-result"> ... </ul> </li> </ul> <div> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> </div> </div> </div> If you ask for $("#start").findFirst('ul') it should return all ul lists that I have tagged with the valid-result class, but not the ul with class not-a-result. It is, this function has to find the first elements that matches with a given selector, but not the inner elements that match this selector. This is the first time I try to code a Jquery function, and what I've already read doesn't helps me too much with this. The function I have developed is this: jQuery.fn.findFirst = function (sel) { return this.map(function() { return $(this).children().map(function() { if ($(this).is(sel)) { return $(this); } else { return $(this).findFirst(sel); } }); }); } It works in the sense it tries to return the expected result, but the format it returns the result is very rare for me. I suppose the problem is something I don't understand about Jquery. Here you have the JFiddle where I'm testing. EDIT The expected result after $("#start").findFirst('ul') is a set with all UL that have the class 'valid-result' BUT it's not possible to use this class because it doesn't exist in a real case (it's just to try to explain the result). This is not equivalent to first(), because first returns only one element!

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  • c++ class member functions instatiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched stackoverflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state info was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (vc++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

    - by Stuart Lange
    Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

    - by Naif
    I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

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  • Why won't C# accept a (seemingly) perfectly good Sql Server CE Query?

    - by VoidKing
    By perfectly good sql query, I mean to say that, inside WebMatrix, if I execute the following query, it works to perfection: SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%o%' UNION SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER('o'), ''))) / len('o') AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%o%' Here i am using 'o' as a static search string to search upon. No problem, but not exeactly very dynamic. Now, when I write this query as a string in C# and as I think it should be (and even as I have done before) I get a server-side error indicating that the string was not in the correct format. Here is a pic of that error: And (although I am only testing the output, should I get it to quit erring), here is the actual C# (i.e., the .cshtml) page that queries the database: @{ Layout = "~/Layouts/_secondaryMainLayout.cshtml"; var db = Database.Open("Content"); string searchText = Request.Unvalidated["searchText"]; string selectQueryString = "SELECT page AS location, (len(page) - len(replace(UPPER(page), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'pageSettings' AS tableName FROM PageSettings WHERE page LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT pageTitle AS location, (len(pageTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(pageTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'ExternalSecondaryPages' AS tableName FROM ExternalSecondaryPages WHERE pageTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%' "; selectQueryString += "UNION "; selectQueryString += "SELECT eventTitle AS location, (len(eventTitle) - len(replace(UPPER(eventTitle), UPPER(@0), ''))) / len(@0) AS occurences, 'MainStreetEvents' AS tableName FROM MainStreetEvents WHERE eventTitle LIKE '%' + @0 + '%'"; @:beginning <br/> foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) { @:entry @:@row.location &nbsp; @:@row.occurences &nbsp; @:@row.tableName <br/> } } Since it is erring on the foreach (var row in db.Query(selectQueryString, searchText)) line, that heavily suggests that something is wrong with my query, however, everything seems right to me about the syntax here and it even executes to perfection if I query the database (mind you, un-parameterized) directly. Logically, I would assume that I have erred somewhere with the syntax involved in parameterizing this query, however, my double and triple checking (as well as, my past experience at doing this) insists that everything looks fine here. Have I messed up the syntax involved with parameterizing this query, or is something else at play here that I am overlooking? I know I can tell you, for sure, as it has been previously tested, that the value I am getting from the query string is, indeed, what I would expect it to be, but as there really isn't much else on the .cshtml page yet, that is about all I can tell you.

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  • zlib gzgets extremely slow?

    - by monkeyking
    I'm doing stuff related to parsing huge globs of textfiles, and was testing what input method to use. There is not much of a difference using c++ std::ifstreams vs c FILE, According to the documentation of zlib, it supports uncompressed files, and will read the file without decompression. I'm seeing a difference from 12 seconds using non zlib to more than 4 minutes using zlib.h This I've tested doing multiple runs, so its not a disk cache issue. Am I using zlib in some wrong way? thanks #include <zlib.h> #include <cstdio> #include <cstdlib> #include <fstream> #define LENS 1000000 size_t fg(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using fgets\n"); FILE *fp =fopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(NULL!=fgets(buffer,LENS,fp)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t is(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using ifstream\n"); std::ifstream is(fname,std::ios::in); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(is. getline(buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } size_t iz(const char *fname){ fprintf(stderr,"\t-> using zlib\n"); gzFile fp =gzopen(fname,"r"); size_t nLines =0; char *buffer = new char[LENS]; while(0!=gzgets(fp,buffer,LENS)) nLines++; fprintf(stderr,"%lu\n",nLines); return nLines; } int main(int argc,char**argv){ if(atoi(argv[2])==0) fg(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==1) is(argv[1]); if(atoi(argv[2])==2) iz(argv[1]); }

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  • Catching error caused by InitialContext.lookup

    - by Martin Schröder
    I'm developing a command line client (Java SE6) that now needs to talk to a Glassfish 2.1 server. The code for setting up this connection is try { final InitialContext context = new InitialContext(); final String ejbName = GeneratorCancelledRemote.class.getName(); generatorCancelled = (GeneratorCancelledRemote) context.lookup(ejbName); } catch (Throwable t) { System.err.println("--> Could not call server:"); t.printStackTrace(System.err); runWithOutEJB = true; } I'm now testing it without a running server and the client (when run from Eclipse 4.2) just bombs with 31.10.2012 10:40:09 com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl WARNUNG: "IOP00410201: (COMM_FAILURE) Connection failure: socketType: IIOP_CLEAR_TEXT; hostname: localhost; port: 3700" org.omg.CORBA.COMM_FAILURE: vmcid: SUN minor code: 201 completed: No at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.logging.ORBUtilSystemException.connectFailure(ORBUtilSystemException.java:2783) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.logging.ORBUtilSystemException.connectFailure(ORBUtilSystemException.java:2804) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.(SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.java:261) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.(SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.java:274) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelContactInfoImpl.createConnection(SocketOrChannelContactInfoImpl.java:130) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.beginRequest(CorbaClientRequestDispatcherImpl.java:192) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientDelegateImpl.request(CorbaClientDelegateImpl.java:184) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.protocol.CorbaClientDelegateImpl.is_a(CorbaClientDelegateImpl.java:328) at org.omg.CORBA.portable.ObjectImpl._is_a(ObjectImpl.java:112) at org.omg.CosNaming.NamingContextHelper.narrow(NamingContextHelper.java:69) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.narrowProvider(SerialContext.java:134) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.getCachedProvider(SerialContext.java:259) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.getRemoteProvider(SerialContext.java:204) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.getProvider(SerialContext.java:159) at com.sun.enterprise.naming.SerialContext.lookup(SerialContext.java:409) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:392) at com.werkii.latex.generator.Generator.main(Generator.java:344) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at com.sun.enterprise.iiop.IIOPSSLSocketFactory.createSocket(IIOPSSLSocketFactory.java:347) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.transport.SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.(SocketOrChannelConnectionImpl.java:244) ... 14 more Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect at sun.nio.ch.Net.connect(Native Method) at sun.nio.ch.SocketChannelImpl.connect(SocketChannelImpl.java:532) at com.sun.corba.ee.impl.orbutil.ORBUtility.openSocketChannel(ORBUtility.java:105) at com.sun.enterprise.iiop.IIOPSSLSocketFactory.createSocket(IIOPSSLSocketFactory.java:332) ... 15 more It's o.k. for now (while I'm still in development) that it bombs, but it does this repeatedly and the catch clause is never reached (even though I'm catching Throwable) - the message is not printed. So how can I handle connection errors during lookup in my program?

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  • Mysql select - improve performances

    - by realshadow
    Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated. Edit: Here is the explain +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | products_loans | range | CENA_OD,CENA_DO,KOD | KOD | 92 | NULL | 190158 | Using where | +----+-------------+----------------+-------+---------------------+------+---------+------+--------+-------------+ I have tried the combined index and it improved the performance on the test server from 0.44 sec to 0.06 sec, I cant access the production server from home though, so I will have to try it tomorrow.

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  • How to detect for screenreaders/MSAA without focusing the flash movie?

    - by utt73
    I am trying to detect for the presence of assistive technology using flash. When a Flash movie holding the actionscript below on frame 1 is loaded (and screenreader chatting to IE or Firefox over MSAA is active -- JAWS or NVDA), Accessibility.isActive() does not return "true" until the movie is focused. Well, actually not until some "event" happens. The movie will just sit there until I right-click it & show flash player's context menu... it seems only then Accessibility.isActive() returns true. Right-clicking is the only way I could get the movie to "wake up". How do I get the movie to react on it's own and detect MSAA? I've tried sending focus to it with Javascript... can a fake a right-click in javascript or actionscript? Or do you know the events a right click is firing in a flash movie -- possibly I can programatically make that event happen? My Actionscript: var x = 0; //check if Microsoft Active Accessibility (MSAA) is active. //Setting takes 1-2 seconds to detect -- hence the setTimeout loop. function check508(){ if ( Accessibility.isActive() ) { //remove this later... just visual for testing logo.glogo.logotext.nextFrame(); //tell the page's javascript this is a 508 user getURL("javascript:setAccessible();") } else if (x<100) { trace ("There is currently no active accessibility aid. Attempt " + x); x++; setTimeout(check508,200); } } /* //FYI: only checks if browser can talk to MSAA, not that it is actually running. Sigh. if (System.capabilities.hasAccessibility) { logo.glogo.logotext.nextFrame(); getURL("javascript:setAccessible();") }; */ check508(); stop(); My HTML: <embed id="detector" width="220" height="100" quality="high" wmode="window" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" src="/images/detect.swf" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/go/getflashplayer" flashvars="">

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  • Unable to read data from the transport connection: the connection was closed

    - by webdreamer
    The exception is Remoting Exception - Authentication Failure. The detailed message says "Unable to read data from the transport connection: the connection was closed." I'm having trouble with creating two simple servers that can comunicate as remote objects in C#. ServerInfo is just a class I created that holds the IP and Port and can give back the address. It works fine, as I used it before, and I've debugged it. Also the server is starting just fine, no exception is thrown, and the channel is registered without problems. I'm using Forms to do the interfaces, and call some of the methods on the server, but didn't find any problems in passing the parameters from the FormsApplication to the server when debugging. All seems fine in that chapter. public ChordServerProgram() { RemotingServices.Marshal(this, "PADIBook"); nodeInt = 0; } public void startServer() { try { serverChannel = new TcpChannel(serverInfo.Port); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(serverChannel, true); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } I run two instances of this program. Then startNode is called on one of the instances of the application. The port is fine, the address generated is fine as well. As you can see, I'm using the IP for localhost, since this server is just for testing purposes. public void startNode(String portStr) { IPAddress address = IPAddress.Parse("127.0.0.1"); Int32 port = Int32.Parse(portStr); serverInfo = new ServerInfo(address, port); startServer(); //node = new ChordNode(serverInfo,this); } Then, in the other istance, through the interface again, I call another startNode method, giving it a seed server to get information from. This is where it goes wrong. When it calls the method on the seedServer proxy it just got, a RemotingException is thrown, due to an authentication failure. (The parameter I'll want to get is the node, I'm just using the int to make sure the ChordNode class has nothing to do with this error.) public void startNode(String portStr, String seedStr) { IPAddress address = IPAddress.Parse("127.0.0.1"); Int32 port = Int32.Parse(portStr); serverInfo = new ServerInfo(address, port); IPAddress addressSeed = IPAddress.Parse("127.0.0.1"); Int32 portSeed = Int32.Parse(seedStr); ServerInfo seedInfo = new ServerInfo(addressSeed, portSeed); startServer(); ChordServerProgram seedServer = (ChordServerProgram)Activator.GetObject(typeof(ChordServerProgram), seedInfo.GetFullAddress()); // node = new ChordNode(serverInfo,this); int seedNode = seedServer.nodeInt; // node.chordJoin(seedNode.self); }

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  • Java DriverManager Always Assigns My Driver

    - by JGB146
    I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

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  • FB Connect going in an infinite loop with google chrome

    - by Mitesh
    Hi, I am having the following php code which i am trying for testing FB Connect <?php define('FACEBOOK_APP_ID', 'YOUR_APP_ID'); define('FACEBOOK_SECRET', 'YOUR_APP_SECRET'); function get_facebook_cookie($app_id, $application_secret) { enter code here $args = array(); parse_str(trim($COOKIE['fbs' . $app_id], '\"'), $args); ksort($args); $payload = ''; foreach ($args as $key = $value) { if ($key != 'sig') { $payload .= $key . '=' . $value; } } if (md5($payload . $application_secret) != $args['sig']) { return null; } return $args; } $cookie = get_facebook_cookie(FACEBOOK_APP_ID, FACEBOOK_SECRET); ? <!DOCTYPE html <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml" <body <?php if ($cookie) { ? Your user ID is <?= $cookie['uid'] ? <br / Your Acess Token is <br / <?php $user = json_decode(file_get_contents( 'https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token=' . $cookie['access_token'])); if($user) { echo "<br /Display Name = " . $user-name; echo "<br /First Name = " . $user-first_name; echo "<br /Last Name = " . $user-last_name; echo "<br /Birthday = " . $user-birthday; echo "<br /Home Town = " . $user-hometown-name; echo "<br /Location = " . $user-location-name; echo "<br /Email = " . $user-email . "<br /"; } ? <?php } else { ? <fb:login-button perms="email,user_birthday,publish_stream"</fb:login-button <?php } ? <div id="fb-root">&lt;/div> <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script> FB.init({appId: '<?= FACEBOOK_APP_ID ?>', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); FB.Event.subscribe('auth.login', function(response) { window.location.reload(); }); </script> </body </html The problem faced by me is it works fine with IE and Firefox, however when done the same with google chrome I am running into an infinite loop when I click on reload/refresh button of chrome after logging in. Any hints as to why is it happening with chrome? Also how can it be avoided. Thanks, Mitesh

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  • Representing xml through a single class

    - by Charles
    I am trying to abstract away the difficulties of configuring an application that we use. This application takes a xml configuration file and it can be a bit bothersome to manually edit this file, especially when we are trying to setup some automatic testing scenarios. I am finding that reading xml is nice, pretty easy, you get a network of element nodes that you can just go through and build your structures quite nicely. However I am slowly finding that the reverse is not quite so nice. I want to be able to build a xml configuration file through a single easy to use interface and because xml is composed of a system of nodes I am having a lot of struggle trying to maintain the 'easy' part. Does anyone know of any examples or samples that easily and intuitively build xml files without declaring a bunch of element type classes and expect the user to build the network themselves? For example if my desired xml output is like so <cook version="1.1"> <recipe name="chocolate chip cookie"> <ingredients> <ingredient name="flour" amount="2" units="cups"/> <ingredient name="eggs" amount="2" units="" /> <ingredient name="cooking chocolate" amount="5" units="cups" /> </ingredients> <directions> <direction name="step 1">Preheat oven</direction> <direction name="step 2">Mix flour, egg, and chocolate</direction> <direction name="step 2">bake</direction> </directions> </recipe> <recipe name="hot dog"> ... How would I go about designing a class to build that network of elements and make one easy to use interface for creating recipes? Right now I have a recipe object, an ingredient object, and a direction object. The user must make each one, set the attributes in the class and attach them to the root object which assembles the xml elements and outputs the formatted xml. Its not very pretty and I just know there has to be a better way. I am using python so bonus points for pythonic solutions

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  • How to get colliding effect or bouncy when ball hits the track.

    - by Chandan Shetty SP
    I am using below formula to move the ball circular, where accelX and accelY are the values from accelerometer, it is working fine. But the problem in this code is mRadius (I fixed its value to 50), i need to change mRadius according to accelerometer values and also i need bouncing effect when it touches the track. Currently i am developing code by assuming only one ball is on the board. float degrees = -atan2(accelX, accelY) * 180 / 3.14159; int x = cCentrePoint.x + mRadius * cos(degreesToRadians(degrees)); int y = cCentrePoint.y + mRadius * sin(degreesToRadians(degrees)); Here is the snap of the game i want to develop: Updated: I am sending the updated code... mRadius = 5; mRange = NSMakeRange(0,60); -(void) updateBall: (UIAccelerationValue) accelX withY:(UIAccelerationValue)accelY { float degrees = -atan2(accelX, accelY) * 180 / 3.14159; int x = cCentrePoint.x + mRadius * cos(degreesToRadians(degrees)); int y = cCentrePoint.y + mRadius * sin(degreesToRadians(degrees)); //self.targetRect is rect of ball Object self.targetRect = CGRectMake(newX, newY, 8, 9); self.currentRect = self.targetRect; //http://books.google.co.in/books?id=WV9glgdrrrUC&pg=PA455#v=onepage&q=&f=false static NSDate *lastDrawTime; if(lastDrawTime!=nil) { NSTimeInterval secondsSinceLastDraw = -([lastDrawTime timeIntervalSinceNow]); ballXVelocity = ballXVelocity + (accelX * secondsSinceLastDraw) * [self isTouchedTrack:mRadius andRange:mRange]; ballYVelocity = ballYVelocity + -(accelY * secondsSinceLastDraw) * [self isTouchedTrack:mRadius andRange:mRange]; distXTravelled = distXTravelled + secondsSinceLastDraw * ballXVelocity * 50; distYTravelled = distYTravelled + secondsSinceLastDraw * ballYVelocity * 50; CGRect temp = self.targetRect; temp.origin.x += distXTravelled; temp.origin.y += distYTravelled; int radius = (temp.origin.x - cCentrePoint.x) / cos(degreesToRadians(degrees)); if( !NSLocationInRange(abs(radius),mRange)) { //Colided with the tracks...Need a better logic here ballXVelocity = -ballXVelocity; } else { // Need a better logic here self.targetRect = temp; } //NSLog(@"angle = %f",degrees); } [lastDrawTime release]; lastDrawTime = [ [NSDate alloc] init]; } In the above code i have initialized mRadius and mRange(indicate track) to some constant for testing, i am not getting the moving of the ball as i expected( bouncing effect when Collided with track ) with respect to accelerometer. Help me to recognize where i went wrong or send some code snippets or links which does the similar job. I am searching for better logic than my code, if you found share with me.

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • Openlayers and Bing Maps (POLYGONS)

    - by Jordan
    When trying to draw polygons onto a bing map, the initial marker is set differently on the map. How can I fix this? OpenLayers Bing Example <script src="OpenLayers.js"></script> <script> var map; function init(){ map = new OpenLayers.Map("map"); map.addControl(new OpenLayers.Control.LayerSwitcher()); var shaded = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Shaded", { type: VEMapStyle.Shaded }); var hybrid = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Hybrid", { type: VEMapStyle.Hybrid }); var aerial = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Aerial", { type: VEMapStyle.Aerial }); var POLY_LAYER = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector(); map.addLayers([shaded, hybrid, aerial, POLY_LAYER]); map.setCenter(new OpenLayers.LonLat(-110, 45), 3); var polygon = new OpenLayers.Control.DrawFeature(POLY_LAYER, OpenLayers.Handler.Polygon); map.addControl(polygon); polygon.activate(); } </script> Bing Example <div id="tags"> Bing, Microsoft, Virtual Earth </div> <p id="shortdesc"> Demonstrates the use of Bing layers. </p> <div id="map" class="smallmap"></div> <div id="docs">This example demonstrates the ability to create layers using tiles from Bing maps.</div> Of course the above is being initialized and page works. You can draw the polygon shapes. Notice if you zoom in or out one time, the markers are set at the correct coordinates. My app I was testing this on is really using the bing maps API keys and not VirtualEarth. But it's doing a similar thing. Is this an Openlayers bug? The below source came directly from the open layers example site, I just added and activated polygons to the map. Please let me know how I can fix this for using the Bing Map API.. I've been stuck on this for HOURS! :(

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  • What are some things you'd like fresh college grads to know?

    - by bradhe
    So I proposed this to the Reddit community and I'd like to get SO's perspective on this. This is pretty much the copypasta of what I put there. I was thinking about this last night and thought it would be neat to compile a list. I'm still a pretty fresh college grad -- been in industry for 2 years -- but I think that I might have a few interesting things to lend. You don't know as much as you think you do. Somehow, college students think they know a lot more than they do (or maybe that was just me). Likewise, they think they can do more than they actually can. You should fairly assess your skills. QA people are not out to get you. Humans introduce bugs to code. It's not (nescessarily) a personal reflection on you and your skills if your code has a bug and it's caught by the QA/testing team. Listen to your senior (developers). They are not actually fuddy duddies who don't know about the new L337 hax in Ruby (okay, sometimes they are, but still...). They have a wealth of knowledge that you can learn from and it's in your best interest to do so. You will most likely not be doing what you want to for a while. This is mostly true in the corporate world -- startups are a different matter. Also, this is due to more than just the economy, man! Junior devs need to earn their keep, so to speak. Everyone wants to be lead dev on the next project and there are a lot of people in line ahead of you! For every elite developer there are 100 average developers. Joel Spolsky, I'm looking at you. Somehow this concept of ninja coders has really ingrained itself in our culture. While I encourage you to be the best you can be don't be disappointed if people aren't writing blog posts about you in the near future. Anyone else have anything they would see added to this list?

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  • C++ DLL creation for C# project - No functions exported

    - by Yeti
    I am working on a project that requires some image processing. The front end of the program is C# (cause the guys thought it is a lot simpler to make the UI in it). However, as the image processing part needs a lot of CPU juice I am making this part in C++. The idea is to link it to the C# project and just call a function from a DLL to make the image processing part and allow to the C# environment to process the data afterwards. Now the only problem is that it seems I am not able to make the DLL. Simply put the compiler refuses to put any function into the DLL that I compile. Because the project requires some development time testing I have created two projects into a C++ solution. One is for the Dll and another console application. The console project holds all the files and I just include the corresponding header into my DLL project file. I thought the compiler should take out the functions that I marked as to be exported and make the DLL from them. Nevertheless this does not happens. Here it is how I defined the function in the header: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck); extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI, CvScalar &refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ); Followed by the implementation in the cpp file: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI,&refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ) { \\... return cvPoint((int)( M10/M00) + imgROI.x, (int)( M01/M00 ) + imgROI.y) ;} extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck) { \\ ...}; And my main file for the DLL project looks like: #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(push, off) #endif /// <summary> Include files. </summary> #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessingTest.h" #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessing.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { return TRUE; } #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(pop) #endif Needless to say it does not work. A quick look with DLL export viewer 1.36 reveals that no function is inside the library. I don't get it. What I am doing wrong ? As side not I am using the C++ objects (and here it is the C++ DLL part) such as the vector. However, only for internal usage. These will not appear in the headers of either function as you can observe from the previous code snippets. Any ideas? Thx, Bernat

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  • Managing several custom content types from one module(drupal)

    - by Andrew
    Is it possible to declare and manage several custom content types inside one module? I'm creating a site that needs four custom content types and I'd like to manage them from one module instead of creating module for every content type. After some testing, I found out that it seems impossible. Because, unless hook_form and content type share the same name of module, drupal doesn't call hook_form. Here's how I'd like to do - function mycontent_node_info(){ return array( 'mycontent1' => array( 'name' => t('....'), 'module' => 'mycontent', 'description' => t('...), 'has_title' => TRUE, 'title_label' => t('Title'), 'has_body' => TRUE, 'body_label' => t('content body'), ), 'mycontent2' => array( ....... ), 'mycontent3' => array( ...... ), 'mycontent4' => array( ...... ), ); } function mycontent1_form(&$node){ $form['control1'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#options' => array( '0' => t('selection 1'), '1' => t('selection 2'), ), '#attributes' => array('id'=>'control1'), ); $form['control2'] = array( '#type' => 'select', '#options' => array( '0' => t('1'), '1' => t('2'), '2' => t('3'), '3' => t('4'), ), '#attributes' => array('id'=>'control2'), ); return $form; } function mycontent2_form(&$node){ .... } function mycontent3_form(&$node){ .... } function mycontent4_form(&$node){ .... } Am I doing something wrong here or is not possible and there's no alternative other than creating module for every content types. I appreciate much your help.

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  • representing an XML config file with an IXmlSerializable class

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I'm writing in C# and trying to represent an XML config file through an IXmlSerializable class. I'm unsure how to represent the nested elements in my config file, though, such as logLevel: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <logging> <logLevel>Error</logLevel> </logging> <credentials> <user>user123</user> <host>localhost</host> <password>pass123</password> </credentials> <credentials> <user>user456</user> <host>my.other.domain.com</host> <password>pass456</password> </credentials> </configuration> There is an enum called LogLevel that represents all the possible values for the logLevel tag. The tags within credentials should all come out as strings. In my class, called DLLConfigFile, I had the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; However, this isn't going to work because <logLevel> isn't within the root node of the XML file, it's one node deeper in <logging>. How do I go about doing this? As for the <credentials> nodes, my guess is I will need a second class, say CredentialsSection, and have a property such as the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="credentials", DataType="CredentialsSection")] public CredentialsSection[] AllCredentials; Edit: okay, I tried Robert Love's suggestion and created a LoggingSection class. However, my test fails: var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(DLLConfigFile)); using (var stream = new FileStream(_configPath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read)) { using (var streamReader = new StreamReader(stream)) { XmlReader reader = new XmlTextReader(streamReader); var file = (DLLConfigFile)xs.Deserialize(reader); Assert.IsNotNull(file); LoggingSection logging = file.Logging; Assert.IsNotNull(logging); // fails here LogLevel logLevel = logging.LogLevel; Assert.IsNotNull(logLevel); Assert.AreEqual(EXPECTED_LOG_LEVEL, logLevel); } } The config file I'm testing with definitely has <logging>. Here's what the classes look like: [Serializable] [XmlRoot("logging")] public class LoggingSection : IXmlSerializable { public XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { LogLevel = (LogLevel)Enum.Parse(typeof(LogLevel), reader.ReadString()); } public void WriteXml(XmlWriter writer) { writer.WriteString(Enum.GetName(typeof(LogLevel), LogLevel)); } } [Serializable] [XmlRoot("configuration")] public class DLLConfigFile : IXmlSerializable { [XmlElement(ElementName="logging", DataType="LoggingSection")] public LoggingSection Logging; }

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • Having trouble wrapping functions in the linux kernel

    - by Corey Henderson
    I've written a LKM that implements Trusted Path Execution (TPE) into your kernel: https://github.com/cormander/tpe-lkm I run into an occasional kernel OOPS (describe at the end of this question) when I define WRAP_SYSCALLS to 1, and am at my wit's end trying to track it down. A little background: Since the LSM framework doesn't export its symbols, I had to get creative with how I insert the TPE checking into the running kernel. I wrote a find_symbol_address() function that gives me the address of any function I need, and it works very well. I can call functions like this: int (*my_printk)(const char *fmt, ...); my_printk = find_symbol_address("printk"); (*my_printk)("Hello, world!\n"); And it works fine. I use this method to locate the security_file_mmap, security_file_mprotect, and security_bprm_check functions. I then overwrite those functions with an asm jump to my function to do the TPE check. The problem is, the currently loaded LSM will no longer execute the code for it's hook to that function, because it's been totally hijacked. Here is an example of what I do: int tpe_security_bprm_check(struct linux_binprm *bprm) { int ret = 0; if (bprm->file) { ret = tpe_allow_file(bprm->file); if (IS_ERR(ret)) goto out; } #if WRAP_SYSCALLS stop_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); ret = cs_security_bprm_check.ptr(bprm); start_my_code(&cs_security_bprm_check); #endif out: return ret; } Notice the section between the #if WRAP_SYSCALLS section (it's defined as 0 by default). If set to 1, the LSM's hook is called because I write the original code back over the asm jump and call that function, but I run into an occasional kernel OOPS with an "invalid opcode": invalid opcode: 0000 [#1] SMP RIP: 0010:[<ffffffff8117b006>] [<ffffffff8117b006>] security_bprm_check+0x6/0x310 I don't know what the issue is. I've tried several different types of locking methods (see the inside of start/stop_my_code for details) to no avail. To trigger the kernel OOPS, write a simple bash while loop that endlessly starts a backgrounded "ls" command. After a minute or so, it'll happen. I'm testing this on a RHEL6 kernel, also works on Ubuntu 10.04 LTS (2.6.32 x86_64). While this method has been the most successful so far, I have tried another method of simply copying the kernel function to a pointer I created with kmalloc but when I try to execute it, I get: kernel tried to execute NX-protected page - exploit attempt? (uid: 0). If anyone can tell me how to kmalloc space and have it marked as executable, that would also help me solve the above problem. Any help is appreciated!

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  • Daemonize() issues on Debian

    - by djTeller
    Hi, I'm currently writing a multi-process client and a multi-treaded server for some project i have. The server is a Daemon. In order to accomplish that, i'm using the following daemonize() code: static void daemonize(void) { pid_t pid, sid; /* already a daemon */ if ( getppid() == 1 ) return; /* Fork off the parent process */ pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* If we got a good PID, then we can exit the parent process. */ if (pid > 0) { exit(EXIT_SUCCESS); } /* At this point we are executing as the child process */ /* Change the file mode mask */ umask(0); /* Create a new SID for the child process */ sid = setsid(); if (sid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Change the current working directory. This prevents the current directory from being locked; hence not being able to remove it. */ if ((chdir("/")) < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Redirect standard files to /dev/null */ freopen( "/dev/null", "r", stdin); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stdout); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stderr); } int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { daemonize(); /* Now we are a daemon -- do the work for which we were paid */ return 0; } I have a strange side effect when testing the server on Debian (Ubuntu). The accept() function always fail to accept connections, the pid returned is -1 I have no idea what causing this, since in RedHat & CentOS it works well. When i remove the call to daemonize(), everything works well on Debian, when i add it back, same accept() error reproduce. I've been monitring the /proc//fd, everything looks good. Something in the daemonize() and the Debian release just doesn't seem to work. (Debian GNU/Linux 5.0, Linux 2.6.26-2-286 #1 SMP) Any idea what causing this? Thank you

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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  • Why does Rails with Passenger/nginx only works in development mode? No logs available

    - by Michael W.
    Hey folks, I have a serious problem with one of our webservers... after having an internal alpha-testing with a mongrel/haproxy-cluster that worked well, we wanted to use nginx with passenger for our first production server (customers will access this server). However, I can only run the rails app via development mode with passenger/nginx. The app itself runs perfect with mongrel or webrick in production mode. My biggest problem with this case is that I don't find ANY information in the nginx or rails-logs (only when I use mongrel or webrick). Permissions are correct. Passenger-status shows that the app is running, but I always get the static 500.html-error page... It would be so nice if you guys could give me a hint and help me solve the problem. I put the config at the bottom of the post... This exact config works with rails_env development;but I'd like to use the production mode ;-) Thank you very much for your help! Version: Ubuntu 8.04.2 64bit / nginx-0.7.64 (compiled and installed via passenger-2.2.11) cat /opt/nginx/conf/nginx.conf user www-data; worker_processes 4; error_log logs/error.log; #pid logs/nginx.pid; events { worker_connections 1024; } http { passenger_root /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.11; passenger_ruby /usr/bin/ruby1.8; passenger_log_level 3; include mime.types; default_type application/octet-stream; #log_format main '$remote_addr - $remote_user [$time_local] "$request" ' # '$status $body_bytes_sent "$http_referer" ' # '"$http_user_agent" "$http_x_forwarded_for"'; access_log logs/access.log; sendfile on; #tcp_nopush on; #keepalive_timeout 0; keepalive_timeout 65; #gzip on; server { listen 80; server_name <<servername>>; root /srv/app01/public; passenger_enabled on; }

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