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  • What about parallelism across network using multiple PCs?

    - by MainMa
    Parallel computing is used more and more, and new framework features and shortcuts make it easier to use (for example Parallel extensions which are directly available in .NET 4). Now what about the parallelism across network? I mean, an abstraction of everything related to communications, creation of processes on remote machines, etc. Something like, in C#: NetworkParallel.ForEach(myEnumerable, () => { // Computing and/or access to web ressource or local network database here }); I understand that it is very different from the multi-core parallelism. The two most obvious differences would probably be: The fact that such parallel task will be limited to computing, without being able for example to use files stored locally (but why not a database?), or even to use local variables, because it would be rather two distinct applications than two threads of the same application, The very specific implementation, requiring not just a separate thread (which is quite easy), but spanning a process on different machines, then communicating with them over local network. Despite those differences, such parallelism is quite possible, even without speaking about distributed architecture. Do you think it will be implemented in a few years? Do you agree that it enables developers to easily develop extremely powerfull stuff with much less pain? Example: Think about a business application which extracts data from the database, transforms it, and displays statistics. Let's say this application takes ten seconds to load data, twenty seconds to transform data and ten seconds to build charts on a single machine in a company, using all the CPU, whereas ten other machines are used at 5% of CPU most of the time. In a such case, every action may be done in parallel, resulting in probably six to ten seconds for overall process instead of forty.

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • JPA - Real primary key generated ID for references

    - by Val
    I have ~10 classes, each of them, have composite key, consist of 2-4 values. 1 of the classes is a main one (let's call it "Center") and related to other as one-to-one or one-to-many. Thinking about correct way of describing this in JPA I think I need to describe all the primary keys using @Embedded / @PrimaryKey annotations. Question #1: My concern is - does it mean that on the database level I will have # of additional columns in each table referring to the "Center" equal to number of column in "Center" PK? If yes, is it possible to avoid it by using some artificial unique key for references? Could you please give an idea how real PK and the artificial one needs to be described in this case? Note: The reason why I would like to keep the real PK and not just use the unique id as PK is - my application have some data loading functionality from external data sources and sometimes they may return records which I already have in local database. If unique ID will be used as PK - for new records I won't be able to do data update, since the unique ID will not be available for just downloaded ones. At the same time it is normal case scenario for application and it just need to update of insert new records depends on if the real composite primary key matches. Question #2: All of the 10 classes have common field "date" which I described in an abstract class which each of them extends. The "date" itself is never a key, but it always a part of composite key for each class. Composite key is different for each class. To be able to use this field as a part of PK should I describe it in each class or is there any way to use it as is? I experimented with @Embedded and @PrimaryKey annotations and always got an error that eclipselink can't find field described in an abstract class. Thank you in advance! PS. I'm using latest version of eclipselink & H2 database.

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  • SQL Server: Can you help me with this query?

    - by rlb.usa
    I want to run a diagnostic report on our MS SQL 2008 database server. I am looping through all of the databases, and then for each database, I want to look at each table. But, when I go to look at each table (with tbl_cursor), it always picks up the tables in the database 'master'. I think it's because of my tbl_cursor selection : SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_type = 'base table' How do I fix this? Here's the entire code: SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @table_count INT DECLARE @db_cursor VARCHAR(100) DECLARE database_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT name FROM sys.databases where name<>N'master' OPEN database_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM database_cursor INTO @db_cursor WHILE @@Fetch_status = 0 BEGIN PRINT @db_cursor SET @table_count = 0 DECLARE @table_cursor VARCHAR(100) DECLARE tbl_cursor CURSOR FOR SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_type = 'base table' OPEN tbl_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM tbl_cursor INTO @table_cursor WHILE @@Fetch_status = 0 BEGIN DECLARE @table_cmd NVARCHAR(255) SET @table_cmd = N'IF NOT EXISTS( SELECT TOP(1) * FROM ' + @table_cursor + ') PRINT N'' Table ''''' + @table_cursor + ''''' is empty'' ' --PRINT @table_cmd --debug EXEC sp_executesql @table_cmd SET @table_count = @table_count + 1 FETCH NEXT FROM tbl_cursor INTO @table_cursor END CLOSE tbl_cursor DEALLOCATE tbl_cursor PRINT @db_cursor + N' Total Tables : ' + CAST( @table_count as varchar(2) ) PRINT N'' -- print another blank line SET @table_count = 0 FETCH NEXT FROM database_cursor INTO @db_cursor END CLOSE database_cursor DEALLOCATE database_cursor SET NOCOUNT OFF

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  • How to make Spring load a JDBC Driver BEFORE initializing Hibernate's SessionFactory?

    - by Bill_BsB
    I'm developing a Spring(2.5.6)+Hibernate(3.2.6) web application to connect to a custom database. For that I have custom JDBC Driver and Hibernate Dialect. I know for sure that these custom classes work (hard coded stuff on my unit tests). The problem, I guess, is with the order on which things get loaded by Spring. Basically: Custom Database initializes Spring load beans from web.xml Spring loads ServletBeans(applicationContext.xml) Hibernate kicks in: shows version and all the properties correctly loaded. Hibernate's HbmBinder runs (maps all my classes) LocalSessionFactoryBean - Building new Hibernate SessionFactory DriverManagerConnectionProvider - using driver: MyCustomJDBCDriver at CustomDBURL I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL Hibernate loads the Custom Dialect My CustomJDBCDriver finally gets registered with DriverManager (log messages) SettingsFactory runs SchemaExport runs (hbm2ddl) I get a SQLException: No suitable driver found for CustomDBURL (again?!) Application get successfully deployed but there are no tables on my custom Database. Things that I tried so far: Different techniques for passing hibernate properties: embedded in the 'sessionFactory' bean, loaded from a hibernate.properties file. Nothing worked but I didn't try with hibernate.cfg.xml file neither with a dataSource bean yet. MyCustomJDBCDriver has a static initializer block that registers it self with the DriverManager. Tried different combinations of lazy initializing (lazy-init="true") of the Spring beans but nothing worked. My custom JDBC driver should be the first thing to be loaded - not sure if by Spring but...! Can anyone give me a solution for this or maybe a hint for what else I could try? I can provide more details (huge stack traces for instance) if that helps. Thanks in advance.

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  • "Invalid use of Null" when using Str() with a Null Recordset field, but Str(Null) works fine

    - by Mike Spross
    I'm banging my head against the wall on this one. I was looking at some old database reporting code written in VB6 and case across this line (the code is moving data from a "source" database into a reporting database): rsTarget!VehYear = Trim(Str(rsSource!VehYear)) When rsSource!VehYear is Null, the above line generates an "Invalid use of Null" run-time error. If I break on the above line and type the following in the Immediate pane: ?rsSource!VehYear It outputs Null. Fine, that makes sense. Next, I try to reproduce the error: ?Str(rsSource!VehYear) I get an "Invalid use of Null" error. However, if I type the following into the Immediate window: ?Str(Null) I don't get an error. It simply outputs Null. If I repeat the same experiment with Trim() instead of Str(), everything works fine. ?Trim(rsSource!VehYear) returns Null, as does ?Trim(Null). No run-time errors. So, my question is, how can Str(rsSource!VehYear) possibly throw an "Invalid use of Null" error when Str(Null) does not, when I know that rsSource!VehYear is equal to Null?

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  • SpeechRecognition issue

    - by Leosa99 _
    I'm creating a Speech Recognition Application like Siri in vb.net. I have found a database of words (in a .txt file) and i want to insert them in my application but its not working . Here my code : Dim WithEvents reco As New Recognition.SpeechRecognitionEngine Dim IA_VOICE As New SpeechSynthesizer Dim List_Word As New Recognition.SrgsGrammar.SrgsOneOf("IN database.") Public Sub New() reco.SetInputToDefaultAudioDevice() Dim gram As New Recognition.SrgsGrammar.SrgsDocument Dim WORD_RULE As New Recognition.SrgsGrammar.SrgsRule("MOT") LOAD_DATABSE(Application.StartupPath & "\RECO_WORD\DataBase.txt") WORD_RULE.Add(List_Word) gram.Rules.Add(WORD_RULE) gram.Root = WORD_RULE reco.LoadGrammar(New Recognition.Grammar(gram)) reco.RecognizeAsync() End Sub Private Sub reco_RecognizeCompleted(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Speech.Recognition.RecognizeCompletedEventArgs) Handles reco.RecognizeCompleted reco.RecognizeAsync() End Sub Private Sub reco_SpeechRecognized(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Speech.Recognition.RecognitionEventArgs) Handles reco.SpeechRecognized If e.Result.Text = "hi" Then MsgBox("HI!") End If End Sub Sub LOAD_DATABSE(Database_PATH As String) Dim lines() As String = File.ReadAllLines(Database_PATH) Dim numberLinesTotal = lignes.Length Dim numberlignedone As Integer = 0 Dim MOT As New StreamReader(BDD_PATH) While numberlignedone <> numberLinesTota numberlignedone += 1 Dim ITEM As New Recognition.SrgsGrammar.SrgsItem(MOT.ReadLine) Word_List.Items.Add(ITEMS) 'I think its here that its not working. End While MsgBox("END LOADING") End Sub</code> If you know why its not working... Thanks.

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  • jquery with php loading file

    - by Marcus Solv
    I'm trying to use jquery with a simple php code: $('#some').click(function() { <?php require_once('some1.php?name="some' + index + '"'); ?> }); It shows no error, so I don't know what is wrong. In some1 I have: <?php //Start session session_start(); //Include database connection details require_once('../sql/config.php'); //Connect to mysql server $link = mysql_connect(DB_HOST, DB_USER, DB_PASSWORD); if(!$link) { die('Failed to connect to server: ' . mysql_error()); } //Select database $db = mysql_select_db(DB_DATABASE); if(!$db) { die("Unable to select database"); } //Function to sanitize values received from the form. Prevents SQL injection function clean($str) { $str = @trim($str); if(get_magic_quotes_gpc()) { $str = stripslashes($str); } return mysql_real_escape_string($str); } //Sanitize the POST values $name = clean($_GET['name']); ?> It's not complete because I want to make a sql command (insert). I want when I click in #some to execute that file (create a entry in the table that isn't define yet).

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  • how do I get the program to Know which annotation is selected and be able to access properties of it

    - by kevin Mendoza
    So far my program can display a database of custom annotation views. Eventually I want my program to be able to display extra information after a button on the annotation bubble is clicked. Each element in the database has a unique entry Number, so I thought it would be a good idea to add this entry number as a property of the custom annotation. The problem I am having is that after the button is clicked and the program switches to a new view I am unable to retrieve the entry number of the annotation I selected. Below is the code that assigns the entry Number property to the annotation: for (id mine in mines) { workingCoordinate.latitude = [[mine latitudeInitial] doubleValue]; workingCoordinate.longitude = [[mine longitudeInitial] doubleValue]; iProspectAnnotation *tempMine = [[iProspectAnnotation alloc] initWithCoordinate:workingCoordinate]; [tempMine setTitle:[mine mineName]]; [tempMine setAnnotationEntryNumber:[mine entryNumber]]; } [mines dealloc]; When the button on an annotation is selected, this is the code that initializes the new view: - (void)mapView:(MKMapView *)mapView annotationView:(MKAnnotationView *)view calloutAccessoryControlTapped:(UIControl *)control { mineInformationController *controller = [[mineInformationController alloc] initWithNibName:@"mineInformationController" bundle:nil]; controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCrossDissolve; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } and lastly is my attempt at retrieving the entryNumber property from the new view so that I can compare it to the mines database and retrieve more information on the array element. iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *appDelegate = (iProspectFresno_LiteAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; NSMutableArray* mines = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithArray:(NSMutableArray *)appDelegate.mines]; for(id mine in mines) { if ([[mine entryNumber] isEqualToNumber: /*the entry Number of the selected annotation*/]) { /* display the information in the mine object */ } } So how do I access this entry number property in this new view controller?

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  • What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

    - by Curtis White
    This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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  • Inefficient 'ANY' LINQ clause

    - by Focus
    I have a query that pulls back a user's "feed" which is essentially all of their activity. If the user is logged in the query will be filtered so that the feed not only includes all of the specified user's data, but also any of their friends. The database structure includes an Actions table that holds the user that created the action and a UserFriends table which holds any pairing of friends using a FrienderId and FriendeeId column which map to UserIds. I have set up my LINQ query and it works fine to pull back the data I want, however, I noticed that the query gets turned into X number of CASE clauses in profiler where X is the number of total Actions in the database. This will obviously be horrible when the database has a user base larger than just me and 3 test users. Here's the SQL query I'm trying to achieve: select * from [Action] a where a.UserId = 'GUID' OR a.UserId in (SELECT FriendeeId from UserFriends uf where uf.FrienderId = 'GUID') OR a.UserId in (SELECT FrienderId from UserFriends uf where uf.FriendeeId = 'GUID') This is what I currently have as my LINQ query. feed = feed.Where(o => o.User.UserKey == user.UserKey || db.Users.Any(u => u.UserFriends.Any(ufr => ufr.Friender.UserKey == user.UserKey && ufr.isApproved) || db.Users.Any(u2 => u2.UserFriends.Any(ufr => ufr.Friendee.UserKey == user.UserKey && ufr.isApproved) ))); This query creates this: http://pastebin.com/UQhT90wh That shows up X times in the profile trace, once for each Action in the table. What am I doing wrong? Is there any way to clean this up?

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  • Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

    - by davetron5000
    Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

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  • How to convert "0" and "1" to false and true

    - by Chris
    I have a method which is connecting to a database via Odbc. The stored procedure which I'm calling has a return value which from the database side is a 'Char'. Right now I'm grabbing that return value as a string and using it in a simple if statement. I really don't like the idea of comparing a string like this when only two values can come back from the database, 0 and 1. OdbcCommand fetchCommand = new OdbcCommand(storedProc, conn); fetchCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; fetchCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@column ", myCustomParameter); fetchCommand.Parameters.Add("@myReturnValue", OdbcType.Char, 1). Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; fetchCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); string returnValue = fetchCommand.Parameters["@myReturnValue"].Value.ToString(); if (returnValue == "1") { return true; } What would be the proper way to handle this situation. I've tried 'Convert.ToBoolean()' which seemed like the obvious answer but I ran into the 'String was not recognized as a valid Boolean. ' exception being thrown. Am I missing something here, or is there another way to make '1' and '0' act like true and false? Thanks!

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  • Generating an NSDictionary from an SQL statement.

    - by Ed Wist
    I am trying to generate an NSDictonary that can be used to populate a listview with data I retrieved from an SQL statement. when I go to create an array and add them it adds the arrays for ALL my keys and not just for the current key. I've tried a removeAllObjects on the array but for some reason that destroys ALL my data that I already put in the dictionary. //open the database if(sqlite3_open([dbPath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { const char *sql = "select alphaID, word from words order by word"; sqlite3_stmt *selectStatement; //prepare the select statement int returnValue = sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sql, -1, &selectStatement, NULL); if(returnValue == SQLITE_OK) { NSMutableArray *NameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSString *alphaTemp = [[NSString alloc] init]; //loop all the rows returned by the query. while(sqlite3_step(selectStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { NSString *currentAlpha = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(selectStatement, 1)]; NSString *definitionName = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(selectStatement, 2)]; if (alphaTemp == nil){ alphaTemp = currentAlpha; } if ([alphaTemp isEqualToString:(NSString *)currentAlpha]) { [NameArray addObject:definitionName]; } else if (alphaTemp != (NSString *)currentAlpha) { [self.words setObject:NameArray forKey:currentAlpha]; [NameArray removeAllObjects]; [NameArray addObject:definitionName]; } } } The Statement above adds all the "keys" but then removes all the array elements for all keys. if I take out the removeAllKeys it adds ALL the array elements for ALL keys. I don't want this I want it to add the array elements FOR the specific key then move on to the next key. in the end I want a NSDictonary with A (array) Alpha (string) Apple (string) B (array) Beta (string) Ball (string) C (array) Code (string) ...

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  • How to alter Postgres table data based on its contents?

    - by williamjones
    This is probably a super simple question, but I'm struggling to come up with the right keywords to find it on Google. I have a Postgres table that has among its contents a column of type text named content_type. That stores what type of entry is stored in that row. There are only about 5 different types, and I decided I want to change one of them to display as something else in my application (I had been directly displaying these). It struck me that it's funny that my view is being dictated by my database model, and I decided I would convert the types being stored in my database as strings into integers, and enumerate the possible types in my application with constants that convert them into their display names. That way, if I ever got the urge to change any category names again, I could just change it with one alteration of a constant. I also have the hunch that storing integers might be somewhat more efficient than storing text in the database. First, a quick threshold question of, is this a good idea? Any feedback or anything I missed? Second, and my main question, what's the Postgres command I could enter to make an alteration like this? I'm thinking I could start by renaming the old content_type column to old_content_type and then creating a new integer column content_type. However, what command would look at a row's old_content_type and fill in the new content_type column based off of that?

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  • Select multi-select form from array

    - by Budove
    Here's the issue. I have a database column called pymnt_meth_pref, which contains a comma separated string of payment methods chosen from a multiselect form. <td>Payment Methods Used:<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Cash">I can pay with cash.<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Check">I can pay by check.<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Credit Card">I can pay by credit card.<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="pyment_meth_pref[]" value="Paypal">I can pay with Paypal.<br /> </td> This array is posted to a variable and turned into a comma separated string if (isset($_POST['pyment_meth_pref'])) $pymntmethpref = implode(", ", $_POST['pyment_meth_pref']); if (isset($_POST['pyment_meth_acc'])) $pymntmethacc = implode(", ", $_POST['pyment_meth_acc']); This is then inserted into the database as a comma separated string. What I would like to do, is take this string and apply the values to the original form when the user goes back to the form as 'pre-selected' checkboxes, indicated that the user has already selected those values previously, and keeping those values in the database if they choose to edit any other information in the form. I'm assuming this would need to be done with javascript but if there is a way to do it with PHP I'd rather do it that way.

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  • ReflectionTypeLoadException when I try to run Enable-Migrations with Entity Framework 5.0

    - by Eric Anastas
    I'm trying to use Entity Framework for the first time on one of my projects. I'm using the code first workflow to automatically create my database. Intitaly setting up the database worked fine. Now I'm trying to migrate changes in my classes into the database. The tutorial I'm reading says I need to run "Enable-Migrations" in the package manager console. Yet when I do this I get the following error PM> Enable-Migrations System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes(RuntimeModule module) at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes() at System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.FindType[TBase](String typeName, Func`2 filter, Func`2 noType, Func`3 multipleTypes, Func`3 noTypeWithName, Func`3 multipleTypesWithName) at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.GetContextTypeRunner.RunCore() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.Run() Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. What am I doing wrong? How do I retrieve the loader exceptions property? Also NuGet says I have EF 5.0, but Version property of the EntityFramework item in my project references says 4.4.0.0. I'm not sure if this is related.

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  • FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

    - by goober
    I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Accessing an Access DB from Outlook via VBA

    - by camastanta
    Hi The situation: In Outlook I get a message from a server. The content of the message needs to be put into an Access db. But, there may not exist another message with the same date. So, I need to look into a db if there is already a message with the same date and time. If there exists one, then it needs to be replaced and otherwise the message needs to be added to the database. The database contains a list of current positions from the vehicles on the road. The problem: I have problems to compare a date time with a date time in an Access DB via VBA. The query I use returns no records but there is a record in the database. This is the query I use: adoRS.Open "SELECT * FROM currentpositions WHERE ((currentpositions. [dateLT])=" & "#" & date_from_message & "#" & ")", adoConn, adOpenStatic, adLockOptimistic Second I need to now what the result is of that query. How can I determine the number of records that my query gives me? Thanks camastanta

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  • ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

    - by chucknelson
    I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

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  • Editable, growable DataGrid that retains values on postback and updates underlying DataTable

    - by jlstrecker
    I'm trying to create an ASP.NET/C# page that allows the user to edit a table of data, add rows to it, and save the data back to the database. For the table of data, I'm using a DataGrid whose cells contain TextBoxes or CheckBoxes. I have a button for adding rows (which works) and a button for saving the data. However, I'm quite stuck on two things: The TextBoxes and CheckBoxes should retain their values on postback. So if the user edits a TextBox and clicks the button to add more rows, the edits should be retained when the page reloads. However, the edits should not be saved to the database at this point. When the user clicks the save button, or anytime before, the DataTable underlying the DataGrid needs to be updated with the values of the TextBoxes and CheckBoxes so that the DataTable can be sent to the database. I have a method that does this, but I can't figure out when to call it. Any help getting this to work, or suggestions of alternative user interfaces that would behave similarly, would be appreciated.

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  • how run Access 2007 module in Vb6?

    - by Mahmoud
    I have created a module in access 2007 that will update linked tables, but I wanted to run this module from vb6. I have tried this code from Microsoft, but it didnt work. Sub AccessTest1() Dim A As Object Set A = CreateObject("Access.Application") A.Visible = False A.OpenCurrentDatabase (App.Path & "/DataBase/acc.accdb") A.DoCmd.RunMacro "RefreshLinks" End Sub What I am aiming to do, is to allow my program to update all linked tables to new links, in case the program has been used on other computer In case you want to take a look at the module program, here it is: Sub CreateLinkedJetTable() Dim cat As ADOX.Catalog Dim tbl As ADOX.Table Set cat = New ADOX.Catalog ' Open the catalog. cat.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection Set tbl = New ADOX.Table ' Create the new table. tbl.Name = "Companies" Set tbl.ParentCatalog = cat ' Set the properties to create the link. tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Link Datasource") = CurrentProject.Path & "/db3.mdb" tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Remote Table Name") = "Companies" tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Create Link") = True ' To link a table with a database password set the Link Provider String ' tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Link Provider String") = "MS Access;PWD=Admin;" ' Append the table to the tables collection. cat.Tables.Append tbl Set cat = Nothing End Sub Sub RefreshLinks() Dim cat As ADOX.Catalog Dim tbl As ADOX.Table Set cat = New ADOX.Catalog ' Open the catalog. cat.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection Set tbl = New ADOX.Table For Each tbl In cat.Tables ' Verify that the table is a linked table. If tbl.Type = "LINK" Then tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Link Datasource") = CurrentProject.Path & "/db3.mdb" ' To refresh a linked table with a database password set the Link Provider String 'tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Link Provider String") = "MS Access;PWD=Admin;" End If Next End Sub

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  • NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

    - by mybrokengnome
    I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

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  • lapply slower than for-loop when used for a BiomaRt query. Is that expected?

    - by ptocquin
    I would like to query a database using BiomaRt package. I have loci and want to retrieve some related information, let say description. I first try to use lapply but was surprise by the time needed for the task to be performed. I thus tried a more basic for-loop and get a faster result. Is that expected or is something wrong with my code or with my understanding of apply ? I read other posts dealing with *apply vs for-loop performance (Here, for example) and I was aware that improved performance should not be expected but I don't understand why performance here is actually lower. Here is a reproducible example. 1) Loading the library and selecting the database : library("biomaRt") athaliana <- useMart("plants_mart_14") athaliana <- useDataset("athaliana_eg_gene",mart=athaliana) 2) Querying the database : loci <- c("at1g01300", "at1g01800", "at1g01900", "at1g02335", "at1g02790", "at1g03220", "at1g03230", "at1g04040", "at1g04110", "at1g05240" ) I create a function for the use in lapply : foo <- function(loci) { getBM("description","tair_locus",loci,athaliana) } When I use this function on the first element : > system.time(foo(cwp_loci[1])) utilisateur système écoulé 0.020 0.004 1.599 When I use lapply to retrieve the data for all values : > system.time(lapply(loci, foo)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.220 0.000 16.376 I then created a new function, adding a for-loop : foo2 <- function(loci) { for (i in loci) { getBM("description","tair_locus",loci[i],athaliana) } } Here is the result : > system.time(foo2(loci)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.204 0.004 10.919 Of course, this will be applied to a big list of loci, so the best performing option is needed. I thank you for assistance. EDIT Following recommendation of @MartinMorgan Simply passing the vector loci to getBM greatly improves the query efficiency. Simpler is better. > system.time(lapply(loci, foo)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.236 0.024 110.512 > system.time(foo2(loci)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.208 0.040 116.099 > system.time(foo(loci)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.028 0.000 6.193

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  • How to put a pre-existing sqlite file into <Application_Home>/Library/?

    - by Byron Cox
    My app uses Core Data. I have run the app in the simulator which has successfully created and populated the corresponding sqlite file. I now want to get this pre-existing sqlite file on to an actual device and be part of my app. I have located the simulator generated sqlite file at /Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/6.0/Applications/identifier/Documents/myapp.sqlite and dragged it into Xcode. This has added it to my application bundle but not in an appropriate directory (with the consequence that the sqlite file can be read but not written to). From reading about the file system I believe that the best place to put the sqlite file would be in a custom directory 'Database' under Application_Home/Library/. I don't seem to be able to do this within Xcode and despite searching I am unable to figure out how to do the following: (1) Create a sub-directory called 'Database' in Application_Home/Library/ ? (2) Transfer the sqlite file to my newly created 'Database' directory ? Many thanks to @Daij-Djan of his answer below. One other question: the path to the sqlite file will be used by the persistent store coordinator. Now depending on the size of the sqlite file it may take a while to copy or move. How can you ensure that the example code provided by @Daij-Djan has executed and finished before the persistent store coordinator tries to reference the sqlite file? Thanks for any help in advance.

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