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  • Saving Data to Relational Database (Entity Framework)

    - by sheefy
    I'm having a little bit of trouble saving data to a database. Basically, I have a main table that has associations to other tables (Example Below). Tbl_Listing ID UserID - Associated to ID in User Table CategoryID - Associated to ID in Category Table LevelID - Associated to ID in Level Table. Name Address Normally, it's easy for me to add data to the DB (using Entity Framework). However, I'm not sure how to add data to the fields with associations. The numerous ID fields just need to hold an int value that corresponds with the ID in the associated table. For example; when I try to access the column in the following manner I get a "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." error. Listing NewListing = new Listing(); NewListing.Tbl_User.ID = 1; NewListing.Tbl_Category.ID = 2; ... DBEntities.AddToListingSet(NewListing); DBEntities.SaveChanges(); I am using NewListing.Tbl_User.ID instead of NewListing.UserID because the UserID field is not available through intellisense. If I try and create an object for each related field I get a "The relationship between the two objects cannot be defined because they are attached to different ObjectContext objects." error. With this method, I am trying to add the object without the .ID shown above - example NewListing.User = UserObject. I know this should be simple as I just want to reference the ID from the associated table in the main Listing's table. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance, -S

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  • How to efficiently use LOCK_ESCALATION mssql 2008

    - by Avias
    I'm currently having troubles with frequent deadlocks with a specific user table in MS SQL 2008. Here are some facts about this particular table: Has a large amount of rows (1 to 2 million) All the indexes used on this table only has "use row lock" ticked on its option rows are frequently updated by multiple transactions but are unique (e.g. probably a thousand or more update statements are executed to different unique rows every hour) the table does not use partitions. Upon checking the table on sys.tables, I found that the lock_escalation is set to TABLE I'm very tempted to turn the lock_escalation for this table to DISABLE but I'm not really sure what side effect this would incur. From What I understand, using DISABLE will minimize escalating locks to TABLE level which if combined with the row lock settings of the indexes should theoretically minimize the deadlocks I am encountering.. From what I have read in Determining threshold for lock escalation it seems that locking automatically escalates when a single transaction fetches 5000 rows.. What does a single transaction mean in this sense? A single session/connection getting 5000 rows thru individual update/select statements? Or is it a single sql update/select statement that fetches 5000 or more rows? Any insight is appreciated, btw, n00b DBA here Thanks

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  • What is a good solution to log the deletion of a row in MySQL?

    - by hobodave
    Background I am currently logging deletion of rows from my tickets table at the application level. When a user deletes a ticket the following SQL is executed: INSERT INTO alert_log (user_id, priority, priorityName, timestamp, message) VALUES (9, 4, 'WARN', NOW(), "TICKET: David A. deleted ticket #6 from Foo"); Please do not offer schema suggestions for the alert_log table. Fields: user_id - User id of the logged in user performing the deletion priority - Always 4 priorityName - Always 'WARN' timestamp - Always NOW() message - Format: "[NAMESPACE]: [FullName] deleted ticket #[TicketId] from [CompanyName]" NAMESPACE - Always TICKET FullName - Full name of user identified by user_id above TicketId - Primary key ID of the ticket being deleted CompanyName - Ticket has a Company via tickets.company_id Situation/Questions Obviously this solution does not work if a ticket is deleted manually from the mysql command line client. However, now I need to. The issues I'm having are as follows: Should I use a PROCEDURE, FUNCTION, or TRIGGER? -- Analysis: TRIGGER - I don't think this will work because I can't pass parameters to it, and it would trigger when my application deleted the row too. PROCEDURE or FUNCTION - Not sure. Should I return the number of deleted rows? If so, that would require a FUNCTION right? How should I account for the absence of a logged in user? -- Possibilities: Using either a PROC or FUNC, require the invoker to pass in a valid user_id Require the user to pass in a string with the name Use the CURRENT_USER - meh Hard code the FullName to just be "Database Administrator" Could the name be an optional parameter? I'm rather green when it comes to sprocs. Assuming I went with the PROC/FUNC approach, is it possible to outright restrict regular DELETE calls to this table, yet still allow users to call this PROC/FUNC to do the deletion for them? Ideally the solution is usable by my application as well, so that my code is DRY.

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  • rails route question

    - by badnaam
    I am trying to build a search functionality which at a high level works like this. 1 - I have a Search model, controller with a search_set action and search views/partial to render the search. 2 - At the home page a serach form is loaded with an empty search object or a search object initialized with session[:search] (which contains user search preferences, zip code, proximity, sort order, per page etc). This form has a post(:put) action to search_set. 3 - When a registered user performs a set the params of the search form are collected and a search record is saved against that user. If a unregistered user performs a search then the search set action simply stores the params in the session[:search]. In either case, the search is executed with the given params and the results are displayed. At this point the url of in the location bar is something like.. http://localhost:3000/searches/search_set?stype=1 At this point if the user simply hits enter on the location bar, I get an error that says "No action responded to show" I am guessing because the URL contains search_set which uses a put method and even though I have a search_show (:get) action (which simply reruns the search in the session or saved in the database) does not get called. How can I handle this situation where I can route a user hitting enter into the location bar to a get method? If this does not explain the problem , please let me know I can share more details/code etc. Thanks!

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  • IIS redirect url for virtual directory

    - by Jouni
    Hello, How i can set redirect url for virtual directory in iis 7.0.I have installed lates url rewrite module 2. ? I could explain my problem with exsample. I have website on my iis 7.0 server: www.mysite.com I desided to create virtual directory sales under my site which is pointing to website root directory.Now I need create redirect url for the vdir. The vdir is pointing same virtual root directory as my site root is The big idea is that i can write on browser www.mysite/sales and i will automaticly redirect to url www.mysite.com?productid=200. I tried to make redirect with rewite url for vdir(not website), but I always get this error message : cannot add duplicate colletion entry of type 'rule' with unique key key attribute 'name' set to "test".This happens when i am pointing for virtual vdir and try to add rule. I can add rules to website level,but rules doesn work. I mean url www.mysite/sales gives me follwing error. I know that key is unique I checked it from web.config. This kind of feature was really easy use in IIS 6.0, just point vdir with your mouse and set properties--a redirect to url. Please some one explain what is right way to do it in IIS 7.0

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  • two view controllers and reusability with delegate

    - by netcharmer
    Newbie question about design patterns in objC. I'm writing a functionality for my iphone app which I plan to use in other apps too. The functionality is written over two classes - Viewcontroller1 and Viewcontroller2. Viewcontroller1 is the root view of a navigation controller and it can push Viewcontroller2. Rest of the app will use only ViewController1 and will never access Viewcontroller2 directly. However, triggered by user events, Viewcontroller2 has to send a message to the rest of the app. My question is what is the best way of achieving it? Currently, I use two level of delegation to send the message out from Viewcontroller2. First send it to Viewcontroller1 and then let Viewcontroller1 send it to rest of the app or the application delegate. So my code looks like - //Viewcontroller1.h @protocol bellDelegate -(int)bellRang:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller1 : UITableViewController <dummydelegate> { id <bellDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller1.m @implementation Viewcontroller1 -(void)viewDidLoad { //some stuff here Viewcontroller2 *vc2 = [[Viewcontroller2 alloc] init]; vc2.delegate = self; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; } -(int)dummyBell:(int)size { return([self.delegate bellRang:size]); } //Viewcontroller2.h @protocol dummyDelegate -(int)dummyBell:(int)size; @end @interface Viewcontroller2 : UITableViewController { id <dummyDelegate> delegate; @end //Viewcontroller2.m @implementation Viewcontroller2 -(int)eventFoo:(int)size { rval = [self.delegate dummyBell:size]; } @end

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  • Can it be done?

    - by bzarah
    We are in design phase of a project whose goal is replatforming an ASP classic application to ASP.Net 4.0. The system needs to be entirely web based. There are several new requirements for the new system that make this a challenging project: The system needs to be database independent. It must, at version 1.0, support MS SQL Server, Oracle, MySQL, Postgres and DB2. The system must be able to allow easy reporting from the database by third party reporting packages. The system must allow an administrative end user to create their own tables in the database through the web based interface. The system must allow an administrative end user to design/configure a user interface (web based) where they can select tables and fields in the system (either our system's core tables or their own custom tables created in #3) The system must allow an administrative end user to create and maintain relationships between these custom created tables, and also between these tables and our system's core tables. The system must allow an administrative end user to create business rules that will enforce validation, show/hide UI elements, block certain actions based on the identity of specific users, specific user groups or privileges. Essentially it's a system that has some core ticket tracking functionality, but allows the end user to extend the interface, business rules and the database. Is this possible to build in a .Net, Web based environment? If so, what do you think the level of effort would be to get this done? We are currently a 6 person shop, with 2.5 full time developers.

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  • MySQL table doesn't update, can't find the error message

    - by mobius1ski
    My knowledge level here is like zilch, but please bear with me. I have a site built in PHP/MySQL that uses the Smarty template engine. There's a registration form that, for some reason, isn't posting the data to the DB. Here's the function: $u = new H_User; $u->setFrom($p); $smarty->assign('user', $u); $val = $u->validate(); if ($val === true) { $temp = new H_User; $temp->orderBy('user_id desc'); $temp->find(true); $next_id = $temp->user_id + 1; $u->user_id = $next_id; $u->user_password = md5($p['user_password']); $u->user_regdate = mktime(); $u->user_active = 0; $u->insert(); $hash = md5($u->user_email . $u->user_regdate); $smarty->assign('hash', $hash); $smarty->assign('user', $u); $smarty->assign('registration_complete', true); $d = new H_Demographic; $d->setFrom($p); $d->insert(); How can I figure out what's wrong here? I don't get any PHP errors and I don't know how to get MySQL to display the errors that might indicate what's wrong with that syntax.

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  • How do I deal with different requests that map to the same response?

    - by daxim
    I'm designing a Web service. The request is idempotent, so I chose the GET method. The response is relatively expensive to calculate and not small, so I want to get caching (on the protocol level) right. (Don't worry about memoisation at my part, I have that already covered; my question here is actually also paying attention to the Web as a whole.) There's only one mandatory parameter and a number of optional parameter with default values if missing. For example, the following two map to the same representation of the response. (If this is a dumb way to go about it the interface, propose something better.) GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data HTTP/1.1 GET /service?mandatory_parameter=some_data;optional_parameter=default1;another_optional_parameter=default2;yet_another_optional_parameter=default3 HTTP/1.1 However, I imagine clients do not know this and would treat them separate and therefore waste cache storage. What should I do to avoid violating the golden rule of caching? Make up a canonical form, document it (e.g. all parameters are required after all and need to be sorted in a specific order) and return a client error unless the required form is met? Instead of an error, redirect permanently to the canonical form of a request? Or is it enough to not mind how the request looks like, and just respond with the same ETag for same responses?

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  • While in a transaction, how can reads to an affected row be prevented until the transaction is done?

    - by Mahn
    I'm fairly sure this has a simple solution, but I haven't been able to find it so far. Provided an InnoDB MySQL database with the isolation level set to SERIALIZABLE, and given the following operation: BEGIN WORK; SELECT * FROM users WHERE userID=1; UPDATE users SET credits=100 WHERE userID=1; COMMIT; I would like to make sure that as soon as the select inside the transaction is issued, the row corresponding to userID=1 is locked for reads until the transaction is done. As it stands now, UPDATEs to this row will wait for the transaction to be finished if it is in process, but SELECTs simply will read the previous value. I understand this is the expected behaviour in this case, but I wonder if there is a way to lock the row in such a way that SELECTs will also wait until the transaction is finished to return the values? The reason I'm looking for that is that at some point, and with enough concurrent users, it could happen that while the previous transaction is in process someone else reads the "credits" to calculate something else. Ideally the code run by that someone else should wait for the transaction to finish to use the new value, because otherwise it could lead to irreversible desync issues. Note that I don't want to lock the entire table for reads, just the specific row. Also, I could add a boolean "locked" field to the tables and set it to 1 every time I'm starting a transaction but I don't really feel this is the most elegant solution here, unless there is absolutely no other way to handle this through mysql directly.

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  • Hacking the WordPress Category Widget

    - by Scott B
    The default WordPress categories widget does not allow excluding named categories. I've created a plugin which creates adds a Customized category widget to the "Available Widgets" listing which gives me some control over the items I want to exclude. Code is below... <?php /* Plugin Name: Custom Categories Widget Plugin URI: http://mysite.com Description: Removes the Specified Categories from the Default Categories Listing Author: Me Version: 1.0 Author URI: http://mysite.com */ function widget_my_categories() { wp_list_categories('exclude=1'); } function my_categories_init() { register_sidebar_widget(__('Custom Categories Widget'), 'widget_my_categories'); } add_action("plugins_loaded", "my_categories_init"); ?> However, I want the generated code to emulate the same look and feel as the default categories widget (ie, the word "categories" appears as a bullet in my widget, but as an h4 level heading element in the default categories widget. I want the same structure to be applied to my custom widget as the default categories widget has. I'd also like to give the user the options to specify the title of the categories listing (just as they can do in the default categories widget). btw, I'm using id 1 which is the default "uncategorized" category and assigning items to that category that I don't want to appear in the listing. Any help much appreciated! :)

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  • changing the intensity of lighten/darken on bitmaps using PorterDuffXfermode in the Android Paint class

    - by user1116836
    Ok my orignal question has changed. How do i change the intensity of how something like this is effected? DayToNight.setXfermode(new PorterDuffXfermode(Mode.DST_IN)); in my dream world it would have worked like this DayToNight.setXfermode(new PorterDuffXfermode(Mode.DST_IN(10))); the 10 being a level of intensity. An example would be if I had a flickering candle, when the candle burns bright I want the bitmaps I am drawing to the screen to retain their origanol color and brightness, when it flickers I want the bitmaps to be almost blacked out, and I want to darken the Bitmaps as the light dims. I have equations, timers and all that figured out, just not how to actually apply it to change the color/brightness. Maybe burning the images is what im looking for? I just want to change the lightness lol. I feel like using paint.setShader might be a solution, but the information in this area is pretty limited from what i have been able to find. Any help would be appreciated. edit: to be crystal clear, i am looking for a way to lighten/darken bitmaps as I draw them to the canvas

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  • Framework or CMS for php web development?

    - by rocknroll
    Hi all, I am a C++,Unix developer who has never dabbled in web development apart from creating simple HTML pages. I am going to change that and develop a website at a personal level soon. I am going to use php,mysql on a linux machine. In this regard I am browsing through relevant literature. The language isn't a problem but reading about CMS's and frameworks is confusing. And since I am new to web development, the number of CMS's and Frameworks are overwhelming. ? My question is do I need to have knowledge of one or more CMS' and/or Frameworks like Drupal,Joomla,Zend,Wordpress etc. If yes which is the best open source CMS' and/or Framework suggested for a newbie. ?? If the answer to the above question is yes, does the choice changes if one delves into the realms of commercial web development? Note:- I will be developing on a Linux machine, using open source tools. Thanks in advance

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  • Clustered Graphs Visualization Techniques

    - by jameszhao00
    I need to visualize a relatively large graph (6K nodes, 8K edges) that has the following properties: Distinct Clusters. Approximately 50-100 Nodes per cluster and moderate interconnectivity at the cluster level Minimal (5-10 inter-cluster edges per cluster) interconnectivity between clusters Let global edge overlap = The edge overlaps caused by directly visualizing a graph of Clusters = {A, B, C, D, E}, Edges = {Pentagram of those clusters, which is non-planar by the way and will definitely generate edge overlap if you draw it out directly} Let Local Edge Overlap = the above but { A, B, C, D, E } are just nodes. I need to visualize graphs with the above in a way that satisfies the following requirements No global edge overlap (i.e. edge overlaps caused by inter-cluster properties is not okay) Local edge overlap within a cluster is fine Anyone have thoughts on how to best visualize a graph with the requirements above? One solution I've come up with to deal with the global edge overlap is to make sure a cluster A can only have a max of 1 direct edge to another cluster (B) during visualization. Any additional inter-cluster edges between cluster A - C, A - D, ... are disconnected and additional node/edges A - A_C, C - C_A, A - A_D, D - D_A... are created. Anyone have any thoughts?

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  • Which approach is better in term of saving the data? How to handle this?

    - by dewacorp.alliances
    Hi there I have Telerik grid within a Telerik grid. Due to I have a different view between insert and edit mode, so as per suggested I have to use UserControl instead. Inside this control, it could have another Telerik grid plus bunch of ASP.NET textboxes. This thing works well. My dilemma is this: Scenario 1: Handling the save in the user control - OnClick event I have a button to save this. I need to get the value of the "selected grid" so I am using this snippet below and again works well. foreach (GridDataItem dataItem in radgrdTariffNetworkDistributorRateItems.SelectedItems) { string ID = dataItem.OwnerTableView.DataKeyValues[dataItem.ItemIndex]["SupplierRateItemID"].ToString(); } But then how do I get the id of the parent grid where this control sit? I use the following this event to save: protected void bttnNetworkTariffReviewItemInsert_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) the e of course not the right one though?!?!? GridDataItem parentItem = (GridDataItem)e.Item.OwnerTableView.ParentItem; string reviewID = parentItem.OwnerTableView.DataKeyValues[parentItem.ItemIndex]["ID"].ToString(); Scenario 2: Handling the save in the page instead (OnInsertCommand on the master grid) With this approach works well to get id of the grid etc BUT I am having a problem to get selected grid in the UserControl and plus couple controls value. How do I make this feasible? Logically, I should handle this at the user control level to save but again because the user control relying on the child grid I am having trouble to get this value. I am appreciated your suggestion.

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  • Conceptual data modeling: Is RDF the right tool? Other solutions?

    - by paprika
    I'm planning a system that combines various data sources and lets users do simple queries on these. A part of the system needs to act as an abstraction layer that knows all connected data sources: the user shouldn't [need to] know about the underlying data "providers". A data provider could be anything: a relational DBMS, a bug tracking system, ..., a weather station. They are hooked up to the query system through a common API that defines how to "offer" data. The type of queries a certain data provider understands is given by its "offer" (e.g. I know these entities, I can give you aggregates of type X for relationship Y, ...). My concern right now is the unification of the data: the various data providers need to agree on a common vocabulary (e.g. the name of the entity "customer" could vary across different systems). Thus, defining a high level representation of the entities and their relationships is required. So far I have the following requirements: I need to be able to define objects and their properties/attributes. Further, arbitrary relations between these objects need to be represented: a verb that defines the nature of the relation (e.g. "knows"), the multiplicity (e.g. 1:n) and the direction/navigability of the relation. It occurs to me that RDF is a viable option, but is it "the right tool" for this job? What other solutions/frameworks do exist for semantic data modeling that have a machine readable representation and why are they better suited for this task? I'm grateful for every opinion and pointer to helpful resources.

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  • Switching application-wide theme programmatically?

    - by Cheezmeister
    EDIT: Related question here: Multi theme support in android app I'm attempting to get a user-chosen theme and feel like I'm frustratingly close. Defining the theme in AndroidManifest.xml works as it should, but (as best I can tell) can't change based on app preferences: <application android:theme="@style/theme_sunshine" android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> Alternatively, setting it dynamically in each activity also works: someChosenTheme = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(this).getString("themePreference", "theme_twilight"); setTheme(someOtherChosenTheme); But that seems messy, and I'd rather set the theme for the entire app in one place. My first thought was to grab the application context as soon as my main activity launches and do it there: getApplicationContext().setTheme(R.style.theme_dummy); As best I can tell[0], this ought to do the trick, but in fact it's not doing anything--the entire app has the default Android style. Is the above valid, and if so, might I be doing something else dumb? I'm working in API level 3 if that matters. Prods in the right direction greatly appreciated! [0] http://developer.android.com/reference/android/content/Context.html#setTheme%28int%29 http://developer.android.com/reference/android/content/Context.html#getApplicationContext%28%29

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  • How can I save a file on an http server using just http requests and javascript?

    - by user170902
    hi all, I'm trying to understand some of the basics of web servers/html/javasacript etc. I'm not interested in any of the various frameworks like php/asp, i'm just trying to get a low level look at things (for now). At the moment I'm trying to understand how data can be sent to/saved on the backend, but i must admit that i'm getting a bit lost under the various specs/technical stuff on w3 at the moment! If I have some data, say xml, that I want to save on the backend how do I go about it? I assume that I would have to use something like an HTTP PUT or POST Request to an html doc that contains some javascript that in turn would process the data, e.g. save it somewhere. Now from googling around I can see that this doesn't seem to be the case, so my assumptions are completely wrong! So how is it done? Can it be done, or do I have to use something like php or asp? TIA. bg

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  • Removing index.php on MAMP

    - by djeetee
    this questions was asked before and has had many responses. The problem is nothing i tried worked. Background: i use MAMP and all of my web project are located under WebProjects which I relocated out of its standard location within the MAMP folder in Applications. so my structure is something like this: Documents/WebProjects/GreatSite/Application/... What happened so far: my understanding is that removing index.php can be done either through httpd.conf or .htaccess. anytime i touched httpd.conf, Apache refuses to start. I tried various edits to .htaccess including the one in codeigniter.com/wiki/mod-rewrite and the last one from a post on SO which is this: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] this give me the following error when i access the site: An Error Was Encountered Unable to determine what should be displayed. A default route has not been specified in the routing file. I have updated config.php to have $config['index_page'] = ''; and i have placed the .htaccess file in the GreatSite folder. One other note, my CI system folder is up a level from GreatSite. Not sure if this has any impact. also, apache has the module loaded. so, I'm hoping someone has successfully done this on MAMP and could provide direction specifically around the content of their .htaccess (or even httpd.conf), it's location and any other mods they had to make to get this going. thanks

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  • ASP.NET configuration inheritance

    - by NowYouHaveTwoProblems
    I have an ASP.NET application that defines a custom configuration section in web.config. Recently I had a customer who wanted to deploy two instances of the application (for testing in addition to an existing production application). The configuration chosen by the customer was: foo.com - production application foo.com/Testing - test application In this case, the ASP.NET configuration engine decided to apply the settings at foo.com/web.config to foo.com/Testing/web.config. Thankfully this caused a configuration error because the section was redefined at the second level rather than giving the false impression that the two web applications were isolated. What I would like to do is to specify that my configuration section is not inherited and must be re-defined for any web application that requires it but I haven't been able to find a way to do this. My web.config ends up something like this <configuration> <configSections> <section name="MyApp" type="MyApp.ConfigurationSection"/> </configSections> <MyApp setting="value" /> <NestedSettingCollection> <Item key="SomeKey" value="SomeValue" /> <Item key="SomeOtherKey" value="SomeOtherValue" /> </NestedSettingCollection> </MyApp> </configuration>

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  • Difference between SET autocommit=1 and START TRANSACTION in mysql (Have I missed something?)

    - by tkolar
    Hey there, I am reading up on transactions in mysql and am not sure whether I have grasped something specific correctly, and I want to be sure I understood that correctly, so here goes. I know what a transaction is supposed to do, I'm just not sure whether I understood the statement semantics or not. So, my question is, is anything wrong, (and, if that is the case, what is wrong) with the following: By default, autocommit mode is enabled in mysql. Now, SET autocommit=0; will begin a transaction, SET autocommit=1; will implicitly commit. It is possible to COMMIT; as well as ROLLBACK;, in both of which cases autocommit is still set to 0 afterwards (and a new transaction is implicitly started). START TRANSACTION; will basically SET autocommit=0; until a COMMIT; or ROLLBACK; takes place. In other words, START TRANSACTION; and SET autocommit=0; are equivalent, except for the fact that START TRANSACTION; does the equivalent of implicitly adding a SET autocommit=0; after COMMIT; or ROLLBACK; If that is the case, I don't understand http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.5/en/set-transaction.html#isolevel_serializable - seeing as having an isolation level implies that there is a transaction, meaning that autocommit should be off anyway? And if there is another difference (other than the one described above) between beginning a transaction and setting autocommit, what is it? Thanks a lot in advance for your help!

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  • Stored Procedure, 'incorrect syntax error'

    - by jacksonSD
    Attempting to figure out sp's, and I'm getting this error: "Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 5 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'Procedure'." the error seems to be on the if, but I can drop other existing tables with stored procedures the exact same way so I'm not clear on why this isn't working. can anyone shed some light? Begin Set nocount on Begin Try Create Procedure uspRecycle as if OBJECT_ID('Recycle') is not null Drop Table Recycle create table Recycle (RecycleID integer constraint PK_integer primary key, RecycleType nchar(10) not null, RecycleDescription nvarchar(100) null) insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('1','Compost','Product is compostable, instructions included in packaging') insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('2','Return','Product is returnable to company for 100% reuse') insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('3','Scrap','Product is returnable and will be reclaimed and reprocessed') insert into Recycle (RecycleID,RecycleType,RecycleDescription) values ('4','None','Product is not recycleable') End Try Begin Catch DECLARE @ErrMsg nvarchar(4000); SELECT @ErrMsg = ERROR_MESSAGE(); Throw 50001, @ErrMsg, 1; End Catch -- checking to see if table exists and is loaded: If (Select count(*) from Recycle) >1 begin Print 'Recycle table created and loaded '; Print getdate() End set nocount off End

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  • How to approach socket programming between C# -> Java (Android)

    - by Alex
    I've recently knocked up a server/client app for Windows & Android that allows one to send a file from Windows to an android phone over a socket connection. It works great for a single file but trying to send multiple files over in a single stream is causing me problems. I've also realised that aside from the binary data, I will need to send messages over the socket to indicate error states and other application messages. I have little experience with network programming and and wondering what is the best way forward. Basically the C# server side of the app just goes into a listening state and uses Socket.SendFile to transmit the file. On Android I use the standard Java Socket.getInputStream() to receive the file. That works great for a single file transfer, but how should I handle multiple files and error/messaging information? Do I need to use a different socket for each file? Should I be using a higher level framework to handle this or can I send everything over the single socket? Any other suggestions for frameworks or learning materials?

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  • has_many through and saving to join table

    - by Paul
    I have the following: class Invite < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :invite_recipients has_many :recipients, :through => :invite_recipients end class InviteRecipient < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :invite belongs_to :user_comm validates_associated :user_comm, :invite validates_uniqueness_of :user_comm_id, :scope => :invite_id end class UserComm < ActiveRecord::Base end I'd like to create a method for Invite with invite_text and a list of UserComms as the variables and then have it create a new invite with the following validations: 1. All UserComms are unique 2. The invite isn't saved unless all the associated InviteRecipients are saved as well (in other words, the invite isn't valid unless all the created InviteRecipients are valid) I'm not familiar with how to create model functions. Moreover, when I try something like this: i = Invite.new(:invite_text => 'come join') ir1 = InviteRecipient.new(:invite => i, :user_comm => user_comm1) ir2 = InviteRecipient.new(:invite => i, :user_comm => user_comm2) i.invite_recipients = [uc1, uc2] i.save! I get: SystemStackError: stack level too deep

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  • svn copy causes "...(403 Forbidden) in reponse to PROPFIND", other actions work

    - by Hops
    Just for a short bit of background, the reason I'm tracking this particular subversion oddity down is because I found it troubleshooting our new Maven setup (specifically the release plugin). release:prepare gives me the same error buried in a stack trace. Executing this command... svn copy http://[server]/svn/tran1/myproject/trunk http://[server]/svn/tran1/myproject/tags/testtag ...gives me the following error: svn: Server sent unexpected return value (403 Forbidden) in response to PROPFIND request for '/svn/tran1' I thought this might be an authentication issue, but I'm able to do pretty much every other subversion thing I can think of. Checkout, add, commit and update all work from the command line. And here's where it gets really weird... I can create branches using Eclipse's Subclipse plugin. This might not be all that strange if Eclipse isn't actually doing an svn copy. tran1 also has a sibling subversion repository next to it. The copy command works fine there. The URL it's trying to get permission for also looks wrong. It's asking about /svn/tran1, when the permissions are set up one level deeper /svn/tran1/myproject/ Any ideas what might be causing my error? Thanks.

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