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  • How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

    - by George
    I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

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  • Linq to SQL generates StackOverflowException in tight Insert loop

    - by ChrisW
    I'm parsing an XML file and inserting the rows into a table (and related tables) using LinqToSQL. I parse the XML file using LinqToXml into IEnumerable. Then, I create a foreach loop, where I build my LinqToSQL objects and call InsertOnSubmit and SubmitChanges at the end of each loop. Nothing special here. Usually, I make it through around 4,100 records before receiving a StackOverflowException from LinqToSql, right as I call SubmitChanges. It's not always on 4,100... sometimes it's 4102, sometimes, less, etc. I've tried inserting the records that generate the failure individually, but putting them in their own Xml file, but that inserts fine... so it's not the data. I'm running the whole process from an MVC2 app that is uploading the Xml file to the server. I've adjusted my WebRequest timeouts to appropriate values, and again, I'm not getting timeout errors, just StackOverflowExceptions. So is there some pattern that I should follow for times when I have to do many insertions into the database? I never encounter this exception on smaller Xml files, just larger ones.

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  • secure rest API for running user "apps" in an iframe

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I want to let users create "apps" (like Facebook apps) for my website, and I'm trying to figure out the best way to make it secure. I have a REST api i want to run the user apps in an iframe on my own site (not a safe markup language like FBML) I was first looking at oAuth but this seems overkill for my solution. The "apps" don't need to be run on external sites or in desktop apps or anything. The user would stay on my site at all times but see the user submitted "app" through the iframe. So when I call the app the first time through the iframe, I can pass it some variables so it knows which logged in user is using it on my site. It can then use this user session in it's own API calls to customize the display. If the call is passed in the clear, I don't want someone to be able to intercept the session and impersonate the user. Does anyone know a good way to do this or good write up on it? Thanks!

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  • instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

    - by gwk
    My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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  • CssClass and default images in ServerContol

    - by Jeff Dege
    I'm writing a ServerControl in ASP.NET 3.5, and I'm exposing CssClass, so the user can manipulate the visual appearance of the control. My problem is that I want to establish reasonable defaults, so that the user doesn't have to configure CSS unless he wants to change the defaults. My specific problem is that my control is emitting html divs, that need to display background images. I want the user to be able to specify a different image in CSS, but I want to display a default background image, and I can't make that work. The entire server control is emitted as a div, with a class name set to the value the user provided in CssClass. The div that needs the background image is enclosed within this outer div, with a class name of its own. I am currently setting the background image in CSS on the page that contains the control: <style type="text/css"> .cssClass .innerDiv { background-image: url("http://...."); } </style> With this the proper image is drawn. But if it's not there, no image is drawn. What I want is for the ServerControl to emit some CSS that will define these image urls, that would be over-ridden by any css that was added by the user, and for that default CSS to include URLs to images embedded in the ServerControl's assembly. And I'm not sure of how to do either. Nor, for that matter, am I sure this is the best approach. Any ideas?

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  • Grouped UITableView Footer Sometimes Hidden On Quick Scroll

    - by jdandrea
    OK, this one is a puzzler. There is one similar post but it's not similar enough to count, so I'm posting this one. :) I've got a grouped UITableView with a header and footer. The footer includes two UIButton views, side-by-side. Nothing major. Now … there is a toggle button in a UIToolbar at the bottom for more/less info in this table view. So I build my index paths to delete/insert with fade row animation, all the usual ingredients, sandwiched between beginUpdates and endUpdates calls on the UITableView … and this works fine! In also happens that my footer can sometimes be pushed off past the bottom of the display. Here's where it gets weird. If I drag my finger up the display, scrolling the view upward, I should see that footer eventually, right? Well … most of the time I do. BUT, if I flick my finger up, for a faster scroll, the footer is missing. Even if you try to tap in that area - no response. However, if I scroll back down again, just to hide that footer (or rather hide the area where the footer would normally be), and then scroll back up, it's there once again! This only happens when inserting rows. If I delete rows, the footer stays put … unless of course it was already hidden and I didn't perform the aforementioned incantation to get it back. :) I am trying to trace through this, but to no avail. I suppose tracing through scroll operations is a bit of a crazy proposition! Perhaps some creative logging … suggestions, anyone? Or is this a known issue in 3.1 where row insert/deletes are concerned? (I don't recall seeing it until 3.1.)

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  • retrieve events where uid is the creator and application id is the admin - Facebook API

    - by Anup Parekh
    I would like to know if there is a Facebook API call to retrieve the events (eids) for all the events a user has created using my facebook connect application. The events are created using the following REST api call: https://api.facebook.com/method/events.create?event_info=' . $e_i . '&access_token=' . $cookie['access_token'] $e_i is the event info array where the 'host' value is set to 'Me' as follows $event_info['host'] = 'Me'; On Facebook events under the "Created by:" section it lists "My user name,Application Name", I presume this is because I am the creator and the application is the admin as stated in the REST api documentation http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/rest/events.create/ Unfortunately I cannot seem to find out how (neither REST nor GPRAPH API) to return a list of events where I am the creator and the application is the admin as in the above scenario. If this is possible I would really appreciate some assistance with how it is done. So far I have tried: REST API events.get using uid=application_id. This only returns events created by the application not those including the user who created them GRAPH API https://graph.facebook.com/me/events?fields=owner&access_token=... this returns all the events for 'me' but not where the application is also the admin. It seems strange that there's no reference to the linkage between the event creator and the event admin through the API but in Facebook it is able to pull both and display them on the event details.

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  • multiple calender in exchange web service

    - by user3559462
    i have multiple calender in my mailbox, i can retrieve only one calender that is main calnder folder using ews api 2.0, now i want whole list of calenders and appointments and meetings in that. like i have three calender one is main calnder 1.Calender(color-code:default) 2.Jorgen(color-code:pink) 3.Soren(color-code: yellow) i can retrieve all the values of main "Calnder", using the below code Folder inbox = Folder.Bind(service, WellKnownFolderName.Calendar); view.PropertySet = new PropertySet(BasePropertySet.IdOnly); // This results in a FindItem call to EWS. FindItemsResults<Item> results = inbox.FindItems(view); i = 1; m = results.TotalCount; if (results.Count() > 0) { foreach (var item in results) { PropertySet props = new PropertySet(AppointmentSchema.MimeContent,AppointmentSchema.ParentFolderId,AppointmentSchema.Id,AppointmentSchema.Categories,AppointmentSchema.Location); // This results in a GetItem call to EWS. var email = Appointment.Bind(service, item.Id, props); string iCalFileName = @"C:\export\appointment" +i ".ics"; // Save as .eml. using (FileStream fs = new FileStream(iCalFileName, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write)) { fs.Write(email.MimeContent.Content, 0, email.MimeContent.Content.Length); } i++; } now i want to get all the remaining calender schedules also, i am not able to get is Please help, need it urgently

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  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

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  • What is the best way to automatically transpose a LilyPond source file into multiple keys?

    - by Michael Steele
    problem I'm using LilyPond to typeset sheet music for a church choir to perform. Depending on who is available on any given week, songs will be played in various keys. We have an amazing pianist who can play anything we throw at her and the guitarists will typically pencil in alternate chords, but I want to make things easier by having beautifully typeset sheet music available in any key we want. So say we're going to sing our ABCs. First I'll take whatever source transcriptions available and enter it into a LilyPond script: melody = \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I want the ability to transpose this automatically, so if I want the whole thing in 'G' I wrap the song in a \transpose call like so: melody = \transpose c g \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } What I really want is to substitute something for the 'g' and generate the output for melody multiple times. Simple LilyPond variables don't seem to work here, and so far I've been unsuccessful in defining a scheme function to do this. What I've resorted to for the moment is taking the above file, call it twinkle.ly and turning it into an M4 script called twinkle.ly.m4, the contents of which look like this: melody = \transpose c _key \relative c' { c c g g a a g2 f f e e d d c2 } I then compile the while thing by executing the following line: > m4 -D _key=g twinkle.ly.m4 > twinkle_g.ly && lilypond twinkle_g.ly I've written a Makefile to do this for me, defining rules for every song I have and every key I'm interested in. question There's got to be a better way of going about this. Given that Lilypond supports embedded scheme, I would prefer to not use a macro preprocessed on it. Has anybody else come up with a solution to this same problem?

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • How would you design a question/answer view (iPhone SDK)

    - by Aurélien Vallée
    I'm new to iPhone development, and I have a question on how to create a view for my application. The view should display a problem (using formatted/syntax highlighted text), and multiple possible answers. The user should be able to click on an answer to validate it. Currently, I am trying to use a UITableView embedding UIWebView as contentView. That allows me to display formatted text easily. The problem is that it is a real pain to compute and adjust the height of the cells. I have to preload the webview, call sizeToFit, get its height, and update the cell accordingly. This process should be done for the problem and the answers (as they are HTML formatted text too). It's such a pain that I am planning to switch to something else. I thought using only a big UIWebView and design everything in HTML. But I looked at some articles describing how to communicate between the HTML page and the ObjectiveC code. This seems to involve some awful tricks too... So... that's it, I don't really know what I should do. I guess some of you dealt with such things before, and would provide some greatly appreciated tips :)

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  • Why not lump all service classes into a Factory method (instead of injecting interfaces)?

    - by Andrew
    We are building an ASP.NET project, and encapsulating all of our business logic in service classes. Some is in the domain objects, but generally those are rather anemic (due to the ORM we are using, that won't change). To better enable unit testing, we define interfaces for each service and utilize D.I.. E.g. here are a couple of the interfaces: IEmployeeService IDepartmentService IOrderService ... All of the methods in these services are basically groups of tasks, and the classes contain no private member variables (other than references to the dependent services). Before we worried about Unit Testing, we'd just declare all these classes as static and have them call each other directly. Now we'll set up the class like this if the service depends on other services: public EmployeeService : IEmployeeService { private readonly IOrderService _orderSvc; private readonly IDepartmentService _deptSvc; private readonly IEmployeeRepository _empRep; public EmployeeService(IOrderService orderSvc , IDepartmentService deptSvc , IEmployeeRepository empRep) { _orderSvc = orderSvc; _deptSvc = deptSvc; _empRep = empRep; } //methods down here } This really isn't usually a problem, but I wonder why not set up a factory class that we pass around instead? i.e. public ServiceFactory { virtual IEmployeeService GetEmployeeService(); virtual IDepartmentService GetDepartmentService(); virtual IOrderService GetOrderService(); } Then instead of calling: _orderSvc.CalcOrderTotal(orderId) we'd call _svcFactory.GetOrderService.CalcOrderTotal(orderid) What's the downfall of this method? It's still testable, it still allows us to use D.I. (and handle external dependencies like database contexts and e-mail senders via D.I. within and outside the factory), and it eliminates a lot of D.I. setup and consolidates dependencies more. Thanks for your thoughts!

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  • Prevent Navigation to CreateUserWizardStep in the Postback event of nextbutton

    - by Aparna
    I am working with CreateUserWizard tool for creating a registration page. This is the first time and I am encountering problem with the following: I defined two steps in WizardSteps in the page: <WizardSteps> <asp:WizardStep ID="CreateUserWizardStep0" runat="server" Title="Sign Up for your new Account !!"> <asp:TextBox ID="Email" runat="server"> In the first wizard step, the user provides email, and we need to check if this email meets certain criteria (if he exists in our internal database, country is US etc) and if he/she is eligible navigate to CreateUserWizardStep1. I have a StartNextButton in the Start Navigation template for the WizardStep0. <StartNavigationTemplate> <br /> <asp:Button ID="StartNextButton" runat="server" CommandName="MoveNext" OnClick="StartNextButton_Click" Text="Check My Eligibility" /> </StartNavigationTemplate> I do all the logic of checking eligibility in the post-back event OnClick="StartNextButton_Click . If he is not eligible, I should display the error message in the step0 textbox and prevent navigation to CreateUserWizardStep1. I tried the following: if(noteligible) { lblError1.Visible = true; lblError1.Text = this.hfUserAlreadyRegistered.Value.ToString(); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = this.CreateUserWizard1.WizardSteps.IndexOf(this.CreateUserWizardStep0); this.CreateUserWizard1.Controls.Remove(CreateUserWizardStep1); this.CreateUserWizard1.ActiveStepIndex = 0; break; } But this is not working. I am taken out of step0 and step1 is coming irrespective of this. How can I just remain in Step0 and display the error message when the user is not eligible and navigate to Step1 only when he is eligible to register ? Thank you very much.

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  • JavaScript: input validation in the keydown event

    - by c411
    Hi, I'm attempting to do info validation against user text input in the process of keydown event. The reason that I am trying to validate in the keydown event is because I do not want to display the characters those that are considered to be illegal in the input box at the beginning. The validation I am writing is like this, function validateUserInput(){ var code = this.event.keyCode; if ((code<48||code>57) // numerical &&code!==46 //delete &&code!==8 //back space &&code!==37 // <- arrow &&code!==39) // -> arrow { this.event.preventDefault(); } } I can keep going like this, however I am seeing drawbacks on this implmentation. Those are, for example, Conditional statement become longer and longer when I put more conditions to be examined. keyCodes can be different by browsers. I have to not only check what is not legal but also have to check what are exceptionals. In above examples, delete,backspace, and arrow keys are exceptionals. But the feature that I don't want to lose is having not to display the input in the textarea unless it passes the validation. (In case the user try to put illegal characters in the textarea, nothing should appear at all) That is why I am not doing validation upon keyup event. So my question is, Are there better ways to validate input in keydown event than checking keyCode by keyCode? Are there other ways to capture the user inputs other than keydown event before browser displays it? And a way to put the validation on it? Thanks for the help in advance.

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  • Wanted: How to reliably, consistently select an MKMapView annotation

    - by jdandrea
    After calling MKMapView's setCenterCoordinate:animated: method (without animation), I'd like to call selectAnnotation:animated: (with animation) so that the annotation pops out from the newly-centered pushpin. For now, I simply watch for mapViewDidFinishLoadingMap: and then select the annotation. However, this is problematic. For instance, this method isn't called when there's no need to load additional map data. In those cases, my annotation isn't selected. :( Very well. I could call this immediately after setting the center coordinate instead. Ahh, but in that case it's possible that there is map data to load (but it hasn't finished loading yet). I'd risk calling it too soon, with the animation becoming spotty at best. Thus, if I understand correctly, it's not a matter of knowing if my coordinate is visible, since it's possible to stray almost a screenful of distance and have to load new map data. Rather, it's a matter of knowing if new map data needs to be loaded, and then acting accordingly. Any ideas on how to accomplish this, or how to otherwise (reliably) select an annotation after re-centering the map view on the coordinate where that annotation lives? Clues appreciated - thanks!

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  • handling java exception

    - by Noona
    This questions is related to java exception, why are there some cases that when an exception thrown the program exits even though the exception was caught and there was no exit() statement? my code looks something like this void bindProxySocket(DefaultHttpClientConnection proxyConnection, String hostName, HttpParams params) { if (!proxyConnection.isOpen()) { Socket socket = null; try { socket = new Socket(hostName, 80); } catch (UnknownHostException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } try { proxyConnection.bind(socket, params); } catch(IOException e) { System.err.println ("couldn't bind socket"); e.printStackTrace(); } } } and then I call this method like this: bindProxySocket(proxyConn, hostName, params1); but, the program exits, although I want to handle the exception by doing something else, can it be because I didn't enclose the method call within a try catch clause? what happens if I catch the exception again even though it's already in the method? and what should I do if i want to clean resources only if an exception occurs and otherwise I want to continue with the program? I am guessing in this case I have to include the whole piece of code until I can clean the resources with in a try statement or can I do it in the handle exception statement? some of these questions are on this specific case, but I would like to get a thorough answer to all my questions for future reference. thanks

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  • using jquery growl with php/mysql

    - by jeansymolanza
    on my database i am planning to create a table storing messages to alert users of anything they need to do. i am looking at using a jQuery growl like notification method but im confused at how i would begin building it. the data would be added into the database using the standard MYSQL insert method from a form but how would i select messages from the database to display using the jQuery growl. would this require the use of ajax? this is the javascript code i have so far, i was wondering how i would implement the php code alongside it so that i can pull out data from my tables to display as notifications: <script type="text/javascript"> // In case you don't have firebug... if (!window.console || !console.firebug) { var names = ["log", "debug", "info", "warn", "error", "assert", "dir", "dirxml", "group", "groupEnd", "time", "timeEnd", "count", "trace", "profile", "profileEnd"]; window.console = {}; for (var i = 0; i < names.length; ++i) window.console[names[i]] = function() {}; } (function($){ $(document).ready(function(){ // This specifies how many messages can be pooled out at any given time. // If there are more notifications raised then the pool, the others are // placed into queue and rendered after the other have disapeared. $.jGrowl.defaults.pool = 5; var i = 1; var y = 1; setInterval( function() { if ( i < 3 ) { $.jGrowl("Message " + i, { sticky: true, log: function() { console.log("Creating message " + i + "..."); }, beforeOpen: function() { console.log("Rendering message " + y + "..."); y++; } }); } i++; } , 1000 ); }); })(jQuery); </script> <p> thanking you in advance and God bless

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  • Using Build Manager Class to Load ASPX Files and Populate its Controls

    - by Sandhurst
    I am using BuildManager Class to Load a dynamically generated ASPX File, please note that it does not have a corresponding .cs file. Using Following code I am able to load the aspx file, I am even able to loop through the control collection of the dynamically created aspx file, but when I am assigning values to controls they are not showing it up. for example if I am binding the value "Dummy" to TextBox control of the aspx page, the textbox remains empty. Here's the code that I am using protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { LoadPage("~/Demo.aspx"); } public static void LoadPage(string pagePath) { // get the compiled type of referenced path Type type = BuildManager.GetCompiledType(pagePath); // if type is null, could not determine page type if (type == null) throw new ApplicationException("Page " + pagePath + " not found"); // cast page object (could also cast an interface instance as well) // in this example, ASP220Page is a custom base page System.Web.UI.Page pageView = (System.Web.UI.Page)Activator.CreateInstance(type); // call page title pageView.Title = "Dynamically loaded page..."; // call custom property of ASP220Page //pageView.InternalControls.Add( // new LiteralControl("Served dynamically...")); // process the request with updated object ((IHttpHandler)pageView).ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); LoadDataInDynamicPage(pageView); } private static void LoadDataInDynamicPage(Page prvPage) { foreach (Control ctrl in prvPage.Controls) { //Find Form Control if (ctrl.ID != null) { if (ctrl.ID.Equals("form1")) { AllFormsClass cls = new AllFormsClass(); DataSet ds = cls.GetConditionalData("1"); foreach (Control ctr in ctrl.Controls) { if (ctr is TextBox) { if (ctr.ID.Contains("_M")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[0].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } else if (ctr.ID.Contains("_O")) { TextBox drpControl = (TextBox)ctr; drpControl.Text = ds.Tables[1].Rows[0][ctr.ID].ToString(); } } } } } } }

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  • SharePoint Visual web part and Oracle connection problem

    - by Rishi
    Hi, I'm trying to build a "visual web part" for SharePoint 2010 which should connect to Oracle table and display records on SharePoint page.For development, Oracle 11g client (with ODP.net) ,SharePoint server 2010, Visual Studio 2010 and Oracle 10g express all running on my machine. First,I've written sample code in ASP.NET web app to connect my local Oracle table and display data in grid view and it works fine. My code is , OracleConnection con; try { // Connect string constr = "Data Source=(DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS_LIST=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=TCP)(HOST=localhost)(PORT=1521)))(CONNECT_DATA=(SERVER=DEDICATED)(SERVICE_NAME=XE)));User Id=SYSTEM; Password=password"; con = new OracleConnection(constr); //Open database connection con.Open(); // Execute a SQL SELECT OracleCommand cmd = new OracleCommand("select * from T_ACTIONPOINTS WHERE AP_STATUS='Active' ", con); OracleDataReader dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); GridView.DataSource = dr; GridView.DataBind(); GridView.AllowPaging = true; } catch (Exception e) { lblError.Text = e.Message; } Now, I'm trying to create new "SharePoint" visual web part project and using same code and deploying it on my local SP server. But when it runs , I get following error here is my solution explorer, It looks something wrong in compatibility.Can someone point me in right direction ?

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  • How can I improve this design?

    - by klausbyskov
    Let's assume that our system can perform actions, and that an action requires some parameters to do its work. I have defined the following base class for all actions (simplified for your reading pleasure): public abstract class BaseBusinessAction<TActionParameters> : where TActionParameters : IActionParameters { protected BaseBusinessAction(TActionParameters actionParameters) { if (actionParameters == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("actionParameters"); this.Parameters = actionParameters; if (!ParametersAreValid()) throw new ArgumentException("Valid parameters must be supplied", "actionParameters"); } protected TActionParameters Parameters { get; private set; } protected abstract bool ParametersAreValid(); public void CommonMethod() { ... } } Only a concrete implementation of BaseBusinessAction knows how to validate that the parameters passed to it are valid, and therefore the ParametersAreValid is an abstract function. However, I want the base class constructor to enforce that the parameters passed are always valid, so I've added a call to ParametersAreValid to the constructor and I throw an exception when the function returns false. So far so good, right? Well, no. Code analysis is telling me to "not call overridable methods in constructors" which actually makes a lot of sense because when the base class's constructor is called the child class's constructor has not yet been called, and therefore the ParametersAreValid method may not have access to some critical member variable that the child class's constructor would set. So the question is this: How do I improve this design? Do I add a Func<bool, TActionParameters> parameter to the base class constructor? If I did: public class MyAction<MyParameters> { public MyAction(MyParameters actionParameters, bool something) : base(actionParameters, ValidateIt) { this.something = something; } private bool something; public static bool ValidateIt() { return something; } } This would work because ValidateIt is static, but I don't know... Is there a better way? Comments are very welcome.

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  • Javascript: Whitespace Characters being Removed in Chrome (but not Firefox)

    - by Matrym
    Why would the below eliminate the whitespace around matched keyword text when replacing it with an anchor link? Note, this error only occurs in Chrome, and not firefox. For complete context, the file is located at: http://seox.org/lbp/lb-core.js To view the code in action (no errors found yet), the demo page is at http://seox.org/test.html. Copy/Pasting the first paragraph into a rich text editor (ie: dreamweaver, or gmail with rich text editor turned on) will reveal the problem, with words bunched together. Pasting it into a plain text editor will not. // Find page text (not in links) -> doxdesk.com function findPlainTextExceptInLinks(element, substring, callback) { for (var childi= element.childNodes.length; childi-->0;) { var child= element.childNodes[childi]; if (child.nodeType===1) { if (child.tagName.toLowerCase()!=='a') findPlainTextExceptInLinks(child, substring, callback); } else if (child.nodeType===3) { var index= child.data.length; while (true) { index= child.data.lastIndexOf(substring, index); if (index===-1 || limit.indexOf(substring.toLowerCase()) !== -1) break; // don't match an alphanumeric char var dontMatch =/\w/; if(child.nodeValue.charAt(index - 1).match(dontMatch) || child.nodeValue.charAt(index+keyword.length).match(dontMatch)) break; // alert(child.nodeValue.charAt(index+keyword.length + 1)); callback.call(window, child, index) } } } } // Linkup function, call with various type cases (below) function linkup(node, index) { node.splitText(index+keyword.length); var a= document.createElement('a'); a.href= linkUrl; a.appendChild(node.splitText(index)); node.parentNode.insertBefore(a, node.nextSibling); limit.push(keyword.toLowerCase()); // Add the keyword to memory urlMemory.push(linkUrl); // Add the url to memory } // lower case (already applied) findPlainTextExceptInLinks(lbp.vrs.holder, keyword, linkup); Thanks in advance for your help. I'm nearly ready to launch the script, and will gladly comment in kudos to you for your assistance.

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  • Overriding equals method without breaking symmetry in a class that has a primary key

    - by Kosta
    Hi, the answer to this question is probably "not possible", but let me ask regardless :) Assuming we have a very simple JAVA class that has a primary key, for example: class Person { String ssid; String name; String address; ... } Now, I want to store people in a collection, meaning I will have to override the equals method. Not a completely trivial matter, but on a bare basis I will have something along the lines of: @Override public boolean equals (Object other) { if(other==this) return true; if(!other.getClass().equals(this.getClass()) return false; Person otherPerson = (Person)other; if(this.ssid.equals(otherPerson.getSsid()) return true; } Excuse any obvious blunders, just typing this out of my head. Now, let's say later on in the application I have a ssid I obtained through user input. If I want to compare my ssid to a Person, I would have to call something like: String mySsid = getFromSomewhere(); Person myPerson = getFromSomewhere(); if(myPerson.equals(new Person(mySsid)) doSomething(); This means I have to create a convenience constructor to create a Person based on ssid (if I don't already have one), and it's also quite verbose. It would be much nicer to simply call myPerson.equals(mySsid) but if I added a string comparison to my Person equals class, that would break the symmetry property, since the String hasn't got a clue on how to compare itself to a Person. So finally, the big question, is there any way to enable this sort of "shorthand" comparisons using the overriden equals method, and without breaking the symmetry rule? Thanks for any thoughts on this!

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  • Buttons OnClick Event not firing when it causes a textboxes onChange event to fire first

    - by user48408
    I have a few textboxes and button to save their values on a webpage. The onchange event of the textboxes fires some js which adds the changed text to a js array. The ok button when clicked flushes this to the database via a webservice. This works fine except when the onchange event is caused by clicking the ok button. In this scenario the onchange of the textboxes still fires but the onClick event of the button does not. Any ideas? textboxes look something like <input name="ctrlJPView$tbcTabContainer$Details$JP_Details_Address2Text" type="text" value="test" id="ctrlJPView_tbcTabContainer_Details_JP_Details_Address2Text" onchange="addSaveDetails('Jobs###' + document.getElementById('ctrlJPView_tbcTabContainer_Details_JP_Details_Address2Text').value + ');" style="font-size:8pt;Left:110px;Top:29px;Width:420px;Height:13px;Position:absolute;" /> My save button <input type="button" name="ctrlJPView$btnOk" value="OK" onclick="saveAmendments();refreshJobGrids();return false;__doPostBack('ctrlJPView$btnOk','')" id="ctrlJPView_btnOk" class="ControlText" style="width:60px;" /> UPDATE: I guess this comes down to one of two things. 1) Something is happening before the onClick of the button gets called to surpress that call such as an inadvertent return false; or 2) the onClick event isn't firing at all. Now I've rem'd out everything actually inside the functions that are being called beforehand but the problem persists. But if i remove the call altogether it works (???)

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  • What is the best way to handle autorotation with multiple subview?

    - by thangnguyen
    I am learning and programing an application. I do this project based on what I learned from the book Beginning iphone 3 development. I have two main questions here: I would like to create a multi utility application so I need multiple-view. I have a main view controller which will control switching between views. In this example I have two views A and B. I have 2 view controller A and B which will handles all of events on these 2 views. I have 2 nib files viewA.xib and viewB.xib. One of the uitility is reading PDF. So I create another class which handle the PDF file which can load a PDF page call PDFview. From Interface Builder, I selected class identity for view of the viewB.xib as PDFView class. The result is I can switching between View A and view B. View B will display the content of the PDF page. I am not sure if my solution is right or wrong but now I don't know how to handle the autorotation. The rotation will active the view controller B. But the PDFView handle how to display the PDF on the View. Could you please tell me how I should handle this in a right way? Second question: Should I create the subview automatically? In case I need to do the swipe page animation, how can I do that? I think that I need to load another subview so I can do the animation when swap view. But I think this solution will waste the resource. I can just load another page of the PDF, but in this case I don't know how to use animation? Please tell me how I should solve this? I highly appreciate your time reading and answering my question. Thang Nguyen

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