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  • What is the most simple way to execute java class every 30 seconds

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    I've been reading about java/spring/hibernate and worked trough a "dummy" examples so I told my friend to recommend something a bit harder for me, and now I'm stuck.. here is the simplest class I could think of package spring.com.practice; public class Pitcher { private String shout; public String getShout() { return shout; } public void setShout(String shout) { this.shout = shout; } public void voice() { System.out.println(getShout()); } } What is the most simple way to print out something by calling metod voice() from spring beans, and do it repeadatly every 30 seconds lets say, here is what I've got so far : <bean id="simpleTrigger" class="org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SimpleTriggerBean"> <property name="jobDetail" ref="jobSchedulerDetail" /> <property name="startDelay" value="0" /> <property name="repeatInterval" value="30" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SchedulerFactoryBean"> <property name="schedulerName" value="pitcherScheduler" /> <property name="triggers"> <list> <ref bean="simpleTrigger" /> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="pitcher" class="spring.com.practice.Pitcher"> <property name="shout" value="I started executing..."></property> </bean> And yes I'm trying to run this on Jboss 5, I'm building a project with maven.

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  • Incorrect component when querying immediately after insert using NHibernate

    - by Am
    I have the following mapping for my table in MySql: <class name="Tag, namespace" table="tags" > <id name="id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native"></generator> </id> <property name="name" type="String" not-null="true"></property> <component name="record_dates" class="DateMetaData, namespace" > <property name="created_at" type="DateTime" not-null="true"></property> <property name="updated_at" type="DateTime" not-null="true"></property> </component> </class> As you see the record_dates property is defined as a component field of type DateMetaDate. Both created_at and updated_at fields in 'tags' table are updated via triggers. Thus I can insert a new record like such: var newTag = new Tag() { name = "some string here" } Int32 id = (Int32)Session.Save(tag); Session.Flush(); ITag t = Session.Get<Tag>(id); ViewData["xxx"] = t.name; // -----> not null ViewData["xxx"] = t.record_dates.created_at; // -----> is null However when querying the same record back immediately after it was inserted the record_dates field ends up null even though in the table those fields have got values. Can any one please point out why the Session.Get ignores getting everything back from the table? is it because it caches the newly created record for which the records_dates is null? If so how can it be told to ignore the cached version?

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  • Accessing the value of an input element with XPath in an XSLT

    - by asymmetric
    Hi! I'm developing a web app that has a button that triggers an XSLT transformation of the document DOM, with a stylesheet fetched via AJAX. Here's a portion of the HTML: <html> <head> <title>Static Javascript-based XMR Form Creator</title> </head> <body> <h1 id="title">Static Javascript-based XMR Form Creator</h1> <div class="opt_block" id="main_opts"> Form name <input type="text" id="form_name" /> Form cols <input type="text" id="form_cols" size="3" maxlength="3" /> </div> <button id="generate">Generate source</button> <textarea rows="20" cols="50" id="xmr_source" ></textarea> </body> Inside the stylesheet, I want to access the value attribute of the first input field, the one with id form_name. The XSLT looks like this: <xsl:template match="/html/body/div[@id = 'main_opts']" > <form> <xsl:attribute name="fname"> <xsl:value-of select="input[@id = 'form_name']/@value" /> </xsl:attribute> </form> </xsl:template> The problem is that the XPath that should do the work: <xsl:value-of select="input[@id = 'form_name']/@value" /> returns nothing. Can anyone help?

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  • Ajax Request using jQuery in Rails

    - by Steve
    Hi... I am sending an Ajax Request using jQuery. What happens is that I am getting an "405 Method Not Allowed" Error. I am just posting a form, which would get the detail from the form and insert it into the DB. Just the usual stuff.I am using WEBrick that comes as default with the rails package. Can somebody please tell me how to fix this. This is the code that triggers the Ajax Request $.post($(this).attr("action") + ".js",$(this).serialize(),null,"script"); Response Headers Cache-Control no-cache Allow GET, PUT, DELETE Content-Type text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Length 9502 Server WEBrick/1.3.1 (Ruby/1.9.1/2009-12-07) Date Wed, 02 Jun 2010 20:41:33 GMT Connection Keep-Alive Request Headers Host localhost:3000 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X 10.6; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Content-Type application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8 X-Requested-With XMLHttpRequest Referer http://localhost:3000/viewspot/3 Content-Length 141 Pragma no-cache Cache-Control no-cache

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  • LSUIElement behaves inconsistently with activateIgnoringOtherApps

    - by iconmaster
    Specifically, it behaves inconsistently regarding text field focus. I have an LSUIElement popping up a status menu. Within that menu there is a view containing a text field. The text field needs to be selectable -- not necessarily selected by default, but whichever. When the status item is clicked, it triggers [NSApp activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; And it works, about half the time.* The other half the status menu seems to consider itself "in the background" and won't let me put focus on the text field even by clicking on it. (I know the status item click-trigger is firing b/c there's an NSLog on it.) Is this a bug in the way Apple handles these status items, or am I mishandling activateIgnoringOtherApps? *In fact, it seems to fail only the first time after another app is activated. After that it works fine. The complete snippet: -(void)statusItemClicked:(id)sender { //show the popup menu associated with the status item. [statusItem popUpStatusItemMenu:statusMenu]; //activate *after* showing the popup menu to obtain focus for the text field. [NSApp activateIgnoringOtherApps:YES]; }

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  • Start developing a database application using Oracle + Net Beans

    - by Ranhiru
    I have thought of creating my first database application for one of my projects using Oracle and Java. I have chosen Netbeans as my development environment. I have a few questions to getting started. Please bare with me as I'm a complete beginner to Oracle + Netbeans This will be a data intensive (yet still for a college project) database application. I do not need 1000 user concurrency or any other very advanced features but basic stuff such as triggers, stored procedures etc. Will the 11g "Express" (XE) suffice for my requirements? Do i need any Java to Oracle bridge (database connectivity driver eg. ODBC etc) for Netbeans to connect to the oracle database? If yes, what are they? Does Netbeans support Oracle databases natively? Any easy to follow guide on how do i connect to the database and insert/retrieve/display data on a J2SE application? (I know that i should Google this but if there's any guide previously followed by anyone and is considered easy, it would be greatly appreciated.)

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  • How to set JComboBox not to select an element when created? (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    Hi all. Problem: I am using JComboBox, and tried using setSelectionIndex(-1) in my code (this code is placed in caretInvoke()) suggestionComboBox.removeAllItems(); for (int i = 0; i < suggestions.length; i++) { suggestionComboBox.addItem(suggestions[i]); } suggestionComboBox.setSelectedIndex(-1); suggestionComboBox.setEnabled(true); This is the initial setting when it was added to a pane: suggestionComboBox = new JComboBox(); suggestionComboBox.setEditable(false); suggestionComboBox.setPreferredSize(new Dimension(25, 25)); suggestionComboBox.addActionListener(new SuggestionComboBoxListener()); When the caretInvoke triggers the ComboBox initialisation, even before the user selects an element, the actionPerformed is already triggered (I tried a JOptionPane here): First popup (notice that "flow byte_jump" is selected): Second popup (I think the setSelectionIndex is executed) Then in the end: The problem is: My program autoinserts the selected text when the user selects an element from the ComboBox. So without the user selecting anything, it is automatically inserted already. How can I overcome the problem in this situation? Thanks.

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  • Broken JS Loop with Google Maps...

    - by Oscar Godson
    My code is below, and I had an issue with nearly the same code, and it was fixed here on StackOverflow, but, again, its not working. I haven't changed the working code, but i did wrap it in the for...in loop youll see below. The issue is that no matter what marker I click it always triggers the last marker/infoWindow that was placed. $(function(){ var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(45.522015,-122.683811); var settings = { zoom: 10, center: latlng, disableDefaultUI:true, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.SATELLITE }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), settings); $.getJSON('api',function(json){ for (var property in json) { if (json.hasOwnProperty(property)) { var json_data = json[property]; var the_marker = new google.maps.Marker({ title:json_data.item.headline, map:map, clickable:true, position:new google.maps.LatLng( parseFloat(json_data.item.geoarray[0].latitude), parseFloat(json_data.item.geoarray[0].longitude) ) }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: '<div><h1>'+json_data.item.headline+'</h1><p>'+json_data.item.full_content+'</p></div>' }); new google.maps.event.addListener(the_marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map,the_marker); }); } } }); }); Thank you for whoever figures this out!

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  • echo php javascript alert?

    - by Anaes Arias
    How can I echo this javascript if the php error messages is called? I have an error message setting that when a user misses his username or password it triggers an error message. The php error message is called by a php code. Here is the code: <?php echo showmessage($msg) ?> I have an alert message in javascript that when called it will make a javascript css pop up alert box. IF the javascript code is present it will show the alert box right away after reload. Here is code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { jqxAlert.alert('Alert Message'); }) </script> How can I incorporate so that when the php echo message comes up it will trigger the javscript alert message. I was trying an if in php, so something like this code: if ( showmessage($msg) ) { <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { jqxAlert.alert('Alert Message'); }) </script> } How can I echo my javascript message on the php call?

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  • What should I use to increase performance. View/Query/Temporary Table

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I want to know the performance of using Views, Temp Tables and Direct Queries Usage in a Stored Procedure. I have a table that gets created every time when a trigger gets fired. I know this trigger will be fired very rare and only once at the time of setup. Now I have to use that created table from triggers at many places for fetching data and I confirms it that no one make any changes in that table. i.e ReadOnly Table. I have to use this tables data along with multiple tables to join and fetch result for further queries say select * from triggertable By Using temp table select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on select a,b, c from #tx --do something select d,e,f from #tx ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. By Using Views create view viewname ( select ... from triggertable join t2 join t3 and so on ) select a,b, c from viewname --do something select d,e,f from viewname ---do somethign --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. This View can be used in other places as well. So I will be creating at database rather than at sp By Using Direct Query select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something select a,b, c from select ... into #tx from triggertable join t2 join t3 join ... --do something . . --and so on --around 6-7 queries in a row in a stored procedure. Now I can create a view/temporary table/ directly query usage in all upcoming queries. What would be the best to use in this case.

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  • Advice: Python Framework Server/Worker Queue management (not Website)

    - by Muppet Geoff
    I am looking for some advice/opinions of which Python Framework to use in an implementation of multiple 'Worker' PCs co-ordinated from a central Queue Manager. For completeness, the 'Worker' PCs will be running Audio Conversion routines (which I do not need advice on, and have standalone code that works). The Audio conversion takes a long time, and I need to co-ordinate an arbitrary number of the 'Workers' from a central location, handing them conversion tasks (such as where to get the source files, or where to ask for the job configuration) with them reporting back some additional info, such as the runtime of the converted audio etc. At present, I have a script that makes a webservice call to get the 'configuration' for a conversion task, based on source files located on the worker already (we manually copy the source files to the worker, and that triggers a conversion routine). I want to change this, so that we can distribute conversion tasks ("Oy you, process this: xxx") based on availability, and in an ideal world, based on pending tasks too. There is a chance that Workers can go offline mid-conversion (but this is not likely). All the workers are Windows based, the co-ordinator can be WIndows or Linux. I have (in my initial searches) come across the following - and I know that some are cross-dependent: Celery (with RabbitMQ) Twisted Django Using a framework, rather than home-brewing, seems to make more sense to me right now. I have a limited timeframe in which to develop this functional extension. An additional consideration would be using a Framework that is compatible with PyQT/PySide so that I can write a simple UI to display Queue status etc. I appreciate that the specifics above are a little vague, and I hope that someone can offer me a pointer or two. Again: I am looking for general advice on which Python framework to investigate further, for developing a Server/Worker 'Queue management' solution, for non-web activities (this is why DJango didn't seem the right fit).

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  • How do I configure encodings (UTF-8) for code executed by Quartz scheduled Jobs in Spring framework

    - by Martin
    I wonder how to configure Quartz scheduled job threads to reflect proper encoding. Code which otherwise executes fine within Springframework injection loaded webapps (java) will get encoding issues when run in threads scheduled by quartz. Is there anyone who can help me out? All source is compiled using maven2 with source and file encodings configured as UTF-8. In the quartz threads any string will have encoding errors if outside ISO 8859-1 characters: Example config <bean name="jobDetail" class="org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.JobDetailBean"> <property name="jobClass" value="example.ExampleJob" /> </bean> <bean id="jobTrigger" class="org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SimpleTriggerBean"> <property name="jobDetail" ref="jobDetail" /> <property name="startDelay" value="1000" /> <property name="repeatCount" value="0" /> <property name="repeatInterval" value="1" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SchedulerFactoryBean"> <property name="triggers"> <list> <ref bean="jobTrigger"/> </list> </property> </bean> Example implementation public class ExampleJob extends QuartzJobBean { private Log log = LogFactory.getLog(ExampleJob.class); protected void executeInternal(JobExecutionContext ctx) throws JobExecutionException { log.info("ÅÄÖ"); log.info(Charset.defaultCharset()); } } Example output 2010-05-20 17:04:38,285 1342 INFO [QuartzScheduler_Worker-9] ExampleJob - vÖvÑvñ 2010-05-20 17:04:38,286 1343 INFO [QuartzScheduler_Worker-9] ExampleJob - UTF-8 The same lines of code executed within spring injected beans referenced by servlets in the web-container will output proper encoding. What is it that make Quartz threads encoding dependent?

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  • Alert and if changes behaviour dom copying

    - by lowkey
    Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance!

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  • jquery focusin() and preventing bubbling.

    - by DA
    I'm showing a div via an onclick event. If you click outside the div, I want to hide it. To do so, I'm binding a one time click event on the body: $('body').one('click.myDivPopup', function(e) { ...close my div... }); Within the div itself, I tell it to not propogate events so that actually clicking within the div won't trigger a click on the body: $myDiv.click(function(e){e.stopPropagation()}); This works fine as intended. I also want to hide the div if one tabs out of the div. My thinking was that in that scenario, I could use a focusin event on the body: $('body').one('focusin.myDivPopup', function(e) { ...close my div... }); Again, I don't want the events to bubble out of the div itself, so added this: $myDiv.focusin(function(e){e.preventDefault()}); This does NOT work. Changing focus within elements within myDiv triggers the focusin event on the body. Is this maybe a bug in jQuery? If so is there a better way to accomplish this?

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  • Is it possible that two requests at the same time double this code? (prevent double database entry)

    - by loostro
    1) The controller code (Symfony2 framework): $em = $this->getDoctrine()->getEntityManager(); // get latest toplist $last = $em->getRepository('RadioToplistBundle:Toplist')->findOneBy( array('number' => 'DESC') ); // get current year and week of the year $week = date('W'); $year = date('Y'); // if: // [case 1]: $last is null, meaning there are no toplists in the database // [case 2]: $last->getYear() or $last->getWeek() do not match current // year and week number, meaning that there are toplists in the // database, but not for current week // then: // create new toplist entity (for current week of current year) // else: // do nothing (return) if($last && $last->getYear() == $year && $last->getWeek() == $week) return; else { $new = new Toplist(); $new->setYear($year); $new->setWeek($week); $em->persist($new); $em->flush(); } This code is executed with each request to view toplist results (frontend) or list of toplists (backend). Anytime someone wants to access the toplist we first check if we should create a new toplist entity (for new week). 2) The question is: Is it possible that: User A goes to mydomain.com/toplist at 00:00:01 on Monday - the code should generate new entity the server slows down and it takes him 3 seconds to execute the code so new toplist entity is saved to database at 00:00:04 on Monday User B goes to mydomain.com/toplist at 00:00:02 on Monday at 00:00:02 there the toplist is not yet saved in database, thus UserB's request triggers the code to create another toplist entity And so.. after a few seconds we have 2 toplist entities for current week. Is this possible? How should I prevent this?

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  • Tab Content Does Not Refresh After First Click of Like Button

    - by Adam
    I've implemented a very simple "like guard" for a facebook tab, and am running into an issue with my test users. Multiple testers are reporting that when they open a tab and click the "like" button, they do not always get a page refresh (so the like guard does not disappear until they do a manual reload). This is using facebook's like button at the top of the page, not one I've coded up myself. As a sanity check, I enabled some simple logging on my server and have been able to recreate the issue - I hit "like" or "unlike" but there seems to be no request made to my index.php page, so definitely no refresh happening. I'm aware of this old bug https://developers.facebook.com/bugs/228778937218386 but this one seems different. For starters, after the first click of the "like" button, if I just continue clicking unlike/like/.... then the refresh happens automatically, as expected. What's especially weird is that if I reload the page after the first failed refresh, the refreshes start working again as expected, ie the first update to my like status triggers a page refresh. Some possibly (?) relevant info: My Tab is part of a test page, and is unpublished I am only using http hosting for the tab content, since my https isn't set up yet So far I've just tested with other admins - so maybe user role affects this? Curious to see if anyone has run into this issue before.

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  • How to ignore the validation of Unknown tags ?

    - by infant programmer
    One more challenge to the XSD capability,I have been sending XML files by my clients, which will be having 0 or more undefined or [call] unexpected tags (May appear in hierarchy). Well they are redundant tags for me .. so I have got to ignore their presence, but along with them there are some set of tags which are required to be validated. This is a sample XML: <root> <undefined_1>one</undefined_1> <undefined_2>two</undefined_2> <node>to_be_validated</node> <undefined_3>two</undefined_3> <undefined_4>two</undefined_4> </root> And the XSD I tried with: <xs:element name="root" type="root"></xs:element> <xs:complexType name="root"> <xs:sequence> <xs:any maxOccurs="2" minOccurs="0"/> <xs:element name="node" type="xs:string"/> <xs:any maxOccurs="2" minOccurs="0"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType XSD doesn't allow this, due to certain reasons. The above mentioned example is just a sample. The practical XML comes with the complex hierarchy of XML tags .. Kindly let me know if you can get a hack of it. By the way, The alternative solution is to insert XSL-transformation, before validation process. Well, I am avoiding it because I need to change the .Net code which triggers validation process, which is supported at the least by my company.

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  • Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

    - by Coding Gorilla
    I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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  • Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

    - by Kettch19
    I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

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  • What do I do about a Java program that spawned two instaces of itself?

    - by user288915
    I have a java JAR file that is triggered by a SQL server job. It's been running successfully for months. The process pulls in a structured flat file to a staging database then pushes that data into an XML file. However yesterday the process was triggered twice at the same time. I can tell from a log file that gets created, it looks like the process ran twice simultaneously. This caused a lot of issues and the XML file that it kicked out was malformed and contained duplicate nodes etc. My question is, is this a known issue with Java JVM's spawning multiple instances of itself? Or should I be looking at sql server as the culprit? I'm looking into 'socket locking' or file locking to prevent multiple instances in the future. This is the first instance of this issue that I've ever heard of. More info: The job is scheduled to run every minute. The job triggers a .bat file that contains the java.exe - jar filename.jar The java program runs, scans a directory for a file and then executes a loop to process if the file if it finds one. After it processes the file it runs another loop that kicks out XML messages. I can provide code samples if that would help. Thank you, Kevin

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  • custom sorting or ordering a table without resorting the whole shebang

    - by fuugus
    for ten years we've been using the same custom sorting on our tables, i'm wondering if there is another solution which involves fewer updates, especially since today we'd like to have a replication/publication date and would'nt like to have our replication replicate unnecessary entries. i had a look into nested sets, but it does'nt seem to do the job for us. base table: id | a_sort ---+------- 1 10 2 20 3 30 after inserting insert into table (a_sort) values(15) an entry at the second position. id | a_sort ---+------- 1 10 2 20 3 30 4 15 ordering the table with select * from table order by a_sort and resorting all the a_sort entries, updating at least id=(2,3,4) will of course produce the desired output id | a_sort ---+------- 1 10 4 20 2 30 3 40 the column names, the column count, datatypes, a possible join, possible triggers or the way the resorting is done is/are irrelevant to the problem. also we've found some pretty neat ways to do this task fast. only; how the heck can we reduce the updates in the db to 1 or 2 max. seems like an awfully common problem. the captain obvious in me thougth once "use an a_sort float(53), insert using a fixed value of ordervaluefirstentry+abs(ordervaluefirstentry-ordervaluenextentry)/2".. but this would only allow around 1040 "in between" entries - so never resorting seems a bit problematic ;)

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  • How to speed up a slow UPDATE query

    - by Mike Christensen
    I have the following UPDATE query: UPDATE Indexer.Pages SET LastError=NULL where LastError is not null; Right now, this query takes about 93 minutes to complete. I'd like to find ways to make this a bit faster. The Indexer.Pages table has around 506,000 rows, and about 490,000 of them contain a value for LastError, so I doubt I can take advantage of any indexes here. The table (when uncompressed) has about 46 gigs of data in it, however the majority of that data is in a text field called html. I believe simply loading and unloading that many pages is causing the slowdown. One idea would be to make a new table with just the Id and the html field, and keep Indexer.Pages as small as possible. However, testing this theory would be a decent amount of work since I actually don't have the hard disk space to create a copy of the table. I'd have to copy it over to another machine, drop the table, then copy the data back which would probably take all evening. Ideas? I'm using Postgres 9.0.0. UPDATE: Here's the schema: CREATE TABLE indexer.pages ( id uuid NOT NULL, url character varying(1024) NOT NULL, firstcrawled timestamp with time zone NOT NULL, lastcrawled timestamp with time zone NOT NULL, recipeid uuid, html text NOT NULL, lasterror character varying(1024), missingings smallint, CONSTRAINT pages_pkey PRIMARY KEY (id ), CONSTRAINT indexer_pages_uniqueurl UNIQUE (url ) ); I also have two indexes: CREATE INDEX idx_indexer_pages_missingings ON indexer.pages USING btree (missingings ) WHERE missingings > 0; and CREATE INDEX idx_indexer_pages_null ON indexer.pages USING btree (recipeid ) WHERE NULL::boolean; There are no triggers on this table, and there is one other table that has a FK constraint on Pages.PageId.

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  • How to find out style of NSUserNotification during run-time? Or force close an alert?

    - by Dmitri Shuralyov
    According to "OS X Mountain Lion Release Notes" (https://developer.apple.com/library/mac/#releasenotes/Cocoa/Foundation.html), "The user has ultimate control over what notifications are displayed, and the style (banner, alert, etc). There is no mechanism to override the user preferences." Even though all I want to do is "downgrade" from alert style to banner style... Fine. But can I at least find out whether a notification is of alert or banner style inside the didActivateNotification method? The reason I want to do that is to respond differently according to notification.activationType. When the alert is a banner (which is what I want), clicking its contents is the only possible action, and this both triggers didActivateNotification method and closes the notification banner. When the user chooses alert-style notifications, clicking the alert contents also generates didActivateNotification with the same value of notification.activationType, but it stays on screen instead of going away (it only goes away when the Action button is pressed). I don't want my app to trigger an action repeatedly for the same alert notification, in case the user clicks the content area of an alert notification. An alternative solution would be to force the alert notification bubble to dismiss when the user clicks its contents. Is this possible?

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  • Context.Items.Add on an XML return type?

    - by Scott Schluer
    So I have the following code contained within an HttpModule in an application I've been asked to support: app.Context.Response.ContentType = "text/xml"; app.Context.Items.Add("IpixRoomId", ipixRoomId); app.Context.Items.Add("IpixId", ipixId); app.Context.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.NoCache); app.Context.RewritePath(rewriteUrl, true); What's the purpose of adding data to Context.Items when the content type is XML? EDIT: For clarification, I'm calling up this URL: http://website.com/virtualtour/1971/6284/panorama2flash.swf I assume the SWF file (I know very little about Flash) makes another call to http://website.com/virtualtour/config.xml. The code I pasted above only executes on calls to config.xml. So since it's only the SWF file and config.xml being requested from the server, I'm a little confused. Can the .SWF file have access to HttpContext.Current.Items? Other than the HttpModule, there is no .NET involved in the code, it's a straight request to the SWF file which triggers a call to config.xml but it seems that those Context.Items contain the data needed to make the SWF file display the right virtual tour. I'm just missing where that link happens. It can't happen in the XML, so maybe in Flash?

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  • Fade in an HTML element with raw javascript over 500 miliseconds.

    - by Juan C. Rois
    Hello everybody, Once again I find myself stuck by something that I just don't understand. Any help would be appreciated. I'm working on a modal window, you click something and the background is masked and a modal window shows some content. I have a div with "display:none" and "opacity:0", and when the user triggers the modal, this div will overlay everything and have certain transparency to it. In my mind, what I need to do is: Set the opacity Perform a "for" loop that will check if the opacity is less than the desired value. Inside this loop, perform a "setInterval" to gradually increment the value of the opacity until it reaches the desired value. When the desired value has been reached, perform an "if" statement to "clearInterval". My code so far is as follows: var showMask = document.getElementById('mask'); function fireModal(){ showMask.style.opacity = 0; showMask.style.display = 'block'; var getCurrentOpacity = showMask.style.opacity; var increaseOpacity = 0.02; var finalOpacity = 0.7; var intervalIncrement = 20; var timeLapse = 500; function fadeIn(){ for(var i = getCurrentOpacity; i < finalOpacity; i++){ setInterval(function(){ showMask.style.opacity = i; }, intervalIncrement) } if(getCurrentOpacity == finalOpacity){ clearInterval(); } } fadeIn(); } As you all can guess, this is not working, all it does is set the opacity to "1" without gradually fade it in. Thanks in advance for your help.

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