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  • KeyStore, HttpClient, and HTTPS: Can someone explain this code to me?

    - by stormin986
    I'm trying to understand what's going on in this code. KeyStore trustStore = KeyStore.getInstance(KeyStore.getDefaultType()); FileInputStream instream = new FileInputStream(new File("my.keystore")); try { trustStore.load(instream, "nopassword".toCharArray()); } finally { instream.close(); } SSLSocketFactory socketFactory = new SSLSocketFactory(trustStore); Scheme sch = new Scheme("https", socketFactory, 443); httpclient.getConnectionManager().getSchemeRegistry().register(sch); My Questions: trustStore.load(instream, "nopassword".toCharArray()); is doing what exactly? From reading the documentation load() will load KeyStore data from an input stream (which is just an empty file we just created), using some arbitrary "nopassword". Why not just load it with null as the InputStream parameter and an empty string as the password field? And then what is happening when this empty KeyStore is being passed to the SSLSocketFactory constructor? What's the result of such an operation? Or -- is this simply an example where in a real application you would have to actually put a reference to an existing keystore file / password?

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  • Is a call to the following method considered late binding?

    - by AspOnMyNet
    1) Assume: • B1 defines methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(), where former method is virtual while the latter is non-virtual • B2 derives from B1 • B2 overrides virtualM() • B2 is defined inside assembly A • Application app doesn’t have a reference to assembly A In the following code application app dynamically loads an assembly A, creates an instance of a type B2 and calls methods virtualM() and nonvirtualM(): Assembly a=Assembly.Load(“A”); Type t= a.GetType(“B2”); B1 a = ( B1 ) Activator.CreateInstance ( “t” ); a.virtualM(); a.nonvirtualM(); a) Is call to a.virtualM() considered early binding or late binding? b) I assume a call to a.nonvirtualM() is resolved during compilation time? 2) Does the term late binding refer only to looking up the target method at run time or does it also refer to creating an instance of given type at runtime? thanx EDIT: 1) A a=new A(); a.M(); As far as I know, it is not known at compile time where on the heap (thus at which memory address ) will instance a be created during runtime. Now, with early binding the function calls are replaced with memory addresses during compilation process. But how can compiler replace function call with memory address, if it doesn’t know where on the heap will object a be created during runtime ( here I’m assuming the address of method a.M will also be at same memory location as a )? 2) The method slot is determined at compile time I assume that by method slot you’re referring to the entry point in V-table?

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  • Immutable classes in C++

    - by ereOn
    Hi, In one of my projects, I have some classes that represent entities that cannot change once created, aka. immutable classes. Example : A class RSAKey that represent a RSA key which only has const methods. There is no point changing the existing instance: if you need another one, you just create one. My objects sometimes are heavy and I enforced the use of smart pointers to avoid copy. So far, I have the following pattern for my classes: class RSAKey : public boost::noncopyable, public boost::enable_shared_from_this<RSAKey> { public: /** * \brief Some factory. * \param member A member value. * \return An instance. */ static boost::shared_ptr<const RSAKey> createFromMember(int member); /** * \brief Get a member. * \return The member. */ int getMember() const; private: /** * \brief Constructor. * \param member A member. */ RSAKey(int member); /** * \brief Member. */ const int m_member; }; So you can only get a pointer (well, a smart pointer) to a const RSAKey. To me, it makes sense, because having a non-const reference to the instance is useless (it only has const methods). Do you guys see any issue regarding this pattern ? Are immutable classes something common in C++ or did I just created a monster ? Thank you for your advices !

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  • 1. Get the Current Document Library 2. Create a Folder "MetaFolder" if it's not already present

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... Thanks public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

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  • C# Fun with Generics - Mutual Dependencies

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    As an experiment I'm trying to write a generic MVP framework. I started with: public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView<IPresenter<... { TView View { get; set;} } public interface IView<TPresenter> where TPresenter:IPresenter<IView<... { TPresenter Presenter { get; set; } } Obviously this can't work because the types of TView and TPresenter can't be resolved. You'd be writing Type<Type<... forever. So my next attempt looked like this: public interface IView<T> where T:IPresenter { ... } public interface IView:IView<IPresenter> { } public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView { ... } public interface IPresenter: IPresenter<IView> { ... } This actually compiles and you can even inherit from these interfaces like so: public class MyView : IView, IView<MyPresenter> { ... } public class MyPresenter : IPresenter, IPresenter<MyView> { ... } The problem is in the class definition you have to define any members declared in the generic type twice. Not ideal but it still compiles. The problem's start creeping up when you actually try to access the members of a Presenter from a View or vice versa. You get an Ambiguous reference when you try to compile. Is there any way to avoid this double implementation of a member when you inherit from both interfaces? Is it even possible to resolve two mutually dependent generic types at compile time?

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  • Skip HTML escape in custom label_tag helper in Rail 3

    - by tricote
    Hi, I have this nice class ErrorFormBuilder that allows me to add the error description near the corresponding field in the form view : class ErrorFormBuilder < ActionView::Helpers::FormBuilder #Adds error message directly inline to a form label #Accepts all the options normall passed to form.label as well as: # :hide_errors - true if you don't want errors displayed on this label # :additional_text - Will add additional text after the error message or after the label if no errors def label(method, text = nil, options = {}) #Check to see if text for this label has been supplied and humanize the field name if not. text = text || method.to_s.humanize #Get a reference to the model object object = @template.instance_variable_get("@#{@object_name}") #Make sure we have an object and we're not told to hide errors for this label unless object.nil? || options[:hide_errors] #Check if there are any errors for this field in the model errors = object.errors.on(method.to_sym) if errors #Generate the label using the text as well as the error message wrapped in a span with error class text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" end end #Add any additional text that might be needed on the label text += " #{options[:additional_text]}" if options[:additional_text] #Finally hand off to super to deal with the display of the label super(method, text, options) end end But the HTML : text += " <br/><span class=\"error\">#{errors.is_a?(Array) ? errors.first : errors}</span>" is escaped by default in the view... I tried to add the {:escape = false} option : super(method, text, options.merge({:escape => false})) without success Is there any way to bypass this behavior ? Thanks

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  • How to create TestContext for Spring Test?

    - by HDave
    Newcomer to Spring here, so pardon me if this is a stupid question. I have a relatively small Java library that implements a few dozen beans (no database or GUI). I have created a Spring Bean configuration file that other Java projects use to inject my beans into their stuff. I am now for the first time trying to use Spring Test to inject some of these beans into my junit test classes (rather than simply instantiating them). I am doing this partly to learn Spring Test and partly to force the tests to use the same bean configuration file I provide for others. In the Spring documentation is says I need to create an application context using the "TestContext" class that comes with Spring. I believe this should be done in a spring XML file that I reference via the @ContextConfiguration annotation on my test class. @ContextConfiguration({"/test-applicationContext.xml"}) However, there is no hint as to what to put in the file! When I go to run my tests from within Eclipse it errors out saying "failed to load Application Context"....of course.

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  • How should I name a native DLL distributed in both 32-bit and 64-bit form?

    - by Spike0xff
    I have a commercial product that's a DLL (native 32-bit code), and now it's time to build a 64-bit version of it. So when installing on 64-bit Windows, the 32-bit version goes into Windows\SysWOW64, and the 64-bit version goes into... Windows\System32! (I'm biting my tongue here...) Or the DLL(s) can be installed alongside the client application. What should I name the 64-bit DLL? Same name as 32-bit: Two files that do the same thing, have the same name, but are totally non-interchangeable. Isn't that a recipe for confusion and support problems? Different names (e.g. product.dll and product64.dll): Now client applications have to know whether they are running 32-bit or 64-bit in order to reference my DLL, and there are languages where that isn't known until run-time - .NET being just one example. And now all the statically compiled clients have to conditionalize the import declarations: IF target=WIN64 THEN import Blah from "product64.dll" ELSE import Blah from "product.dll" ENDIF The product contains massive amounts of C code, and a large chunk of C++ - porting it to C# is not an option. Advice? Suggestions?

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  • How do I format the contents of a DataGrid cell as a Date? as Currency?

    - by Ben McCormack
    I have a Silverlight DataGrid that's being populated with different types of data for each column. I'm trying to figure out how to format some of the contents of the DataGrid's cells, specifically for dates and formatting. I have a date column that's currently displaying like: 3/11/2010 12:00:00 AM. I would rather it display like 3/14/2010. I have a number column that's currently displaying like: 51.32. I'd rather it display as currency like $51.32. I'm not sure how I can go about doing this. I'd prefer to do it in XAML instead of C#, but both solutions are fine. For reference, here's my XAML so far: </data:DataGridTextColumn> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Payee" Binding="{Binding Payee}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Category" Binding="{Binding Category}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Memo" Binding="{Binding Memo}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Inflow" Binding="{Binding Inflow}"/> <data:DataGridTextColumn Header="Outflow" Binding="{Binding Outflow}"/> </data:DataGrid.Columns>

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  • Entity Framework in layered architecture

    - by Kamyar
    I am using a layered architecture with the Entity Framework. Here's What I came up with till now (All the projects Except UI are class library): Entities: The POCO Entities. Completely persistence ignorant. No Reference to other projects. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. DAL: The EDMX (Entity Model) file with the context class. (t4 generated). References: Entities BLL: Business Logic Layer. Will implement repository pattern on this layer. References: Entities, DAL. This is where the objectcontext gets populated: var ctx=new DAL.MyDBEntities(); UI: The presentation layer: ASP.NET website. References: Entities, BLL + a connection string entry to entities in the config file (question #2). Now my three questions: Is my layer discintion approach correct? In my UI, I access BLL as follows: var customerRep = new BLL.CustomerRepository(); var Customer = customerRep.GetByID(myCustomerID); The problem is that I have to define the entities connection string in my UI's web.config/app.config otherwise I get a runtime exception. IS defining the entities connectionstring in UI spoils the layers' distinction? Or is it accesptible in a muli layered architecture. Should I take any additional steps to perform chage tracking, lazy loading, etc (by etc I mean the features that Entity Framework covers in a conventional, 1 project, non POCO code generation)? Thanks and apologies for the lengthy question.

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  • Getting auth token for dropbox account from accountmanager in android

    - by user1490880
    I am trying to get auth token for a dropbox account configured in device from account manager. I am using accountManager.getAuthToken(account, "DROPBOX",null,Hello.this, new GetAuthTokenCallback(), null);//account" is dropbox account I am seeing a Allow/Deny page. I click on Allow, but the callback is not getting invoked at all and i dont get the auth token. I got the authtoken for a google account with this(with a different authtokentype). What i am missing. I am not sure about the authTokenType parameter for dropbox. Also are there any other parameter specific for dropbox like the bundle parameter that i am missing. Is this way possible for dropbox? Check below for the function parameters public AccountManagerFuture<Bundle> getAuthToken (Account account, String authTokenType, Bundle options, Activity activity, AccountManagerCallback<Bundle> callback, Handler handler) Link: http://developer.android.com/reference/android/accounts/AccountManager.html UPDATE I assume since we are able to create a dropbox account in android Accounts and Sync(Settings), there must be a dropbox authenticator that has all the functions in AbstractAccountAuthenticator implemented including getAuthToken(). So dropbox should support giving auth token i think. Also dropbox uses oauth1, whereas account manager uses outh 2.0. So is this an issue.Can anyone comment on this?

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  • C# Configuration Manager . ConnectionStrings

    - by Yoda
    I have a console app containing an application configuration file containing one connection string as shown below: <configuration> <connectionStrings> <add name="Target" connectionString="server=MYSERVER; Database=MYDB; Integrated Security=SSPI;" /> </connectionStrings> </configuration> When I pass this to my Connection using: ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[1].ToString() I have two values in there, hence using the second in the collection, my question is where is this second coming from? I have checked the Bin version and original and its not mine! Its obviously a system generated one but I have not seen this before? Can anyone enlighten me? The mystery connection string is: data source=.\SQLEXPRESS;Integrated Security=SSPI;AttachDBFilename=|DataDirectory|aspnetdb.mdf;User Instance=true This isn't a problem as such I would just like to know why this is occuring? Thanks in advance! For future reference to those who may or may not stumble on this, after discovering the machine.config its become apparent it is bad practice to refer to a config by its index as each stack will potentially be different, which is why "Keys" are used. Cheers all!

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  • How to use html.grid control in spark view for asp.net mvc?

    - by Anusha
    class person() { public int Id{get;set;} public string Name{get;set;} } HomeController.cs ActionResult Index() { IList list=new[]{ new person { Id = 1, Name = "Name1" }, new person { Id = 2, Name = "Name2" }, new person { Id = 3, Name = "Name3" } }; ViewData["mygrid"]=list; return view(); } Home\Index.spark !{Html.Grid[[person]]("mygrid", (column=>{ column.For(c=>c.Id); column.For(c=>c.Name); })) Am getting the error Dynamic view compilation failed..error CS1501: No overload for method 'Grid' takes '2' arguments. I have added reference to MvcContrib.dll And added following namespace in the _global.spark file <use namespace="MvcContrib.UI"/> <use namespace="MvcContrib.UI.Grid"/> <use namespace="MvcContrib.UI.Pager"/> <use namespace="MvcContrib.UI.Grid.ActionSyntax"/> <use namespace="Microsoft.Web.Mvc.Controls"/> I want to bind the data to my grid in spark view.Can anybody help.

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  • DataGridView with row-specific DataGridViewComboBoxColumn contents in C# Windows Forms 3.5

    - by XXXXX
    So I have something like the following data structure (constructors omitted) class Child { public string Name { get; set; } public int Age { get; set; } } class Parent { public string Name { get; set; } public List <Child> Children { get; private set; } // never null; list never empty public Child FavoriteChild { get; set; } // never null; always a reference to a Child in Children } List < Parent > Parents; What I want to do is show a DataGridView where each row is a Parent from Parent list. Each row should have two columns: a text box showing the parent's name and a DataGridViewComboBoxColumn containing that parent's children, from which the user can select the parent's favorite child. I suppose I could do the whole thing manually, but I'd like to do all this with more-or-less standard Data Binding. It's easy enough to bind the DataGridView to the list of parents, and easy enough to bind the selected child to the FavoriteChild property. The part that's giving me difficulty is that it looks like the Combo Box column wants to bind to one data source for all the combo-box's contents on all rows. I'd like each instance of the combo box to bind to the list of each parent's children. I'm fairly new to C#/Windows Forms, so I may well be missing something obvious. Or it could be that "you can't get there from here." It's not too tough to make a separate list of all the children and filter it by parent; I'm looking into that possibility right now. Is this feasible, or is there a better way?

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  • Fix hard-coded display setting without source (24-bit, need 32-bit)

    - by FerretallicA
    I wrote a program about 10 years ago in Visual Basic 6 which was basically a full-screen game similar to Breakout / Arkanoid but had 'demoscene'-style backgrounds. I found the program, but not the source code. Back then I hard-coded the display mode to 800x600x24, and the program crashes whenever I try to run it as a result. No virtual machine seems to support 24-bit display when the host display mode is 16/32-bit. It uses DirectX 7 so DOSBox is no use. I've tried all sorts of decompiler and at best they give me the form names and a bunch of assembly calls which mean nothing to me. The display mode setting was a DirectX 7 call but there's no clear reference to it in the decompilation. In this situation, is there any pointers on how I can: pin-point the function call in the program which is setting the display mode to 800x600x24 (ResHacker maybe?) and change the value being passed to it so it sets 800x600x32 view/intercept DirectX calls being made while it's running or if that's not possible, at least run the program in an environment that emulates a 24-bit display I don't need to recover the source code (as nice as it would be) so much as just want to get it running.

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  • File Enumeration with ANT

    - by 1ndivisible
    I feel like I'm missing something obvious at the moment. I want to collect a set of dirs / files together in ANT. I know I can do it using a fileset with an optional patternset inside it, but that involves searching for files based a specific criterior - filetype, name etc. I already know the paths to the files I want to collect. I have n properties which reference these paths. I want a way to collect these paths in a fileset, though I cannot find a way to do it. This represents what I want to achieve (I know it isn't valid code, but hopefully it will describe what I mean): <fileset> <path>${src.dir}</path> <path>${test.dir}</path> <path>${third.party.src.dir}</path> <path>${bin.dir}</path> <path>${docs.build.txt}</path> </fileset>

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  • Why ntp settle time toe long?

    - by fercis
    I simply try to set-up NTP to my system. Both server and clients will run on my computer which are linked together with local link. One of them will have the reference clock. Both the server and Client are linux Ubuntu. I install ntp daemon to both sides. In clients, I enter the ip address of the server to /etc/ntp.conf. Everything works fine. However, the setting of the time to correct time in client side takes too long time (around 17 minutes). Is it possible to gather correct time just at startup. I write some code that regularly calls "ntpdate " by system call and the problem is solved but there has to be something that allows me to decrease the poll time of the client to 1-2 minutes. There are some settings as maxpoll - minpoll in ntp.conf, but I couldn't manage to understand their function, because with the best configuration (minpoll 4? 16 seconds?) I also cannot see that client side corrects its time before 10 minutes. In addition, in some cases my client is an embedded system (ARM - IGEP board) and it always opens with an irrelevant date (2-3 years ago). So the time that takes to correct the time should not depend on the time difference also.

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  • xml to hashmap - php

    - by csU
    Hi, Given an xml structure like this <gesmes:Envelope> <gesmes:subject>Reference rates</gesmes:subject> <gesmes:Sender> <gesmes:name>European Central Bank</gesmes:name> </gesmes:Sender> <Cube> <Cube time="2010-03-26"> <Cube currency="USD" rate="1.3353"/> <Cube currency="JPY" rate="124.00"/> <Cube currency="BGN" rate="1.9558"/> <Cube currency="CZK" rate="25.418"/> ... ... </Cube> </Cube> </gesmes:Envelope> how can i go about getting the values stored in to a hashmap or similar structure in php? Have been trying to do this for the last few hours now but cant manage it :D It is homework so i guess no full solutuins please( tho the actual assignment is to use the web services, i am just stuck with parsing it :D ). Maybe someone could show me a brief example for a made up xml file that i could apply to mine? Thanks

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  • one table is shared between several websites

    - by sami
    I have a static table that's shared by several websites. By static, I mean that the data is read but never updated by the websites. Currently, all websites are served from the same server but that may change. I want to minimize the need for creating/maintaining this table for each of the websites, so I thought about turning it to an xml file that's stored in a shared library that all websites have access to. The problem is I use an ORM and use forign key constraints to ensure integrity of the ids used from that table, so by removing that table out of the MySQL database into an XML file, will this affect the integrity of the ids coming from that table? My table looks like this <table name="entry"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="title" type="VARCHAR" size="500" required="true" /> </table> and I use it as a foreign key in other tables <table name="refer"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="linkto" type="INTEGER"/> <foreign-key foreignTable="entry"> <reference local="linkto" foreign="id" /> </foreign-key> </table> So I'm wondering if I remove that table out of the database, is there a way to retain that referential integrity? And of course are these any other efficient ways to do the same thing? I just don't want to have to repeat that table for several websites.

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  • Loading a helper elsewhere than the autoload.php?

    - by drpcken
    I inherited a project and I'm cleaning up a bit and trying to finish it. I noticed that they used (or wrote) a breadcrumb helper. It is in my helpers folder and is named breadcrumb_helper.php It has a single function to build a breadcrumb menu with links and pass it to the view breadcrumbs.php. Here's the code: function show_breadcrumbs() { $ci =& get_instance(); $ci->load->helper('inflector'); $data = ''; //build breadcrumb and store in $data $this->load->view("breadcrumbs", $data) } I was trying to figure out how this helper worked and I checked the autoload.php but there is no reference to the helper in there. In face here is my autoload: $autoload['helper'] = array('url','asset','combine','navigation','form','portfolio','cookie','default'); This show_breadcrumbs() function is used quite a bit in some of my pages so I'm confused as to how its loading if it isn't in the autoloader. It is called like this in a few of my pages: <?=show_breadcrumbs()?> What am I missing? Why isn't this in my autoload? I even did a global search and couldn't find anywhere the helper is being loaded.

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  • StrcutureMap Wiring - Sanity Check Please

    - by Steve Ward
    Hi - Im new to IOC and StructureMap and have an n-level application and am looking at how to setup the wirings (ForRequestedType ...) and just want to check with people with more experience that this is the best way of doing it! I dont want my UI application object to reference my persistence layer directly so am not able to wire everything up in this UI project. I now have it working by defining a Registry class in each project which wires up the types in the project as needed. The layer above registers its types and also calls the assembly below and looks for registries so that all types are registered throught the hierrachy. E.g. I have UI, Service, Domain, and Persistence libraries. In my service layer the registry looks like Scan(x => { x.Assembly("MyPersistenceProject"); x.LookForRegistries(); }); ForRequestedType<IService>().TheDefault.Is.OfConcreteType<MyService>(); Is this a recommended way of doing this in a setup such as this? Are there better ways and what are the advantages / disadvantages of these approaches in this case?

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  • Core Data confusion: fetch without tableview.

    - by Mr. McPepperNuts
    I have completed and reproduced Core Data tutorials using a tableview to display contents. However, I want to access an Entity through a fetch on a view without a tableview. I used the following fetch code, but the count returned is always 0. The data exists when the database is opened using SQLite tools. NSManagedObject *entryObj; XYZDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Quote" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"id" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [request setEntity: entity]; NSArray *results = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:nil]; if (results == nil) { NSLog(@"No results found"); entryObj = nil; }else { NSLog(@"results %d", [results count]); } [request release]; [sortDescriptors release]; count returned is always 0; it should be 5. Can anyone point me to a reference or tutorial regarding creating a controller not to be used with a tableview.

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  • jQuery Checkbox Error

    - by Zack Fernandes
    Hello, I am working on a jQuery-based todo list interface, and have hit a bit of a wall. The jQuery I am working with is a bit hacked together from various tutorials I have read, as I'm a bit of a beginner. $('#todo input:checkbox').click(function(){ var id = this.attr("value"); if(!$(this).is(":checked")) { alert("Starting."); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "/todos/check/"+id, success: function(){ alert("It worked.") } }); } }) This is the HTML I am using, <div id="todo"> <input type="checkbox" checked="yes" value="1"> Hello, world. <br /> </div> Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. For reference, thereason I have alerts in the jQuery is for debugging. The reason I can tell the code isn't working is because I am not getting these alerts. Thanks.

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  • How to use a VB usercontrol on a C# page?

    - by ks78
    Hopefully someone will be able to point me in the right direction. I've created a usercontrol in VB that handles paging more efficiently than the DataPager (at least for very large datasets). I'd like to use it in a C# project, but I've been having trouble getting it to work. I've tried simply adding PagingControl.ascx to the C# project, but when I do that the markup and VB code behind don't seem to see each other. --Is this a namespace issue? I've tried adding the PagingControl.ascx to its own VB project, then adding that project to the C# project's solution, as well as a reference. --That almost works. I can register the PagingControl usercontrol in the markup. I can access the usercontrol's properties in the code behind, but any property that involves the UI of the usercontrol fails. Its seems as if the usercontrol's form hasn't had a chance to load by the time the C# page's Page_Load event handler fires. --Maybe this is an "order of operations" problem? At what point in the C# page's lifetime should a usercontrol's form be loaded? If anyone has any ideas or insight, I'd really appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Problem with jquery #find on partial postback

    - by anonymous
    I have a third party component. It is a calendar control. I have a clientside event on it which fires javascript to show a popup menu. I do everything client side so I can use MVC. dd function MouseDown(oDayView, oEvent, element) { try { e = oEvent.event; var rightClick = (e.button == 2); if (rightClick) { var menu = $find("2_menuSharedCalPopUp"); menu.showAt(200, 200, e); } } catch (err) { alert("MouseDown() err: " + err.description); } } The javascript fires perfectly withe $find intially. I have another clientside method which updates the calendar via a partial postback. Once I have done this all subsequent MouseDowns( rightclicks) which use the $find statment error with 'null'. All similar problems people have out there seem to be around calling javascript after a postback - with solutions being re-registering an event using PageRequestManager or registering a clientside function on the server - et cetera. However, the event is firing, and the javascript working - it's the reference in the DOM that seems an issue. Any ideas?

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