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• Facebook Connect application inside iframe not working in IE7

  - by Antoine Aubry

  I am building a Facebook Connect application that runs inside a Google gadget. Being a gadget means that the application runs inside an iframe. Inside the application, there is a form that allows registered users to post comments. The submission is made using AJAX, but I get the same results with a normal form. The problem is that I need to get the user's facebook id. In Firefox, it works fine, but on Internet Explorer 7, I get the following error: 'A session key is required for calling this method' I believe that this is due to the way IE handles third-party cookies, because if I go to Internet options / Privacy / Advanced, and check Override automatic cookie handling and accept all cookies, it works fine. I cannot pass the Facebook id from the javascript, because anyone could tamper it. EDIT: If I open the content of the iframe directly, the app works fine. The problem is really due to the IFRAME and IE security model. What am I doing something wrong? How can I work around this problem?

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• Binding DataGridComboBoxColumn to a one to many entity framework relation

  - by Cristian

  I have two tables in the model, one table contains entries related to the other table in a one to many relations, for example: Table User ID Name Table Comments ID UserID Title Text I want to show a datagrid in a WPF window with two columns, one text column with the User name and another column with a combobox showing all the comments made by the user. The datagrid definition is like this: <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" [layout options...] Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Name" Binding="{Binding Path=Name}"/> <DataGridComboBoxColumn Header="Comments" SelectedValueBinding="{Binding Path=UserID}" SelectedValuePath="ID" DisplayMemberPath="Title" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Comments}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> in the code I assign the DataContext like this: dataGrid1.DataContext = entities.Users; The entity User has a property named Comments that leads to all the comments made by the user. The queries are returning data and the user names are shown but the combobox is not being filled. May be the approach is totally wrong or I'm just missing a very simple point here, I'm opened to learn better methods to do this. Thanks

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• How to set up Hierarchical Zend Rest Routes?

  - by Kenji Baheux

  With the Zend Framework, I am trying to build routes for a REST api on resources organized in the following pattern: http://example.org/users/ http://example.org/users/234 http://example.org/users/234/items http://example.org/users/234/items/34 How do I set up this with Zend_Rest_Route? Here is how I have setup the route for the users resource (users/:id) in my bootstrap.php file: $this->bootstrap('frontController'); $frontController = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $restRoute = new Zend_Rest_Route($frontController); $frontController->getRouter()->addRoute('default', $restRoute); [As far as I understand, this is a catch all route so users/324/items/34 would results in parameters set as id=324 and items=34 and everything would be mapped to the Users (front module) Model. From there I guess I could just test for the items parameter and retrieve the item #34 for user #324 on a get request.]<=== I just checked it and it doesn't seems to work like that: Acessing /users/234/items/43 and var_dump($this->_getAllParams()); in the get action of the rest controller results in the following output: array(4) { ["controller"]=> string(5) "users" ["action"]=> string(3) "get" [2]=> string(5) "items" ["module"]=> string(7) "default"] } Somehow both ids got lost... Anyone?

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• Removing and adding persistent stores to a core data application

  - by mkko

  I'm using core data on an iPhone application. I have multiple persisntent stores that I'm switching from one to another so that only one of the stores can be active at the time. I have one managed object context and the different persistent stores are similar in data format (sqlite) and share the same managed object model. I'm importing the data to each persistent store from a respective XML file. For the first import everything works fine, but after I remove the imported data (the persistent store and the physical file) and then re-import, core data gives me an error: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'The NSManagedObject with ID:0x3c14e00 <x-coredata://6D14F11E-2EA7-4141-9BE8-53747DE6FCC6/Book/p2> has been invalidated.' This error comes from the save: of NSManagedObjectContext. Before re-importing, i'm removing the persistent store from the persistent store coordinator and removing the physical file, so everything should be as if re-importing was done for the first time. Alos, the objects in managed object context are removed and the context is sent the reset: message (I don't know if this is actually needed). Could some one help me out here? How should the persistent store be switched? I'm basically using the same logic as tutored here: http://blog.sallarp.com/iphone-core-data-uitableview-drill-down/ Thanks in advance.

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• Rails has_and_belongs_to_many relationship question

  - by Kevin Whitaker

  Hello all, I'm sure that this question has been asked somewhere before, as the habtm relationship seems to be very confusing. I have two models, users and promotions. The idea is that a promotion can have many users, and a user can have many promotions. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :promotions end class Promotion < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :users end I also have a promotions_users table/model, with no id of its own. It references user_id and promotions_id class PromotionsUsers < ActiveRecord::Base end So, how do I add a user to a promotion? I've tried something like this: user = User.find(params[:id]) promotion = Promotion.find(params[:promo_id]) promo = user.promotions.new(promo) This results in the following error: NoMethodError: undefined method `stringify_keys!' for #<Promotion:0x10514d420> If I try this line instead: promo= user.promotions.new(promo.id) I get this error: TypeError: can't dup Fixnum I'm sure that there is a very easy solution to my problem, and I'm just not searching for the solution the right way. Thank you for your time, and any help you can provide.

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• PHP Codeigniter Undefined Offset Error

  - by Matt

  Hello, I am building a Codeigniter shopping cart. On the cart details page I have a form input field allowing the user to type in the quantity required of a product, and a submit button to post the information to the update function. When there is just one item in the cart, when updating the quantity everything works as it should. However, when there is more than one item, changing the quantity of an item and clicking submit results in a ‘Undefined Offset 1: error on the following code in the Model (specifically the two lines within the array) : function validate_update_cart() { $total = $this->cart->total_items(); $item = $this->input->post('rowid'); $qty = $this->input->post('qty'); for($i=0;$i < $total;$i++) { $data = array( 'rowid' => $item[$i], 'qty' => $qty[$i] ); $this->cart->update($data); } } This is the View code to which the above refers: <form action="<?php echo base_url(); ?>home/update" method="post"> <div><input type="hidden" name="rowid[]" value="<?php echo $item['rowid']; ?>"/></div> <div><input type="text" name="qty[]" value="<?php echo $item['qty']; ?>" maxlength="2" class="chg-qty"/></div> <div><input type="submit" value="update" class="update-quantity"/></div> </form> And this is the Controller: function update() { $this->products_model->validate_update_cart(); redirect('cart'); } Please can anyone explain why this is happening? Many thanks, Matt

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• Starting out Silverlight 4 design

  - by Fermin

  I come from mainly a web development background (ASP.NET, ASP.NET MVC, XHTML, CSS etc) but have been tasked with creating/designing a Silverlight application. The application is utilising Bing Maps control for Silverlight, this will be contained in a user control and will be the 'main' screen in the system. There will be numerous other user controls on the form that will be used to choose/filter/sort/order the data on the map. I think of it like Visual Studio: the Bing Maps will be like the code editor window and the other controls will be like Solutions Explorer, Find Results etc. (although a lot less of them!) I have read up and I'm comfortable with the data side (RIA-Services) of the application. I've (kinda) got my head around databinding and using a view model to present data and keep the code behind file lite. What I do need some help on is UI design/navigation framework, specifically 2 aspects: How do I best implement a fluid design so that the various user controls which filter the map data can be resized/pinned/unpinned (for example, like the Solution Explorer in VS)? I made a test using a Grid with a GridSplitter control, is this the best way? Would it be best to create a Grid/Gridsplitter with Navigation Frames inside the grid to load the content? Since I have multiple user controls that basically use the same set of data, should I set the dataContext at the highest possible level (e.g. if using a grid with multiple frames, at the Grid level?). Any help, tips, links etc. will be very much appreciated!

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• Can YAML have inheritance?

  - by Jason

  This question involves a lot of symfony but it should be easy enough for someone to follow who only knows YAML and not symfony. My symfony models come from a three-step process: First, I create the tables in MySQL. Second, I run a symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-schema) to convert my table structure into a YAML file. Third, I run another symfony command (symfony doctrine:build-model) to convert the YAML file into PHP code. Here's the problem: there are some tables in the database that I don't want to end up in my symfony code. For example, let's say I have two tables: one called my_table and another called wordpress. The YAML file I end up with might look like this: MyTable: connection: doctrine tableName: my_table Wordpress: connection: doctrine tableName: wordpress That's great except the wordpress table has nothing to do with my symfony models. The result is that every single time I make a change to my database and generate this YAML file, I have to manually remove wordpress. It's annoying! I'd like to be able to create a file called baseConfig.php or something that looks like this: $config = array( 'MyTable' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'my_table', ), 'Wordpress' => array( 'connection' => 'doctrine', 'tableName' => 'wordpress', ), ); And then I could have a separate file called config.php or something where I could make modifications to the base config: unset($config['Wordpress']); So my question is: is there any way to convert YAML into executable PHP code (as opposed to load YAML INTO PHP code like what sfYaml::load() does) to achieve this sort of thing? Or is there maybe some other way to achieve YAML inheritance? Thanks, Jason

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• Is Berkeley DB XML a viable database backend?

  - by w00t

  Apparently, BDB-XML has been around since at least 2003 but I only recently stumbled upon it on Oracle's website: Berkeley DB XML. Here's the blurb: Oracle Berkeley DB XML is an open source, embeddable XML database with XQuery-based access to documents stored in containers and indexed based on their content. Oracle Berkeley DB XML is built on top of Oracle Berkeley DB and inherits its rich features and attributes. Like Oracle Berkeley DB, it runs in process with the application with no need for human administration. Oracle Berkeley DB XML adds a document parser, XML indexer and XQuery engine on top of Oracle Berkeley DB to enable the fastest, most efficient retrieval of data. To me it seems that the underlying ideas are technically sound and probably more mature than the newer document-based DBs like CouchDB or MongoDB. It has support for C, C++, Ruby and Perl, as far as I can determine. It even has HA-capabilities like automatic replication using a master/slave model with automatic election. However, I can't seem to find any projects that use it. Is there something fundamentally wrong with it? Is the license too onerous? Is it too complicated? Why is it not being used?

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• RSpec and stubbing parameters for a named scope

  - by Andy Waite

  I'm try to write a spec for a named scope which is date dependent. The spec: it "should return 6 months of documents" do Date.stub!(:today).and_return(Date.new(2005, 03, 03)) doc_1 = Factory.create(:document, :date => '2005-01-01') Document.past_six_months.should == [doc_1] end The named scope in the Document model: named_scope :past_six_months, :conditions => ['date > ? AND date < ?', Date.today - 6.months, Date.today] The spec fails with an empty array, and the query in test.log shows why: SELECT * FROM "documents" WHERE (date > '2009-11-11' AND date < '2010-05-11') i.e. it appears to be ignoring my stubbed Date method. However, if I use a class method instead of a named scope then it passes: def self.past_six_months find(:all, :conditions => ['date > ? AND date < ?', Date.today - 6.months, Date.today]) end I would rather use the named scope approach but I don't understand why it isn't working.

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• ASP MVC Ajax Controller pattern?

  - by Kevin Won

  My MVC app tends to have a lot of ajax calls (via JQuery.get()). It's sort of bugging me that my controller is littered with many tiny methods that get called via ajax. It seems to me to be sort of breaking the MVC pattern a bit--the controller is now being more of a data access component then a URI router. I refactored so that I have my 'true' controller for a page just performing standard routing responses (returing ActionResponse objects). So a call to /home/ will obviously kick up the HomeController class that will respond in the canonical controller fashion by returning a plain-jane View. I then moved my ajax stuff into a new controller class whose name I'm prefacing with 'Ajax'. So, for example, my page might have three different sections of functionality (say shopping cart or user account). I have an ajax controller for each of these (AjaxCartController, AjaxAccountController). There is really nothing different about moving the ajax call stuff into its own class--it's just to keep things cleaner. on client side obviously the JQuery would then use this new controller thusly: //jquery pseudocode call to specific controller that just handles ajax calls $.get('AjaxAccount/Details'.... (1) is there a better pattern in MVC for responding to ajax calls? (2) It seems to me that the MVC model is a bit leaky when it comes to ajax--it's not really 'controlling' stuff. It just happens to be the best and least painful way of handling ajax calls (or am I ignorant)? In other words, the 'Controller' abstraction doesn't seem to play nice with Ajax (at least from a patterns perspective). Is there something I'm missing?

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• Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

  - by Christophe Herreman

  The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

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• Update table columns bound to NSArrayController

  - by Loz

  Hi, I'm fairly new to the world of bindings in cocoa, and I'm having some troubles (perhaps/probably due to a misunderstanding). I have a singleton that contains an NSMutableArray called plugins, containing objects of class Plugin. It has a method called loadPlugins which adds objects to the plugins array. This may be called at any point. It's been added as an instance in Interface Builder. Also in IB is an NSObjectController, whose content outlet is connected to the singleton. There is also an NSArrayController, whose contentArray is bound to the NSObjectController (controller key is 'selection', model key path is 'plugins', object class name is 'Plugin'). And finally I have a table view with 2 columns, the values of which are bound to the NSArrayController's arrangedObjects, using keys of properties in the Plugin class. So far so standard (as far as I can tell from tutorials at least). My trouble is that when the loadPlugins method is called in the singleton, and objects are added to the plugins array, the table doesn't update to show the objects (unless loadPlugins is called before the nib is loaded). -reloadData called on the tableView doesn't do anything. Is there a way to tell the NSArrayController that the referenced array has been updated? I understand there is the -add: method for NSArrayController, which could be used in the loadPlugins, but this isn't desirable as I want to keep the singleton totally separate from the display aspect. This seems related to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1623396/refresh-cocoa-binding-nsarraycontroller-combobox The line: "editing the array behind the controller's back" seems to perhaps pinpoint the problem, but I would hope that it would be possible to have the singleton not know about the controller. Thanks in advance.

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• Unable to access a primitive array inside a custom class from a UIViewController instance

  - by Daniel

  Hello! I have made a subclass of NSObject that is meant to be the model of my application. The class has a few methods and on instance primitive array as such: @interface Cube : NSObject { int cubeState[5][2][2]; } - (id)printContent; @end @implementation Cube - (void)init { if (self = [super init]) { for (int i=0; i<=5; i++) { for (int j=0; j<=2; j++) { for (int k=0; k<=2; k++) { cubeState[i][j][k] = i; } } } } return self; } - (void)printContent { for (int i=0; i<=5; i++) { for (int j=0; j<=2; j++) { for (int k=0; k<=2; k++) { NSLog(@"[%d] [%d] [%d] = %d", i, j, k, cubeState[i][j][k]); } } } } @end This works fine if instanciated from the delegate as such: #include "Cube.h" @implementation CubeAppDelegate @synthesize window; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { Cube *cube = [[Cube alloc] init]; [cube printContent]; [cube release]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } However, the application crashes if I try to create a subclass of UIViewController with a Cube *cube property and later try to access the Cube instance object through the view controller's property as such: @interface CustomController : UIViewController { Cube *cube; } @property (nonatomic, retain) Cube *cube; @end @implementation CustomController @synthesize cube; - (void)dealloc { [cube release]; [super dealloc]; } @end and in the delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { viewController = [[CustomController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; viewController.cube = [[[Cube alloc] init] autorelease]; [viewController.cube printContent]; // Application crashes here } Any ideas?

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• Front End Developer v/s PHP-MySQL Engineer

  - by user301943

  Hello, I want to decide which of this would be a more viable career option? I am ready to quit my current job and hence I am looking for new opportunity. Current job is maintainence and no more active development. My current role is of a PHP/MySQL Developer. I very well understand web-programming and am comfortable with RoR/Sinatra/Zend MVC/JQuery/JSON manipulation, etc. I understand MySQL InnoDB/MyISAM engine and how one differs from the other, etc. Basically, I could very well manage the deployment of a web-application end-to-end including configuration of Apache/Nginx servers, memcache,etc On the other hand, I am being offered a Sr.Front End Web developer that would require me to extensively write HTML/CSS crossbrowser/crossplatform compliant code. I very well understand XHTML/CSS/Box model etc. I would be working on Drupal for the management of websites. While I understand continuing to work on server-side technologies would always be a good career path, how would the role of Core front-end developer turn out to be? If I take this opportunity, will I eventually get a chance to focus onto UCD, HCI, Information Architect,etc. So are these kinda roles possible if I focus on front end development? No offenses to the Front end developers, just want to understand if this is something I want to gain a mastery over. I have 2 yrs of industry experience after graduating with a MS-Computer Science. Although, I have a CS degree, if I were to take uip serious front-end role; I could probably go back and take up some design/HCI/UI courses. Please advise.

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• How to use class_eval <<-"end_eval" in Ruby? Not parsing correctly

  - by viatropos

  I would like to define dynamic methods based on some options people give when instantiating it. So in their AR model, they'd do something like this: acts_as_something :class_name => "CustomClass" I'm trying to implement that like so: module MyModule def self.included(base) as = Config.class_name.underscore foreign_key = "#{as}_id" # 1 - class eval, throws these errors # ~/test-project/helpers/form.rb:45: syntax error, unexpected $undefined # @ ||= MyForm.new( # ^ # ~/test-project/helpers/form.rb:46: syntax error, unexpected ',' #~/test-project/helpers/form.rb:48: syntax error, unexpected ')', # expecting kEND from ~/test-project/helpers.rb:12:in `include' base.class_eval <<-"end_eval", __FILE__, __LINE__ attr_accessor :#{as} def #{as} @#{as} ||= MyForm.new( :id => self.#{foreign_key}, :title => self.title ) @#{as} end end_eval end end But it's throwing a bunch of errors I've printed in the comments. Am I using this incorrectly? What are some better ways I can define dynamic method names and dynamic names inside the method like this? I see people use this often instead of define_method (see these classes in resource_controller and couchrest toward the bottom). What I missing here? Thanks for the help

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• Paperclip wont save image in rails app

  - by Micke

  Hello stackoverflow. I am trying to use Paperclip with my rails app to add an avatar to a user but it wont save my image when creating the user. This is what the model looks like: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :avatar And the registerform in haml: - form_for :user, @user, :url => { :action => "signup" }, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| ... ... %li %div{:class => "header"} Profilepicture %div{:class => "input"} = f.file_field :avatar And when i look in the log this is what is being passet to the "signup" action: Parameters: {"commit"=>"Save", "action"=>"signup", "controller"=>"user/register", "user"=>{"name"=>"Micke Lisinge", "birthmonth"=>"07", "password_confirmation"=>"[FILTERED]", "nickname"=>"lisinge", "avatar"=>#<File:/tmp/RackMultipart20100426-3076-1x04oxy-0>, "gen"=>"m", "birthday"=>"23", "password"=>"[FILTERED]", "birthyear"=>"1992", "email"=>"[email protected]"}} [paperclip] Saving attachments. Paperclip says it is saving the template but when i look in the public folder in my app it has created a system but the system folder is empty. So it seems like it isnt saving the picture to the folder. It gets handled by the form and saved in my /tmp folder. Maybe you guys have any tips or know what this problem might be? Thanks in advance, Micke.

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• FindBugs controversal description

  - by Tom Brito

  Am I understanding it wrong, or is the description wrong? Equals checks for noncompatible operand (EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS) This equals method is checking to see if the argument is some incompatible type (i.e., a class that is neither a supertype nor subtype of the class that defines the equals method). For example, the Foo class might have an equals method that looks like: public boolean equals(Object o) { if (o instanceof Foo) return name.equals(((Foo)o).name); else if (o instanceof String) return name.equals(o); else return false; This is considered bad practice, as it makes it very hard to implement an equals method that is symmetric and transitive. Without those properties, very unexpected behavoirs are possible. From: http://findbugs.sourceforge.net/bugDescriptions.html#EQ_CHECK_FOR_OPERAND_NOT_COMPATIBLE_WITH_THIS The description says that the Foo class might have an aquals method like that, and after it says that "This is considered bad practice". I'm not getting the "right way".. How should the following method be to be right? @Override public boolean equals(Object obj) { if (obj instanceof DefaultTableModel) return model.equals((DefaultTableModel)obj); else return false; }

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• How do you determine subtype of an entity using Inheritance with Entity Framework 4?

  - by KallDrexx

  I am just starting to use the Entity Framework 4 for the first time ever. So far I am liking it but I am a bit confused on how to correctly do inheritance. I am doing a model-first approach, and I have my Person entity with two subtype entities, Employee and Client. EF is correctly using the table per type approach, however I can't seem to figure out how to determine what type of a Person a specific object is. For example, if I do something like var people = from p in entities.Person select p; return people.ToList<Person>(); In my list that I form from this, all I care about is the Id field so i don't want to actually query all the subtype tables (this is a webpage list with links, so all I need is the name and the Id, all in the Persons table). However, I want to form different lists using this one query, one for each type of person (so one list for Clients and another for Employees). The issue is if I have a Person entity, I can't see any way to determine if that entity is a Client or an Employee without querying the Client or Employee tables directly. How can I easily determine the subtype of an entity without performing a bunch of additional database queries?

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• Using T4 templates to add custom code to EF4 generated entities?

  - by David Veeneman

  I am getting started with Entity Framework 4, using model-first development. I am building a simple WPF demo app to learn the framework. My app has two entities, Topic and Note. A Topic is a discussion topic; it has Title, Text, and DateRevised properties. Topic also has a Notes collection property. a Note has DateCreated and Text properties. I have used EF4 to create an EDM and data store for the app. Now I need to add just a bit of intelligence to the entities. For example, the property setter for the Topic.Text property needs to update the Topic.DateRevised property, and a Note needs to set its DateCreated property when it is instantiated--pretty simple stuff. I assume that I can't modify the generated classes directly, because my code would be lost if the entities are re-generated. Is this the sort of thing that I can implement by modifying the T4 template that EF4 uses to generate the entities? In other words, can a T4 template be modified to add my code for performing these tasks to the entities that it generates? Can you refer me to a good tutorial or explanation of how to get started? Most of what I have found so far talks about how to add a tt file to an EDM, so I can do that. What I am looking for is a resource that I can use to get to the next level, assuming that a T4 template can be used to customize generated entities as I have described. Thanks for your help.

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• Fluent NHibernate - Cascade delete a child object when no explicit parent->child relationship exists

  - by John Price

  I've got an application that keeps track of (for the sake of an example) what drinks are available at a given restaurant. My domain model looks like: class Restaurant { public IEnumerable<RestaurantDrink> GetRestaurantDrinks() { ... } //other various properties } class RestaurantDrink { public Restaurant Restaurant { get; set; } public Drink { get; set; } public string DrinkVariety { get; set; } //"fountain drink", "bottled", etc. //other various properties } class Drink { public string Name { get; set; } public string Manufacturer { get; set; } //other various properties } My db schema is (I hope) about what you'd expect; "RestaurantDrinks" is essentially a mapping table between Restaurants and Drinks with some extra properties (like "DrinkVariety" tacked on). Using Fluent NHibernate to set up mappings, I've set up a "HasMany" relationship from Restaurants to RestaurantDrinks that causes the latter to be deleted when its parent Restaurant is deleted. My question is, given that "Drink" does not have any property on it that explicitly references RestaurantDrinks (the relationship only exists in the underlying database), can I set up a mapping that will cause RestaurantDrinks to be deleted if their associated Drink is deleted? Update: I've been trying to set up the mapping from the "RestaurantDrink" end of things using References(x => x.Drink) .Column("DrinkId") .Cascade.All(); But this doesn't seem to work (I still get an FK violation when deleting a Drink).

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• Why would a SQL query JOIN on the same table twice with the same condition?

  - by Scott Leis

  I'm working on changes to a SQL Server v8 database developed by someone else, and have found something that seems (based on my limited SQL knowledge) strange and pointless. One of the views has a query that does a LEFT OUTER JOIN twice on the same table with the same condition. Is there any reason for doing this? The query is below. See the second- and third-last lines that both join the "te_SDE_Survey" table on the "SDE_ID" field. Also note these lines set two different aliases for the table, and both aliases are used in the SELECT part of the query. SELECT vs.SLMS_Code, vs.Retail_Date, vs.TagNo, vs.Rego, vs.Model, vs.Company, vs.AccountType, viqdp.SDE_ID, bd.Debit_Date, isu.Survey_Date, CASE WHEN isu.Q6 IS NOT NULL THEN isu.Q6 ELSE CASE WHEN returned_surveys.survey_date IS NULL THEN CASE WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 IS NULL AND cs.sup2 IS NULL AND cs.sup3 IS NULL AND cs.sup5 IS NULL AND cs.sup8 IS NULL AND cs.sup9 IS NULL) THEN 'E' WHEN (viqdp.expiryDate < getdate() AND cs.sup1 = 'F' AND cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F' AND cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup1 = 'T' THEN 'S' WHEN cs.sup2 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup3 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup5 = 'T' AND (cs.sup8 = 'F' AND cs.sup9 = 'F') THEN 'D' WHEN cs.sup8 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN cs.sup9 = 'T' AND (cs.sup2 = 'F' AND cs.sup3 = 'F' AND cs.sup5 = 'F') THEN 'E' WHEN (cs.sup8 = 'T' OR cs.sup9 = 'T') AND (cs.sup2 = 'T' OR cs.sup3 = 'T' OR cs.sup5 = 'T') THEN 'S' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'pre2008') THEN CASE WHEN (datediff(month, viqdp.generate_date, returned_surveys.survey_date) 1) THEN 'E' END WHEN (tey.survey_expire_method = 'expiryDateColumn') THEN CASE WHEN (returned_surveys.survey_date viqdp.expiryDate) THEN 'E' END END END AS score_or_exclusion_status, CASE WHEN (bd.explanation IS NULL) THEN '' ELSE bd.explanation END AS explanation, tey.te_Year FROM dbo.te_Vehicle_Sale vs INNER JOIN dbo.te_Year tey ON vs.Retail_Date = tey.Start_Date AND vs.Retail_Date <= tey.End_Date LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.Bad_Data bd ON vs.TagNo = bd.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_Vehicle_SDESurvey viqdp ON vs.TagNo = viqdp.TagNo LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey isu ON viqdp.SDE_ID = isu.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Survey returned_surveys ON viqdp.SDE_ID = returned_surveys.SDE_ID LEFT OUTER JOIN dbo.te_SDE_Contact_Suppression cs ON viqdp.SDE_ID = cs.SDE_ID

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• UX question: is better to have "serious delete" or have "trash"

  - by ftrotter

  I am developing an application that allows for a user to manage some individual data points. One of the things that my users will want to do is "delete" but what should that mean? For a web application is it better to present a user with the option to have serious delete or to use a "trash" system? Under "serious delete" (would love to know if there is a better name for this...) you click "delete" and then the user is warned "this is final and tragic action. Once you do this you will not be able to get -insert data point name here- back, even if you are crying..." Then if they click delete... well it truly is gone forever. Under the "trash" model, you never trust that the user really wants to delete... instead you remove the data point from the "main display" and put into a bucket called "the trash". This gets it out of the users way, which is what they usually want, but they can get it back if they make a mistake. Obviously this is the way most operating systems have gone. The advantages of "serious delete" are: Easy to implement Easy to explain to users The disadvantages of "serious delete" are: it can be tragically final sometimes, cats walk on keyboards The advantages of the "trash" system are: user is safe from themselves bulk methods like "delete a bunch at once" make more sense saves support headaches The disadvantages of the "trash" system are": For sensitive data, you create an illusion of destruction users think something is gone, but it is not. Lots of subtle distinctions make implementation more difficult Do you "eventually" delete the contents of the trash? My question is which one is the right design pattern for modern web applications? With enough discussion to justify your answer... Would love to be pointed towards some relevant research. -FT

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• Trouble with data not saving with bindings and shared NSUserDefaults in IB

  - by Chief

  I'm having a bit of a strange issue that I can't quite figure out. I'm somewhat of a n00b to Interface Builder. What I am trying to do seems like it should be simple, but it's not working for some reason. In interface builder I have a preferences window with a simple NSTextField. I have set the value binding to the Shared User Defaults Controller with the controller key "values" and model key "test". I build/run my app and open the preferences window, type some random value into said text field, close the window. Command-Q the app. Then in a shell i do a "defaults read com.xxx.yyy" for my app and the key and value are nowhere to be found. That being said, it seems like the next time I fire up the app and change the value it works but only if I switch focus off of the NSTextField before closing the window. In the documentation for NSUserDefaults it says that the shared controller saves values immediately, am I missing something stupid here? Thanks for any help.

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• Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validation Attribute

  - by Gabe G

  Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

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