Search Results

Search found 18435 results on 738 pages for 'msdn event'.

Page 508/738 | < Previous Page | 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515  | Next Page >

  • Can't obtain reference to EKReminder array retrieved from fetchRemindersMatchingPredicate

    - by Scionwest
    When I create an NSPredicate via EKEventStore predicateForRemindersInCalendars; and pass it to EKEventStore fetchRemindersMatchingPredicate:completion:^ I can loop through the reminders array provided by the completion code block, but when I try to store a reference to the reminders array, or create a copy of the array into a local variable or instance variable, both array's remain empty. The reminders array is never copied to them. This is the method I am using, in the method, I create a predicate, pass it to the event store and then loop through all of the reminders logging their title via NSLog. I can see the reminder titles during runtime thanks to NSLog, but the local arrayOfReminders object is empty. I also try to add each reminder into an instance variable of NSMutableArray, but once I leave the completion code block, the instance variable remains empty. Am I missing something here? Can someone please tell me why I can't grab a reference to all of the reminders for use through-out the app? I am not having any issues at all accessing and storing EKEvents, but for some reason I can't do it with EKReminders. - (void)findAllReminders { NSPredicate *predicate = [self.eventStore predicateForRemindersInCalendars:nil]; __block NSArray *arrayOfReminders = [[NSArray alloc] init]; [self.eventStore fetchRemindersMatchingPredicate:predicate completion:^(NSArray *reminders) { arrayOfReminders = [reminders copy]; //Does not work. for (EKReminder *reminder in reminders) { [self.remindersForTheDay addObject:reminder]; NSLog(@"%@", reminder.title); } }]; //Always = 0; if ([self.remindersForTheDay count]) { NSLog(@"Instance Variable has reminders!"); } //Always = 0; if ([arrayOfReminders count]) { NSLog(@"Local Variable has reminders!"); } } The eventStore getter is where I perform my instantiation and get access to the event store. - (EKEventStore *)eventStore { if (!_eventStore) { _eventStore = [[EKEventStore alloc] init]; //respondsToSelector indicates iOS 6 support. if ([_eventStore respondsToSelector:@selector(requestAccessToEntityType:completion:)]) { //Request access to user calendar [_eventStore requestAccessToEntityType:EKEntityTypeEvent completion:^(BOOL granted, NSError *error) { if (granted) { NSLog(@"iOS 6+ Access to EventStore calendar granted."); } else { NSLog(@"Access to EventStore calendar denied."); } }]; //Request access to user Reminders [_eventStore requestAccessToEntityType:EKEntityTypeReminder completion:^(BOOL granted, NSError *error) { if (granted) { NSLog(@"iOS 6+ Access to EventStore Reminders granted."); } else { NSLog(@"Access to EventStore Reminders denied."); } }]; } else { //iOS 5.x and lower support if Selector is not supported NSLog(@"iOS 5.x < Access to EventStore calendar granted."); } for (EKCalendar *cal in self.calendars) { NSLog(@"Calendar found: %@", cal.title); } [_eventStore reset]; } return _eventStore; } Lastly, just to show that I am initializing my remindersForTheDay instance variable using lazy instantiation. - (NSMutableArray *)remindersForTheDay { if (!_remindersForTheDay) _remindersForTheDay = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; return _remindersForTheDay; } I've read through the Apple documentation and it doesn't provide any explanation that I can find to answer this. I read through the Blocks Programming docs and it states that you can access local and instance variables without issues from within a block, but for some reason, the above code does not work. Any help would be greatly appreciated, I've scoured Google for answers but have yet to get this figured out. Thanks everyone! Johnathon.

    Read the article

  • FindByIdentity in System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagment Memory Issues

    - by MVC Fanatic
    I'm working on an active directory managament application. In addition to the typical Create A New User, Enable/Disable an account, reset my password etc. it also managages application permissions for all of the clients web applications. Application management is handled by thousands of AD groups such as which are built from 3 letter codes for the application, section and site, there are also hundreds of AD groups which determine which applications and locations a coordinator can grant rights to. All of these groups in turn belong to other groups so I typically filter the groups list with the MemberOf property to find the groups that a user directly belongs to (or everyone has rights to do everything). I've made extensive use of the System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagment namespace using the FindByIdentity method in 31 places throughout the application. This method calls a private method FindPrincipalByIdentRefHelper on the internal ADStoreCtx class. A SearchResultCollection is created but not disposed so eventually typically once or twice a day the web server runs out of memory and all of the applications on the web server stop responsing until iis is reset because the resources used by the com objects aren't ever relased. There are places where I fall back to the underlying directory objects, but there are lot of places where I'm using the properties on the Principal - it's a vast improvement over using the esoteric ad property names in the .Net 2.0 Directory services code. I've contacted microsoft about the problem and it's been fixed in .Net 4.0 but they don't currently have plans to fix it in 3.5 unless there is intrest in the community about it. I only found information about it in a couple of places the MDSN documentation in the community content state's there is a memory leak at the bottom (guess I should have read that before using the the method) http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb345628.aspx And the class in question is internal and doesn't expose SearchResultsCollection outside the offending method so I can't get at the results to dispose them or inherit from the class and override the method. So my questions are Has anyone else encountered this problem? If so were you able to work around it? Do I have any option besides rewriting the application not using any of the .Net 3.5 active directory code? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Sharepoint.OpenDocuments Control Compatible with Forms Authentication?

    - by Richard Collette
    We are using the Sharepoint.OpenDocuments.EditDocument2 ActiveX control and method. The method is being called from JavaScript in an IE6 client on a Windows XP SP3 client (fully patched). The server is running IIS6 on Windows Server 2003 SP1 Fronting the IIS server is Tivoli Access Manager (TAM) which proxies access to the web applications sitting behind it. Similar to forms authentication, it creates a session cookie for authentication purposes, that must be present for the HTTP request to reach the IIS server. In front of TAM is an F5/BigIP load balancer and SSL encryption offloader, which enforces that incoming requests use the HTTPS protocol. What is happening is that HTTP requests issued by this control do not contain any session cookies that were present in the browser. It drops the ASP.NET session cookie, the ASP.NET forms authentication cookie and the TAM cookie Because the TAM cookie is missing the request is redirected to the TAM login page, which then shows up via HTML conversion in Word or Excel. The API documentation at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms440037.aspx mentions nothing about security or appropriate usage scenarios for this control. Should these controls work in an ASP.Net Forms Authentication scenario or are they only supported with Windows Authentication. If Forms Authentication is supposed to function, how do we get the control to include the necessary session cookies in its requests?

    Read the article

  • How does one use OpenFileDialog in C# in visual Studio 2010

    - by xarzu
    I have written a custom dialog (form) that I can use in a C# program that behaves much like a "File - Open" menu command and brings up a window where a user can select a file or directory. The question I have is this. It has "My Computer" as its root. How can I have it so that it searches on a Network? If the file or directory is located on a network. Or better yet, in Visual Studio 2010, is there some sort of canned FileOpenDialog that I can use right away? I tried calling the OpenFileDialog as described in the example code at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.forms.openfiledialog.aspx but the compiler does not seem to like DialogResult.OK as used in this line of code: if(openFileDialog1.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) The compiler says: Error 1 'System.Nullable' does not contain a definition for 'OK' and no extension method 'OK' accepting a first argument of type 'System.Nullable' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) I tried using the namespace Microsoft.Win32 instead of System.Windows.Forms and neither worked. They both produced this error.

    Read the article

  • Sharing session state between 2 ASP.NET applications using SQL Server

    - by Dave
    Hi I'm working on a site that has a requirement to share session between a cms application and an online store application on the same domain eg. mydomain.com and store.mydomain.com I've made some progress with it and it works on my local build between localhost/cms and localhost/store Basically I have done what is suggested in this article http://blogs.msdn.com/toddca/archive/2007/01/25/sharing-asp-net-session-state-across-applications.aspx and hacked the TempGetAppID Stored Procedure to return the same application id (1). This appears to work as it creates sessions with ids like 'abv5d2urx1asscfwuzw3wp4500000001', which is what I'd expect. My issue is that when I deploy it to our testing environment, it creates a new session when I navigate between the 2 sites. So when I start a session on the cms site, if I navigate to the store, it creates a new session. These are set up as 2 different websites in IIS7. In the web.config files for both sites, the and elements are both the same and are as follows (minus sensitive information) Has anyone got an ideas why this might not be working? I am sharing Forms Authentication across the 2 sites and that works fine. Any help or ideas would be greatly appreciated! Many thanks Dave

    Read the article

  • Why can't I reference child entities with part of the parent entities composite key

    - by tigermain
    I am trying to reference some child entities with part of the parents composite key not all of it, why cant I? This happens when I use the following mapping instead of that which is commented. I get the following error Foreign key in table VolatileEventContent must have same number of columns as referenced primary key in table LocationSearchView <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="JeanieMaster.Domain.Entities" assembly="JeanieMaster.Domain"> <class name="LocationSearchView" table="LocationSearchView"> <composite-id> <key-property name="LocationId" type="Int32"></key-property> <key-property name="ContentProviderId" type="Int32"></key-property> <key-property name="CategoryId" type="Int32"></key-property> </composite-id> <property name="CompanyName" type="String" not-null="true" update="false" insert="false"/> <property name="Description" type="String" not-null="true" update="false" insert="false"/> <property name="CategoryId" type="Int32" not-null="true" update="false" insert="false"/> <property name="ContentProviderId" type="Int32" not-null="true" update="false" insert="false"/> <property name="LocationId" type="Int32" not-null="true" update="false" insert="false"/> <property name="Latitude" type="Double" update="false" insert="false" /> <property name="Longitude" type="Double" update="false" insert="false" /> <bag name="Events" table="VolatileEventContent" where="DeactivatedOn IS NULL" order-by="StartDate DESC" lazy="false" cascade="none"> <key> <column name="LocationId"></column> <column name="ContentProviderId"></column> <!--<column name="LocationId"></column> <column name="ContentProviderId"></column> <column name="CategoryId"></column>--> </key> <one-to-many class="Event" column="VolatileEventContentId"></one-to-many> </bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> And VolatileEventContent mapping file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="JeanieMaster.Domain.Entities" assembly="JeanieMaster.Domain"> <class name="Event" table="VolatileEventContent" select-before-update="false" optimistic-lock="none"> <composite-id> <key-property name="LocationId" type="Int32"></key-property> <key-property name="ContentProviderId" type="Int32"></key-property> </composite-id> <property name="Description" type="String" not-null="true" update="false" insert="false"/> <property name="StartDate" type="DateTime" not-null="true" update="false" insert="false" /> <property name="EndDate" type="DateTime" not-null="true" update="false" insert="false" /> <property name="CreatedOn" type="DateTime" not-null="true" update="false" insert="false" /> <property name="ModifiedOn" type="DateTime" not-null="false" update="false" insert="false" /> <many-to-one name="Location" class="Location" column="LocationId" /> <bag name="Artistes" table="EventArtiste" lazy="false" cascade="none"> <key name="VolatileEventContentId" /> <many-to-many class="Artiste" column="ArtisteId" ></many-to-many> </bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

    Read the article

  • DotNetOpenAuth OpenID on ISA 2006 Reverse Proxy problem

    - by userb00
    I am trying to host my site that uses DotNetOpenAuth (OpenID) behind ISA 2006 (reverse proxy), and after it authenticated with a provider (such as Google), and it returns with a URL with %253A in the URL. However, ISA HTTP filter rejects the request. What I need to do is, on ISA web publishing rule, right click config HTTP policy properties uncheck "Verify Normalization" and it worked. Is this a problem on ISA 2006 generally? Are other firewalls having similar problems? Or, is it an OpenID or DotNetOpenAuth issue? Is it safe to disable Normalization checking on ISA? According to MSDN, quote "Web servers receive requests that are URL encoded. This means that certain characters may be replaced with a percent sign (%) followed by a particular number. For example, %20 corresponds to a space, so a request for http://myserver/My%20Dir/My%20File.htm is the same as a request for http://myserver/My Dir/My File.htm. Normalization is the process of decoding URL-encoded requests. Because the % can be URL encoded, an attacker can submit a carefully crafted request to a server that is basically double-encoded. If this occurs, Internet Information Services (IIS) may accept a request that it would otherwise reject as not valid. When you select Verify Normalization, the HTTP filter normalizes the URL two times. If the URL after the first normalization is different from the URL after the second normalization, the filter rejects the request. This prevents attacks that rely on double-encoded requests. Note that while we recommend that you use the Verify Normalization function, it may also block legitimate requests that contain a %."

    Read the article

  • storing user info/pass in web.config authentication

    - by Tomaszewski
    Hello, I am trying to write a simple internal app with some simple authentication. I'm also trying to make this quick and learn about the forms authentication via web.config. So i have my authentication working if I hard code my 'user name' and 'password' into C# code and do a simple conditional. However, I'm having a tough time storing the a user/pass to be checked against in the web.config file. The MSDN manual says to put this into the web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="login.aspx"> <credentials passwordFormat="SHA1"> <user name="user1" password="27CE4CA7FBF00685AF2F617E3F5BBCAFF7B7403C" /> <user name="user2" password="D108F80936F78DFDD333141EBC985B0233A30C7A" /> <user name="user3" password="7BDB09781A3F23885CD43177C0508B375CB1B7E9"/> </credentials> </forms> </authentication> However, the minute I add 'credentials' into the 'authentication' section, I get this error: Server Error in '/' Application. Configuration Error Description: An error occurred during the processing of a configuration file required to service this request. Please review the specific error details below and modify your configuration file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Unrecognized element 'credentials'. Source Error: Line 44: <authentication mode="Forms"> Line 45: <forms loginUrl="login.aspx" /> Line 46: <credentials> Line 47: Line 48: </credentials> Source File: C:\inetpub\wwwroot\asp\projects\passwordCatalog\passwordCatalog\web.config Line: 46 So my question is, how and where would I add the following in the web.config file? <credentials passwordFormat="SHA1"> <user name="johndoe" password="mypass123" /> </credentials>

    Read the article

  • HttpWebRequest: The request was aborted: The request was canceled.

    - by Emeka
    I've been working on developing a middle man application of sorts, which uploads text to a CMS backend using HTTP post requests for a series of dates (usually 7 at a time). I am using HttpWebRequest to accomplish this. It seems to work fine for the first date, but when it starts the second date I get the System.Net.WebException: The request was aborted: The request was canceled. I've searched around and found the following big clues: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/netfxnetcom/thread/0d0afe40-c62a-4089-9d8b-fb4d206434dc http://www.jaxidian.org/update/2007/05/05/8 http://arnosoftwaredev.blogspot.com/2006/09/net-20-httpwebrequestkeepalive-and.html And they haven't been too helpful. I've tried overloading the GetWebReuqest but that doesn't make sense because I don't make any use of that function. Here is my code: http://pastebin.org/115268 I get the error on line 245 after it has run successfully at least once. I'd appreciate any help I can get as this is the last step in a project I've been working on for sometime. This is my first C#/VS project so I'm open to any tips but I would like to focus on getting this problem solved first. THanks!

    Read the article

  • How to fix width of DIV that contains floated elements?

    - by joe
    I have a DIV container with several inner DIVs layed out by floating them all left. The inner DIVs may change width on certain events, and the containing DIV adjusts accordingly. I use float:left in the container to keep it shrunk to the width of the inner divs. I use float:left in the inner divs so the layout is clean even when their contents change. The catch is that I want the DIV container width and height to remain constant, UNLESS a particular event causes a change to the inner widths. Conceptually I want to use float on the inners for the layout benefit, but then I want to "fix" them so they don't float around. So if the container is 700px wide, I want it to remain so even if the user narrows the browser window. I'd like the container, and it's internal DIVs to just be clipped by the browser window. I sense this can all be done nicely in CSS, I just can't quite figure out how. I'm not averse to adding another container if necessary... Since the only desired layout changes are event-based, I am also willing to use a bit of JS. But is this necessary? (And I'm still not sure I know what to modify: container dimensions? inner floatiness? other?) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> #canvas { overflow:auto; /* for clearing floats */ } #container { float:left; /* so container shrinks around contained divs */ border:thin solid blue; } .inner { float:left; /* so inner elems line up nicely w/o saying fixed coords */ padding-top:8px; padding-bottom:4px; padding-left:80px; padding-right:80px; } #inner1 { background-color:#ffdddd; } #inner2 { background-color:#ddffdd; } #inner3 { background-color:#ddddff; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="canvas"> <div id="container"> <div id="inner1" class="inner"> inner 1 </div> <div id="inner2" class="inner"> inner 2 </div> <div id="inner3" class="inner"> inner 3 </div> </div> </div> cleared element </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Sharing the model in MVP Winforms App

    - by Keith G
    I'm working on building up an MVP application (C# Winforms). My initial version is at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1422343/ ... Now I'm increasing the complexity. I've broken out the code to handle two separate text fields into two view/presenter pairs. It's a trivial example, but it's to work out the details of multiple presenters sharing the same model. My questions are about the model: I am basically using a property changed event raised by the model for notifying views that something has changed. Is that a good approach? What if it gets to the point where I have 100 or 1000 properties? Is it still practical at that point? Is instantiating the model in each presenter with   NoteModel _model = NoteModel.Instance   the correct approach? Note that I do want to make sure all of the presenters are sharing the same data. If there is a better approach, I'm open to suggestions .... My code looks like this: NoteModel.cs public class NoteModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { private static NoteModel _instance = null; public static NoteModel Instance { get { return _instance; } } static NoteModel() { _instance = new NoteModel(); } private NoteModel() { Initialize(); } public string Filename { get; set; } public bool IsDirty { get; set; } public readonly string DefaultName = "Untitled.txt"; string _sText; public string TheText { get { return _sText; } set { _sText = value; PropertyHasChanged("TheText"); } } string _sMoreText; public string MoreText { get { return _sMoreText; } set { _sMoreText = value; PropertyHasChanged("MoreText"); } } public void Initialize() { Filename = DefaultName; TheText = String.Empty; MoreText = String.Empty; IsDirty = false; } private void PropertyHasChanged(string sPropName) { IsDirty = true; if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(sPropName)); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; } TextEditorPresenter.cs public class TextEditorPresenter { ITextEditorView _view; NoteModel _model = NoteModel.Instance; public TextEditorPresenter(ITextEditorView view)//, NoteModel model) { //_model = model; _view = view; _model.PropertyChanged += new PropertyChangedEventHandler(model_PropertyChanged); } void model_PropertyChanged(object sender, PropertyChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.PropertyName == "TheText") _view.TheText = _model.TheText; } public void TextModified() { _model.TheText = _view.TheText; } public void ClearView() { _view.TheText = String.Empty; } } TextEditor2Presenter.cs is essentially the same except it operates on _model.MoreText instead of _model.TheText. ITextEditorView.cs public interface ITextEditorView { string TheText { get; set; } } ITextEditor2View.cs public interface ITextEditor2View { string MoreText { get; set; } }

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework lazy loading doesn't work from other thread

    - by Thomas Levesque
    Hi, I just found out that lazy loading in Entity Framework only works from the thread that created the ObjectContext. To illustrate the problem, I did a simple test, with a simple model containing just 2 entities : Person and Address. Here's the code : private static void TestSingleThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p.Name, p.Address.City); } } } private static void TestMultiThread() { using (var context = new TestDBContext()) { foreach (var p in context.Person) { Person p2 = p; // to avoid capturing the loop variable ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem( arg => { Console.WriteLine("{0} lives in {1}.", p2.Name, p2.Address.City); }); } } } The TestSingleThread method works fine, the Address property is lazily loaded. But in TestMultiThread, I get a NullReferenceException on p2.Address.City, because p2.Address is null. It that a bug ? Is this the way it's supposed to work ? If so, is there any documentation mentioning it ? I couldn't find anything on the subject on MSDN or Google... And more importantly, is there a workaround ? (other than explicitly calling LoadProperty from the worker thread...) Any help would be very appreciated PS: I'm using VS2010, so it's EF 4.0. I don't know if it was the same in the previous version of EF...

    Read the article

  • How do I know if I have an unmanaged resource?

    - by Shiftbit
    I've read that unmanaged resource are considered file handles, streams, anything low level. Does MSDN or any other source explain how to recognize an unmanaged resource? I can't seem to find any examples on the net that show unmanaged code, all the examples just have comments that say unmanaged code here. Can someone perhaps provide a realworld example where I would handle an unmanaged resources in an IDispose interface? I provided the IDisposable interface for your convience. How do I identify an unmanaged resource? Thanks in advance! IDisposable Reference Public Class Sample : Implements IDisposable Private disposedValue As Boolean = False 'To detect redundant calls ' IDisposable Protected Overridable Sub Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) If Not Me.disposedValue Then If disposing Then ' TODO: free other state (managed objects). End If ' TODO: free your own state (unmanaged objects). ' TODO: set large fields to null. End If Me.disposedValue = True End Sub ' This code added by Visual Basic to correctly implement the disposable pattern. Public Sub Dispose() Implements IDisposable.Dispose ' Do not change this code. Put cleanup code in Dispose(ByVal disposing As Boolean) above. Dispose(True) GC.SuppressFinalize(Me) End Sub End Class

    Read the article

  • Get id when inserting new row using TableAdapter.Update on a file based database

    - by phq
    I have a database table with one field, called ID, being an auto increment integer. Using a TableAdapter I can read and modify existing rows as well as create new ones. However if I try to modify a newly inserted row I get an DBConcurrencyException: OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Shift.mdb;Persist Security Info=True"); ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter shiftTA = new ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter(); shiftTA.Connection = conn; ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable table = new ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable(); ShiftDataSet.ShiftRow row = table.NewShiftRow(); row.Name = "life"; table.Rows.Add(row); shiftTA.Update(row); // row.ID == -1 row.Name = "answer"; // <-- all fine up to here shiftTA.Update(row); // DBConcurrencyException: 0 rows affected Separate question, is there any static type of the NewShiftRow() method I can use so that I don't have to create table everytime I want to insert a new row. I guess the problem in the code comes from row.ID that is still -1 after the first Update() call. The Insert is successful and in the database the row has a valid value of ID. How can I get that ID so that I can continue with the second Update call? Update: IT looks like this could have been done automatically using this setting. However according to the answer on msdn social, OLEDB drivers do not support this feature. Not sure where to go from here, use something else than oledb? Update: Tried SQLCompact but discovered that it had the same limitation, it does not support multiple statements. Final question: is there any simple(single file based) database that would allow you to get the values of a inserted row.

    Read the article

  • Panning Image Using Javascript in ASP.Net Page Overflows Div

    - by Bob Mc
    I have an ASP.Net page that contains a <div> with an <img> tag within. The image is large so the <div> is set with a size of 500x500 pixels with overflow set to scroll. I'm attempting to add image panning using a click and drag on the image. However, every time I begin dragging the image escapes the boundary of the element and consumes the entire page. Here is example code that illustrates the problem: <%@ Page Language="VB" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeFile="Default.aspx.vb" Inherits="_Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <div id="divInnerDiv" style="overflow:scroll; width:500px; height:500px; cursor:move;"> <img id="imgTheImage" src="Page0001.jpg" border="0" /> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> document.onmousemove = mouseMove; document.onmouseup = mouseUp; var dragObject = null; var mouseOffset = null; function mouseCoords(ev){ if(ev.pageX || ev.pageY){ return {x:ev.pageX, y:ev.pageY}; } return { x:ev.clientX + document.body.scrollLeft - document.body.clientLeft, y:ev.clientY + document.body.scrollTop - document.body.clientTop }; } function getMouseOffset(target, ev){ ev = ev || window.event; var docPos = getPosition(target); var mousePos = mouseCoords(ev); return {x:mousePos.x - docPos.x, y:mousePos.y - docPos.y}; } function getPosition(e){ var left = 0; var top = 0; while (e.offsetParent){ left += e.offsetLeft; top += e.offsetTop; e = e.offsetParent; } left += e.offsetLeft; top += e.offsetTop; return {x:left, y:top}; } function mouseMove(ev) { ev = ev || window.event; var mousePos = mouseCoords(ev); if(dragObject){ dragObject.style.position = 'absolute'; dragObject.style.top = mousePos.y - mouseOffset.y; dragObject.style.left = mousePos.x - mouseOffset.x; return false; } } function mouseUp(){ dragObject = null; } function makeDraggable(item){ if(!item) return; item.onmousedown = function(ev){ dragObject = this; mouseOffset = getMouseOffset(this, ev); return false; } } makeDraggable(document.getElementById("imgTheImage")); </script> </div> </form> </body> </html> Also note that this HTML works fine in a non-ASP.Net page. Is there something in the ASP.Net Javascript that is causing this issue? Does anyone have a suggestion for panning a JPEG within a <div> block that will work in ASP.Net? I have tried using the jQueryUI library but the result is the same.

    Read the article

  • Entire Table is pushed to the next page when rendering a SSRS 2005 Report (as .pdf) in SSRS 2008

    - by Pwninstein
    I have a SSRS 2005 report that I'm rendering in SSRS 2008 as a .pdf. The report contains (among other things) a table that's very simple: header row, details, no footer, no aggregation, no grouping, keep together = false, pageBreakAtStart = false, pageBreakAtEnd = false, repeatHeaderOnNewPage = true. I resized the table to be much narrower than the body of the report just to be sure it wasn't extending beyond the bounds of the report, pushing everything down. But, no matter what I try, if some of the detail rows in that table would need to be pushed to the next page, then the ENTIRE TABLE is pushed to the next page, not just the extra rows. So my question is: Is there a workaround for this problem, is this a known issue, or is it even possible to get this 2005 report to render properly in 2008? NOTE: this is related to a question that I previously asked here, and is based on this MSDN forum post started by a coworker. This question is not the same as my previous question, as I'd like to see things work properly in with a 2005 report. If it's not possible, that would be good to know, as it would indicate that we need to upgrade one of our servers to SQL 2008. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Implementing BindingList<T>

    - by EtherealMonkey
    I am trying to learn more about BindingList because I believe that it will help me with a project that I am working on. Currently, I have an object class (ScannedImage) that is a subtype of a class (HashedImage) that subtypes a native .Net object (Image). There is no reason why I couldn't move the two subtypes together. I am simply subtyping an object that I had previously constructed, but I will now be storing my ScannedImage object in an RDB (well, not technically - only the details and probably the thumbnail). Also, the object class has member types that are my own custom types (Keywords). I am using a custom datagridview to present these objects, but am handling all changes to the ScannedImage object with my own code. As you can probably imagine, I have quite a few events to handle that occur in these base types. So, if I changed my object to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would the object collection (implementing BindingList) receive notifications of changes to the ScannedImage object? Also, if Keywords were to implement INotifyPropertyChanged, would changes be accessible to the BindingList through the ScannedImage object? Sorry if this seems rather newbish. I only recently discovered the BindingList and not having formal training in C# programming - am having a difficult time moving forward with this. Also, if anyone has any good reference material, I would be thankful for links. Obviously, I have perused the MSDN Library. I have found a few good links on the web, but it seems that a lot of people are now using WPF and ObservableCollection. My project is based on Winforms and .Net3.5 framework. TIA

    Read the article

  • Custom ASPNetMembership FailureInformation always null, OnValidatingPassword issue

    - by bigb
    As stated here http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.security.membershipprovider.onvalidatingpassword.aspx "When the ValidatingPassword event has completed, the properties of the ValidatePasswordEventArgs object supplied as the e parameter can be examined to determine whether the current action should be canceled and if a particular Exception, stored in the FailureInformation property, should be thrown." Here is some details/code which really shows why FailureInformation shouldn't be always null http://forums.asp.net/t/991002.aspx if any password security conditions not matched. According with my Membership settings i should get an exception that password does not match password security conditions, but it is not happened. Then i did try to debug System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll(in .NET 4.0 System.Web.Security located here) Framework Code to see whats really happens there, but i cant step into this assembly, may be because of this [TypeForwardedFrom("System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=Neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a")] public abstract class MembershipProvider : ProviderBase Easily i may step into any another .NET 4.0 assembly, but in this one not. I did check, symbols for System.Web.ApplicationServices.dll loaded. Now i have only one idea how ti fix it - to override method OnValidatingPassword(ValidatePasswordEventArgs e). Thats my story. May be some one may help: 1) Any ideas why OnValidatingPassword not working? 2) Any ideas how to step into it?

    Read the article

  • LogonUser -> CreateProcessAsUser from a system service

    - by Josh K
    I've read all the posts on Stack Overflow about CreateProcessAsUser and there are very few resolved questions, so I'm not holding my breath on this one. But it seems like I'm definitely missing something, so it might be easy. The target OS is Windows XP. I have a service running as "Local System" from which I want to create a process running as a different user. For that user, I have the username and password, so LogonUser goes fine and I get a token for the user (in this case, an Administrator account.) I then try to use that token to call CreateProcessAsUser, but it fails because that token does not come with SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege - however, it does have SeIncreaseQuotaPrivilege. (I used GetTokenInformation to dump all the privileges associated with that token.) According to the MSDN page for CreateProcessAsUser, you need both privileges in order to call CreateProcessAsUser successfully. It also says you don't need the SeAssignPrimaryTokenPrivilege if the token you pass in to CreateProcessAsUser() is a "restricted version of the calling process' primary token", which I can create with CreateRestrictedToken(), but then it will be associated with the Local System user and not the target user I'm trying to run the process as. So how would I create a logon token that is both a restricted version of the calling process' primary token, AND is associated with a different user? Thanks! Note that there is no need for user interaction in here - it's all unattended - so there's no need to do stuff like grabbing WINSTA0, etc.

    Read the article

  • asp.net content page has problem with CascadingDropDown.

    - by Eyla
    I have asp.net content page with an update panel, asp.net controls with ajax extenders and it has asp.net button with event click. everything is working ok exept one case. I have 3 DropDownList with CascadingDropDown extenders. when I click the button without selecting anything from DropDownLists then click on the button the event click will work OK but if I select anything my page will respond when I click on the button. I already I added triggers for click button. is there anything I should check to fix this problem??? here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm2.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm2" %> <%@ Register Assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" Namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" TagPrefix="cc1" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UPDDL" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Panel ID="PDDL" runat="server"> <asp:DropDownList ID="cmbWorkField" runat="server" Style="top: 41px; left: 126px; position: absolute; height: 22px; width: 126px"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:DropDownList runat="server" ID="cmbOccupation" Style="top: 77px; left: 127px; position: absolute; height: 22px; width: 77px"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:DropDownList ID="cmbSubOccup" runat="server" style="position:absolute; top: 116px; left: 126px;"> </asp:DropDownList> <cc1:CascadingDropDown ID="cmbWorkField_CascadingDropDown" runat="server" TargetControlID="cmbWorkField" Category="WorkField" LoadingText="Please Wait ..." PromptText="Select Wor kField ..." ServiceMethod="GetWorkField" ServicePath="ServiceTags.asmx"> </cc1:CascadingDropDown> <cc1:CascadingDropDown ID="cmbOccupation_CascadingDropDown" runat="server" TargetControlID="cmbOccupation" Category="Occup" LoadingText="Please wait..." PromptText="Select Occup ..." ServiceMethod="GetOccup" ServicePath="ServiceTags.asmx" ParentControlID="cmbWorkField"> </cc1:CascadingDropDown> <cc1:CascadingDropDown ID="cmbSubOccup_CascadingDropDown" runat="server" Category="SubOccup" Enabled="True" LoadingText="Please Wait..." ParentControlID="cmbOccupation" PromptText="Select Sub Occup" ServiceMethod="GetSubOccup" ServicePath="ServiceTags.asmx" TargetControlID="cmbSubOccup"> </cc1:CascadingDropDown> </asp:Panel> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click" /> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text="Label"></asp:Label> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:AsyncPostBackTrigger ControlID="Button1" EventName="Click" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> </asp:Content> ........................ here is the code behind: .................................................... protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = "you click me"; }

    Read the article

  • what's the correct way to release a new website?

    - by kk
    so i've been working on a website on and off for about a year now, and i'm finally at a point where it's functional enough to test out in a sort of private beta (not ready for live release). but i never thought about the correct process for doing this and what things i need to take care of. i've never released a public website before. some of the questions/concerns i have in mind: 1) is it against my MSDN license agreement to release a website using the software? 2) how do i protect my "idea"? is it a bad idea to find random people you don't know to test out your site? can you make them digitally sign some sort of NDA? 3) i'm using some open source code - any proper way to release open source code to live production? 4) how much traffic can a place like discountasp.net handle anyway? can hosting sites generally handle large volume of traffic? any comments/suggestions regarding the proper/safe way to release a public website would be appreciated. i've been working on this for a while and never actually sat down to think about the right way to move from a personal side project to a live production website.

    Read the article

  • Can WPF based ActiveX control use Reg-Free-COM

    - by embnut
    I have a WPF based ActiveX control (COM interop). I am able to use it correctly by registering the control. When I tried to Reg-Free-COM (using manifest files) the control seems to be activated, but the events (such as mouse click, RequestBringIntoView etc) dont respond. Interestingly, Double click and tab key works. I read in the this article http://blogs.msdn.com/karstenj/archive/2006/10/09/activex-wpf-gadget.aspx that " ... These upsides come with a price: the ActiveX control must be registered in the registry, which requires some kind of installation such as an .msi. The default gadget installation process cannot install ActiveX. The ActiveX control can't be access via reg-free COM. ..." Has anybody had a similar experience? Can anyone explain what is going on? Additional details: When the control is activated after it has been registered it appears as part of the COM client's UI. The control does not receive focus, its elements receive it. When using reg-free-com the control does not load correctly. 1) The control receives focus instead of its sub elements 2) The control has areas that are black instead of the windows default color 3) when I tab in and out of the control or double click it, it's subelements receive focus, the control starts receiving events and the black areas are replaced by the correct color

    Read the article

  • singleton pattern in Windows Activation Service

    - by Joshua
    Hello I have a few WCF services that are currently being self hosted, in a very basic NT Service. I want to expand my application to add provisioning of WCF Services, and updates, as well as isolation (I want each WCF Service to be in its own AppDomain). These WCF Services contain logic that needs to be run on a regular basis, pinging the database, and getting information from external devices so that when a request comes in the data is readily available. I'm thinking about trying out Windows Activation Service, because i really like the provisioning, and isolation that comes with a managed services infrastructure. If I didn't use WAS I would essentially have to write the same code myself. From what I understand though WAS does not really support the model of having a service that is running before someone actually calls a method on the service. the article I read here MSDN Article Link states "That means in essence that out-of-the-box WAS hosting is not something that is really suited for sessionful or singleton services. It is more suitable for stateless per-call services." it does say that "Out of the box" so I'm wondering if anyone has used WAS to host a WCF service that really behaves more like an NT Service (starting and stopping independantly of having a method called upon it). Or any other ideas would be great. I was planning on writting this infrastructure myself, to host WCF services in a custom ServiceHost, and put their execution in a seporate AppDomain, as well as allow for provision of these services after initial installation, along with updates. However, I would MUCH MUCH MUCH rather not own that code if I don't have to. thanks Joshua

    Read the article

  • Automation Error upon running VBA script in Excel

    - by brohjoe
    Hi guys, I'm getting an Automation error upon running VBA code in Excel 2007. I'm attempting to connect to a remote SQL Server DB and load data to from Excel to SQL Server. The error I get is, "Run-time error '-2147217843(80040e4d)': Automation error". I checked out the MSDN site and it suggested that this may be due to a bug associated with the sqloledb provider and one way to mitigate this is to use ODBC. Well I changed the connection string to reflect ODBC provider and associated parameters and I'm still getting the same error. Here is the code with ODBC as the provider: Dim cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim stSQL As String Dim wbBook As Workbook Dim wsSheet As Worksheet Dim rnStart As Range Public Sub loadData() 'This was set up using Microsoft ActiveX Data Components version 6.0. 'Create ADODB connection object, open connection and construct the connection string object. Set cnt = New ADODB.Connection cnt.ConnectionString = _ "Driver={SQL Server}; Server=onlineSQLServer2010.foo.com; Database=fooDB Uid=logonalready;Pwd='helpmeOB1';" cnt.Open On Error GoTo ErrorHandler 'Open Excel and run query to export data to SQL Server. strSQL = "SELECT * INTO SalesOrders FROM OPENDATASOURCE('Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0', & _ "'Data Source=C:\Database.xlsx; Extended Properties=Excel 12.0')...[SalesOrders$]" cnt.Execute (strSQL) 'Error handling. ErrorExit: 'Reclaim memory from the connection objects Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing Exit Sub ErrorHandler: MsgBox Err.Description, vbCritical Resume ErrorExit 'clean up and reclaim memory resources. cnt.Close If CBool(cnt.State And adStateOpen) Then Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing End If End Sub

    Read the article

  • UCMA 3.0 How to build a list of recipients and then broadcast an IM call to those recipients

    - by ficuscr
    I am developing an application using UCMA 3.0 that will run as a service and send out periodic 'broadcasts' in the form of Instant Message calls. I have been using the book "Professional Unified Communications Development with Microsoft Lync Server 2010" and have everything provisioned fine and am able to establish an application endpoint. I am stuck on two aspects though. 1) How to get a list of all users of Lync? Everything the UCMA can do is centered on a single user. For example it allows me to retrieve all contacts/groups present on a given users 'contact list' but does not provide any means to query for a list of available contacts that could be added to one of those contact lists. On the MSDN forum I found this post which leads me to think my best bet is simply to query AD directly. 2) What is the best way to actually send a broadcast style IM? My working premise is to attempt something like what I've found in this code example (specifically the public void SendIM() method). So, get a list of recipients from AD, (looping on each on to check current presence?), and then use Automation to make the IM call for each recipient in the collection. Does that make sense? Do I need to check presence of the recipient or do I just optimistically make the IM calls irregardless of their current presence status? Can anyone point me to some working code demonstrating sending an IM broadcast? You would think this is probably one of the most common use cases however the SDK samples do not cover it. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 504 505 506 507 508 509 510 511 512 513 514 515  | Next Page >