Search Results

Search found 46581 results on 1864 pages for 'class selector'.

Page 523/1864 | < Previous Page | 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530  | Next Page >

  • C# array of objects - conditional validation

    - by fishdump
    Sorry about the vague title! I have an class with a number of member variables (system, zone, site, ...) public sealed class Cello { public String Company; public String Zone; public String System; public String Site; public String Facility; public String Process; //... } I have an array of objects of this class. private Cello[] m_cellos = null; // ... I need to know whether the array contains objects with the same site but different systems, zones or companies since such a situation would be illegal. I have various other checks to make but they are all along similar lines. The Array class has a number of functions that look promising but I am not very up on defining 'key selector' functions and things like that. Any suggestions or pointers would be greatly appreciated. --- Alistair.

    Read the article

  • When to use @Singleton in a Jersey resource

    - by dexter
    I have a Jersey resource that access the database. Basically it opens a database connection in the initialization of the resource. Performs queries on the resource's methods. I have observed that when I do not use @Singleton, the database is being open at each request. And we know opening a connection is really expensive right? So my question is, should I specify that the resource be singleton or is it really better to keep it at per request especially when the resource is connecting to the database? My resource code looks like this: //Use @Singleton here or not? @Path(/myservice/) public class MyResource { private ResponseGenerator responser; private Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(MyResource.class); public MyResource() { responser = new ResponseGenerator(); } @GET @Path("/clients") public String getClients() { logger.info("GETTING LIST OF CLIENTS"); return responser.returnClients(); } ... // some more methods ... } And I connect to the database using a code similar to this: public class ResponseGenerator { private Connection conn; private PreparedStatement prepStmt; private ResultSet rs; public ResponseGenerator(){ Class.forName("org.h2.Driver"); conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:h2:testdb"); } public String returnClients(){ String result; try{ prepStmt = conn.prepareStatement("SELECT * FROM hosts"); rs = prepStmt.executeQuery(); ... //do some processing here ... } catch (SQLException se){ logger.warn("Some message"); } finally { rs.close(); prepStmt.close(); // should I also close the connection here (in every method) if I stick to per request // and add getting of connection at the start of every method // conn.close(); } return result } ... // some more methods ... } Some comments on best practices for the code will also be helpful.

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework does not map 2 columns from a SqlQuery calling a stored procedure

    - by user1783530
    I'm using Code First and am trying to call a stored procedure and have it map to one of my classes. I created a stored procedure, BOMComponentChild, that returns details of a Component with information of its hierarchy in PartsPath and MyPath. I have a class for the output of this stored procedure. I'm having an issue where everything except the two columns, PartsPath and MyPath, are being mapped correctly with these two properties ending up as Nothing. I searched around and from my understanding the mapping bypasses any Entity Framework name mapping and uses column name to property name. The names are the same and I'm not sure why it is only these two columns. The last part of the stored procedure is: SELECT t.ParentID ,t.ComponentID ,c.PartNumber ,t.PartsPath ,t.MyPath ,t.Layer ,c.[Description] ,loc.LocationID ,loc.LocationName ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierID IS NULL THEN 1 ELSE sup.SupplierID END AS SupplierID ,CASE WHEN sup.SupplierName IS NULL THEN 'Scinomix' ELSE sup.SupplierName END AS SupplierName ,c.Active ,c.QA ,c.IsAssembly ,c.IsPurchasable ,c.IsMachined ,t.QtyRequired ,t.TotalQty FROM BuildProducts t INNER JOIN [dbo].[BOMComponent] c ON c.ComponentID = t.ComponentID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[BOMSupplier] bsup ON bsup.ComponentID = t.ComponentID AND bsup.IsDefault = 1 LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupSupplier] sup ON sup.SupplierID = bsup.SupplierID LEFT JOIN [dbo].[LookupLocation] loc ON loc.LocationID = c.LocationID WHERE (@IsAssembly IS NULL OR IsAssembly = @IsAssembly) ORDER BY t.MyPath and the class it maps to is: Public Class BOMComponentChild Public Property ParentID As Nullable(Of Integer) Public Property ComponentID As Integer Public Property PartNumber As String Public Property MyPath As String Public Property PartsPath As String Public Property Layer As Integer Public Property Description As String Public Property LocationID As Integer Public Property LocationName As String Public Property SupplierID As Integer Public Property SupplierName As String Public Property Active As Boolean Public Property QA As Boolean Public Property IsAssembly As Boolean Public Property IsPurchasable As Boolean Public Property IsMachined As Boolean Public Property QtyRequired As Integer Public Property TotalQty As Integer Public Property Children As IDictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) = New Dictionary(Of String, BOMComponentChild) End Class I am trying to call it like this: Me.Database.SqlQuery(Of BOMComponentChild)("EXEC [BOMComponentChild] @ComponentID, @PathPrefix, @IsAssembly", params).ToList() When I run the stored procedure in management studio, the columns are correct and not null. I just can't figure out why these won't map as they are the important information in the stored procedure. The types for PartsPath and MyPath are varchar(50).

    Read the article

  • How to setPage() a JEditorPane with a localfile which is outside of the .jar file?

    - by Jaguar
    My program has the following path in the .jar file src/test/Program.class and my program is as follow... Program.java package test; import java.io.File; import java.io.IOException; import javax.swing.JEditorPane; import javax.swing.JFrame; public class Program { JEditorPane editorPane; public Program() { File file = new File("temp.htm"); try { file.createNewFile(); editorPane = new JEditorPane(); editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } public JEditorPane getEditorPane(){ return editorPane; } public static void main(String[] args) { JFrame frame = new JFrame(); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setSize(400, 400); frame.setVisible(true); Program p = new Program(); frame.getContentPane().add(p.getEditorPane()); } } The problem is that I have compiled the program in a .jar file. The file.createNewFile(); creates the temp.htm file outside the .jar file So when editorPane.setPage(Program.class.getResource("temp.htm")); is called the file is not found as it searches for file inside the test package. How to setPage() the temp.htm file whiich is outside the .jar file but in the same folder as the .jar file? As the temp.htm is a localfile and I want a relative path instead of an absolute path. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Visual C++ 2010, rvalue reference bug?

    - by Sergey Shandar
    Is it a bug in Visual C++ 2010 or right behaviour? template<class T> T f(T const &r) { return r; } template<class T> T f(T &&r) { static_assert(false, "no way"); return r; } int main() { int y = 4; f(y); } I thought, the function f(T &&) should never be called but it's called with T = int &. The output: main.cpp(10): error C2338: no way main.cpp(17) : see reference to function template instantiation 'T f<int&>(T)' being compiled with [ T=int & ] Update 1 Do you know any C++x0 compiler as a reference? I've tried comeau online test-drive but could not compile r-value reference. Update 2 Workaround (using SFINAE): #include <boost/utility/enable_if.hpp> #include <boost/type_traits/is_reference.hpp> template<class T> T f(T &r) { return r; } template<class T> typename ::boost::disable_if< ::boost::is_reference<T>, T>::type f(T &&r) { static_assert(false, "no way"); return r; } int main() { int y = 4; f(y); // f(5); // generates "no way" error, as expected. }

    Read the article

  • Compressing a database to a single file?

    - by Assimilater
    Hi all. In my contact manager program I have been storing information by reading and writing comma delimited files for each individual contact, and storing notes in a file for each note, and I'm wondering how I could go about shrinking them all into one file effectively. I have attempted using data entry tools in the visual studio toolbox and template class, though I have never quite figured out how to use them. What would be especially convenient is if I could store data as data type IOwner (a class I created) as opposed to strings. I'd also need to figure out how to tell the program what to do when a file is opened (I've noticed in the properties how to associate a file type with the program though am not sure how to tell it what to do when it's opened). Edit: How about rephrasing the question: I have a class IContact with various properties some of them being lists of other class objects. I have a public list of IContact. Can I write Contacts as List(Of IContact) to a file as opposed to a bunch of strings? Second part of the question: I have associated .cms files with my program. But if a user opens the file, what code should the program run through in an attempt to deal with the file? This file is going to contain data that the program needs to read, how do I tell it to read a file when the program is opened vicariously because the file was opened? Does this make the question clearer?

    Read the article

  • How to use StructureMap to inject repository classes to the controller?

    - by Lorenzo
    In the current application I am working on I have a custom ControllerFactory class that create a controller and automatically sets the Elmah ErrorHandler. public class BaseControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { public override IController CreateController( RequestContext requestContext, string controllerName ) { var controller = base.CreateController( requestContext, controllerName ); var c = controller as Controller; if ( c != null ) { c.ActionInvoker = new ErrorHandlingActionInvoker( new HandleErrorWithElmahAttribute() ); } return controller; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance( RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType ) { try { if ( ( requestContext == null ) || ( controllerType == null ) ) return base.GetControllerInstance( requestContext, controllerType ); return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); } catch ( StructureMapException ) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); throw new Exception( ObjectFactory.WhatDoIHave() ); } } } I would like to use StructureMap to inject some code in my controllers. For example I would like to automatically inject repository classes in them. I have already created my repository classes and also I have added a constructor to the controller that receive the repository class public FirmController( IContactRepository contactRepository ) { _contactRepository = contactRepository; } I have then registered the type within StructureMap ObjectFactory.Initialize( x => { x.For<IContactRepository>().Use<MyContactRepository>(); }); How should I change the code in the CreateController method to have the IContactRepository concrete class injected in the FirmController? EDIT: I have changed the BaseControllerFactory to use Structuremap. But I get an exception on the line return (Controller)ObjectFactory.GetInstance( controllerType ); Any hint?

    Read the article

  • PHP Multiple navigation highlights

    - by Blackbird
    I'm using this piece of code below to highlight the "active" menu item on my global navigation. <?php $path = $_SERVER['PHP_SELF']; $page = basename($path); $page = basename($path, '.php'); ?> <ul id="nav"> <li class="home"><a href="index.php">Home</a></li> <li <?php if ($page == 'search') { ?>class="active"<?php } ?>><a href="#">Search</a></li> <li <?php if ($page == 'help') { ?>class="active"<?php } ?>><a href="help.php">Help</a></li> </ul> All works great but, on a couple of pages, I have a second sub menu (sidebar menu) within a global page. I basically need to add a OR type statement into the php somehow, but I haven't a clue a how. Example of what i mean: <li <?php if ($page == 'help') OR ($page == 'help-overview') OR ($page == 'help-cat-1') { ?>class="active"<?php } ?>><a href="#">Search</a></li> Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why do I get null objects in a many-to-many bag?

    - by Jim Geurts
    I have a bag defined for a many-to-many list: <class name="Author" table="Authors"> <id name="Id" column="AuthorId"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" /> <bag name="Books" table="Author_Book_Map" where="IsDeleted=0" fetch="join"> <key column="AuthorId" /> <many-to-many class="Book" column="BookId" where="IsDeleted=0" /> </bag> </class> If I return all author objects using something like the following, I will get what initially appeared to be duplicate Author records: Session.Query<Author>().List<Author>() The extra author objects are created when an author is mapped to Book objects that have IsDeleted = 1 and IsDeleted = 0. Rather than creating one Author object with an enumerable that contains only the books with IsDeleted = 0, it will create two author objects. The first author object has a Books enumerable that contains books with IsDeleted = 0. The second author object will contain an enumerable of null book objects. Similarly, if an object only has one book map, and that map points to a book with IsDeleted = 1, then an author object is returned with a Books collection having one null object. I'm thinking part of the problem stems from the map table objects linking to rows that satisfy the where condition on the bag object but do not meet the many-to-many where condition. This is happening with NHibernate version 3.0.0.4980. Is this a configuration issue or something else?

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Search + Spring

    - by Zane
    I'm trying to integrate Hibernate Search with Spring, but I can't seem to index anything. I was able to get Hibernate Search to work without Spring, but I'm having a problem integrating it with Spring. Any help would be much appreciated. Below is my springmvc-servlet.xml: <bean id="transactionManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="enewsclipsPersistenceUnit" /> </bean> And here is my DAO class: @Repository public class SearchDaoImpl implements SearchDao { JpaTemplate jpaTemplate; @Autowired public SearchDaoImpl(EntityManagerFactory entityManagerFactory) { this.jpaTemplate = new JpaTemplate(entityManagerFactory); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public void updateSearchIndex() { /* Implement the callback method */ jpaTemplate.execute(new JpaCallback() { public Object doInJpa(EntityManager em) throws PersistenceException { List<Article> articles = em.createQuery("select a from Article a").getResultList(); FullTextEntityManager ftEm = Search.getFullTextEntityManager(em); ftEm.getTransaction().begin(); for(Article article : articles) { System.out.println("Indexing Item " + article.getTitle()); ftEm.index(article); } ftEm.getTransaction().commit(); return null; } }); } } I think that it may have to do with the transactions but I'm not exactly sure. If you could just point me in the right direction, that would be helpful too! Thank you.

    Read the article

  • incorrect height in Chrome when "-webkit-appearance: none" and value="" on <input> tag

    - by Avi Steiner
    In Chrome v17.0.963.79 on Windows 7, I seem to be having an inexplicable problem when applying the -webkit-appearance: none style to an <input> tag. The problem is as follows: I have a stylesheet, let's call it potatofoot.css, which consists of the code .tbl { display: table; } .tblRow { display: table-row; } .tblCell { display: table-cell; } input { -webkit-appearance: none; }? and I have an html file, let's call it blech.html, which contains the code <div class="tbl"> <div class="tblRow"> <label class="tblCell">Name</label> <input type="text" class="tblCell" value="I'M NOT EMPTY! OH, YEAH!"> </div><!--end tblRow--> </div><!--end tbl--> This displays fine (see this jsfiddle). But when I empty the value attribute, as in this jsfiddle, the entire table grows from a height of 26px to a height of 31px, the label moves to the bottom, and the input stays at the top. However, if I remove -webkit-appearance: none;, everything shows up the same with and without out the value attribute being filled. What's going on?

    Read the article

  • JavaScript text slideshow not working?

    - by I Build Websites
    I'm making a Javascript slideshow for my blog yet the array doesn't seem to be working. Can someone please say what I've been doing wrong <SCRIPT type="text/javascript"> var blog = new Array() blog[0]= "<h4>Sunday 17 of June 2012</h4><p title='Blog'>Donec tempus risus eget ligula viverra eget placerat odio tincidunt. Duis nisl sem, scelerisque faucibus congue vitae, accumsan at lectus. Cras vestibulum arcu ut lorem luctus eu pharetra tortor ultricies. Nam iaculis orci mauris. Etiam luctus, mauris sed adipiscing ullamcorper, augue enim volutpat sem, ut sagittis ipsum nibh ac nulla. Nam ultrices, quam eget sollicitudin porta, sapien mauris pulvinar augue, posuere hendrerit erat ligula ut magna. Maecenas laoreet nisi vitae magna consectetur a mollis purus tristique. Pellentesque elementum arcu non urna convallis eleifend. Aliquam eu lorem sed risus tempus tempor. Donec malesuada velit in odio vulputate iaculis. In tristique neque quis velit posuere adipiscing. Nullam dui neque, scelerisque non egestas feugiat, pellentesque vitae mauris.</p><hr>" and so the array continues till function display1() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML( blog[0]) } function display2() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[1]) } function display3() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[2]) } function display4() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[3]) } function display5() { document.getElementById(blogShow).innerHTML(blog[4]) } </SCRIPT> <div id="blogShow"> <SCRIPT type="text/javascript">display1()</SCRIPT> </div> <div id="blogNav"> <input type="button" onClick="display2()" value="1" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display3()" value="2" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display4()" value="3" class="button"> <input type="button" onClick="display5()" value="4" class="button"> </div> I know it's all inline and i will clean up after it works

    Read the article

  • How do I alias the scala setter method 'myvar_$(myval)' to something more pleasing when in java?

    - by feydr
    I've been converting some code from java to scala lately trying to tech myself the language. Suppose we have this scala class: class Person() { var name:String = "joebob" } Now I want to access it from java so I can't use dot-notation like I would if I was in scala. So I can get my var's contents by issuing: person = Person.new(); System.out.println(person.name()); and set it via: person = Person.new(); person.name_$eq("sallysue"); System.out.println(person.name()); This holds true cause our Person Class looks like this in javap: Compiled from "Person.scala" public class Person extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public Person(); public void name_$eq(java.lang.String); public java.lang.String name(); public int $tag() throws java.rmi.RemoteException; } Yes, I could write my own getters/setters but I hate filling classes up with that and it doesn't make a ton of sense considering I already have them -- I just want to alias the _$eq method better. (This actually gets worse when you are dealing with stuff like antlr because then you have to escape it and it ends up looking like person.name_\$eq("newname"); Note: I'd much rather have to put up with this rather than fill my classes with more setter methods. So what would you do in this situation?

    Read the article

  • IE8 problems with .animate() of opacity property - descendant remains opaque throughout

    - by Fabian
    Basically I have something like this: <ul> <li> <a> <div class="trigger-layer"></div> <div class="title-layer">Text here</div> <div class="hover-layer"></div> </a> </li> </ul> I use jQuery to animate the <ul> as follow: $ul = xxx (where I assign the selector to var $ul) $ul.animate({opacity: 0}, 1000, function() {$ul.css("display", "none")}); However in IE8, as the <ul> fades off, the <div class="title-layer">Text here</div> remains clear and opaque. Finally the animation ends, the display: none; property is applied onto the <ul> and the text disappears aburptly.

    Read the article

  • Update text on CCLabelTFF end in bad access?

    - by TheDeveloper
    I'm doing a little game in Coco2D and I have a countdown clock Note: As I am just trying to fix a bug, I am not working on cleanup so the timer can stop, etc. Here is my code I'm using to setup the label and start the timer: timer = [CCLabelTTF labelWithString:@"10.0000" fontName:@"Helvetica" fontSize:20]; timerDisplay = timer; timerDisplay.position = ccp(277,310); [self addChild:timerDisplay]; timeLeft = 10; timerObject = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:0.1 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; Note: timeLeft is a double This is updateTimers's code: -(void)updateTimer { NSLog(@"Got Called!"); timeLeft = timeLeft -0.1; [timer setString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",timeLeft]]; timerDisplay = timer; timerDisplay.position = ccp(277,310); [self removeChild:timerDisplay cleanup:YES]; //[self addChild:timerDisplay]; if (timeLeft <= 0) { [timerObject invalidate]; } } When I run this I toggle between crashing on this this: [timer setString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%f",timeLeft]]; and in the green arrow thing it gives Thread 1: EXEC_BAD_ACCESS (code=2, address=0x8) and 0x197a7ff: movl 16(%edi), %esi and in the green arrow thing it gives Thread 1: EXEC_BAD_ACCESS (code=2, address=0x8)

    Read the article

  • which is better: a lying copy constructor or a non-standard one?

    - by PaulH
    I have a C++ class that contains a non-copyable handle. The class, however, must have a copy constructor. So, I've implemented one that transfers ownership of the handle to the new object (as below) class Foo { public: Foo() : h_( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE ) { }; // transfer the handle to the new instance Foo( const Foo& other ) : h_( other.Detach() ) { }; ~Foo() { if( INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE != h_ ) CloseHandle( h_ ); }; // other interesting functions... private: /// disallow assignment const Foo& operator=( const Foo& ); HANDLE Detach() const { HANDLE h = h_; h_ = INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE; return h; }; /// a non-copyable handle mutable HANDLE h_; }; // class Foo My problem is that the standard copy constructor takes a const-reference and I'm modifying that reference. So, I'd like to know which is better (and why): a non-standard copy constructor: Foo( Foo& other ); a copy-constructor that 'lies': Foo( const Foo& other ); Thanks, PaulH

    Read the article

  • Validating Checkbox and Radio Button in C#

    - by Solution
    Hi, I am using c# for coding! Below is my html for checkbox and radion button <input type="radio" style="float: left;" name="documents" id="Checkbox9" value="yes" runat="server" /> <label style="width: 35px!important;" class="checkbox"> <%=GetResourceString("c_HSGStudent")%> </label> <input type="radio" style="float: left;" name="documents" id="Checkbox10" value="no" runat="server" /> <label style="width: 25px!important;" class="checkbox"> <%=GetResourceString("c_HSGParent")%> </label> <input type="radio" style="float: left;" cheked name="documents" id="Radio1" value="yes" runat="server" /> <label style="width: 35px!important;" class="checkbox"> <%=GetResourceString("c_HSGStudent")%> </label> <input type="radio" style="float: left;" name="documents" id="Radio2" value="no" runat="server" /> <label style="width: 25px!important;" class="checkbox"> <%=GetResourceString("c_HSGParent")%> </label> You can see I have two checkboxes and two radio buttons, My problem is that on my submit button click I want to check whether user have checked at-least one checkbox or radio button. It will be good if we can have .NET solution like (customvalidator). Please suggest! Thanks

    Read the article

  • FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

    - by goober
    I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • axis-java2wsdl task classpath setting problem

    - by qkrsppopcmpt
    Hey Guys, here is my build.xml <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <path id='axis2.classpath'> <fileset dir='D:\Tools\axis2-1.5.1-bin\axis2-1.5.1\lib'> <include name='**/*.jar' /> </fileset> </path> <path id='compiled.class.path'> <fileset dir='./bin/pkg'> <include name='*.class' /> </fileset> </path> <taskdef resource="axis-tasks.properties" classpathref="axis2.classpath" /> <target name="run" > <axis-java2wsdl output="out/TestService.wsdl" location="http://localhost:8080/axis2/service/TestService" namespace="service" classname="TestService"> <classpath refid="compiled.class.path"/> <mapping namespace="TestService" package="pkg"/> </axis-java2wsdl> </target> here is my file structure: prj-bin-pkg-TestService.class/////////// prj-src-pkg-TestService.java/////////// prj-build.xml I get java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: TestService. Can anybody tell me how to fix it? Thanks so much. !!!!!!!!!!!!!

    Read the article

  • Best practice on structuring asynchronous mailers (using Sidekiq)

    - by gbdev
    Just wondering what's the best way to go about structuring asynchronous mailers in my Rails app (using Sidekiq)? I have one ActionMailer class with multiple methods/emails... notifier.rb: class Notifier < ActionMailer::Base default from: "\"Company Name\" <[email protected]>" default_url_options[:host] = Rails.env.production? ? 'domain.com' : 'localhost:5000' def welcome_email(user) @user = user mail to: @user.email, subject: "Thanks for signing up!" end ... def password_reset(user) @user = user @edit_password_reset_url = edit_password_reset_url(user.perishable_token) mail to: @user.email, subject: "Password Reset" end end Then for example, the password_reset mail is sent in my User model by doing... user.rb: def deliver_password_reset_instructions! reset_perishable_token! NotifierWorker.perform_async(self) end notifier_worker.rb: class NotifierWorker include Sidekiq::Worker sidekiq_options queue: "mail" def perform(user) Notifier.password_reset(user).deliver end end So I guess I'm wondering a couple things here... Is it possible to define many "perform" actions in one single worker? By doing so I could keep things simple (one notifier/mail worker) as I have it and send many different emails through it. Or should I create many workers? One for each mailer (e.g. WelcomeEmailWorker, PasswordResetWorker, etc) and just assign them all to use the same "mail" queue with Sidekiq. I know it works as it is, but should I break out each of those mail methods (welcome_email, password_reset, etc) into individually mailer classes or is it ok to have them all under one class like Notifier? Really appreciate any advice here. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jQuery draggable removing without changing position of other elements

    - by Yurish
    Hi! I am building a page layout configuration system on jQuery. So everyone, who is using my website can make it personal by moving elements on webpage. But, I have a problem. Every element on my page is a draggable div with option to be removed from page if necessary. When user wants to remove an element, he clicks on inner div and the following function is called: <script language="javascript"> $(function() { $('.close').click(function(){ $(this).parent().hide(); }); }); </script> <div class="main"><div class="close"></div></div> When user wants to add an element on page, he clicks on link and followinf function is called: function addNewWidget(page_name, size){ var page = $('#'+page_name); var closeDiv = $(document.createElement("div")).attr("class", "close").html('X'); closeDiv.click(function(){ $(this).parent().hide(); }); var div = $(document.createElement("div")) div.attr("class", "drag"); div.appendTo(page); closeDiv.appendTo(div); div.draggable({ containment: "#page", scroll: false, grid: [200, 200] }); div.css("top:0; left:0"); div.addClass(size); div.addClass('widget'); } Everything works fine, but when element is removed, other elements, which were on page are moving up. It is because of element positioning in the code. These divs in the code are before div, which was removed, and their absolute top is changed by -heghtOfRemovedElement Is there any way to prevent other elements from moving up?

    Read the article

  • CherryPy always returning HTTP 200 [closed]

    - by DarkArctic
    I'm having a bit of a problem when browsing to a non-existent resource. I get a response code of 200 instead of 404. I'm using the MethodDispatcher and I have a class that overloads the __getattr__ method to instantiate a resource if a child exists or to return AttributeError if one doesn't. My class is always returning the AttributeError correctly, but the data I actually get is always from the last good resource. Here's a simplified (except for __getattr__) version of my class: class BaseResource(object): exposed = True def __init__(self, name): self.children = [] # Pretend this has child resources def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._children: uuid, application, obj_type, server = self._children[name] try: resource = getattr(app[application], obj_type) except AttributeError as e: raise cherrypy.HTTPError(500, e) return resource(uuid) else: raise AttributeError('Child with name \'{}\' could not be found.'.format(name)) def GET(self): cherrypy.log.error('*** {} not found, raising AttributeError'.format(name)) return 'GET request for {}'.format(self._name) So fetching I get the following when I browse to the following resources: http://localhost:8000/users - This resource exists, so it returns it correctly. http://localhost:8000/users/fake - This returns the "users" resource giving an HTTP 200. http://localhost:8000/users/fake/reallyfake - This returns the "users" resource again. So my question is, where can I start looking to find out why my code isn't returning a 404 for a non-existent resource. I'm sure I've done something wrong, but I'm not sure what. Whatever I did wrong I've undone and I'm now getting a 404 returned correctly. I'm sorry I can't give any detail on what the issue was, but I'm honestly not sure what I did.

    Read the article

  • Random number generation in MVC applications

    - by SlimShaggy
    What is the correct way of generating random numbers in an ASP.NET MVC application if I need exactly one number per request? According to MSDN, in order to get randomness of sufficient quality, it is necessary to generate multiple numbers using a single System.Random object, created once. Since a new instance of a controller class is created for each request in MVC, I cannot use a private field initialized in the controller's constructor for the Random object. So in what part of the MVC app should I create and store the Random object? Currently I store it in a static field of the controller class and lazily initialize it in the action method that uses it: public class HomeController : Controller { ... private static Random random; ... public ActionResult Download() { ... if (random == null) random = new Random(); ... } } Since the "random" field can be accessed by multiple instances of the controller class, is it possible for its value to become corrupted if two instances attempt to initialize it simultaneously? And one more question: I know that the lifetime of statics is the lifetime of the application, but in case of an MVC app what is it? Is it from IIS startup till IIS shutdown?

    Read the article

  • Call event from original thread ??

    - by user311883
    Hi all, Here is my problem, I have a class which have a object who throw an event and in this event I throw a custom event from my class. But unfortunately the original object throw the event from another thread and so my event is also throw on another thread. This cause a exception when my custom event try to access from controls. Here is a code sample to better understand : class MyClass { // Original object private OriginalObject myObject; // My event public delegate void StatsUpdatedDelegate(object sender, StatsArgs args); public event StatsUpdatedDelegate StatsUpdated; public MyClass() { // Original object event myObject.AnEvent += new EventHandler(myObject_AnEvent); } // This event is called on another thread private void myObject_AnEvent(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Throw my custom event here StatsArgs args = new StatsArgs(..........); StatsUpdated(this, args); } } So when on my windows form I call try to update a control from the event StatsUpdated I get a cross thread exception cause it has been called on another thread. What I want to do is throw my custom event on the original class thread, so control can be used within it. Anyone can help me ?

    Read the article

  • Using groovy ws with enum types?

    - by Jared
    I'm trying to use groovy ws to call a webservice. One of the properties of the generated class is it's self a class with an enum type. Although the debug messages show that the com.test.FinalActionType is created at runtime when the WSDL is read I can't create an instance of it using code like proxy.create("com.test.FinalActionType") When I try and assign a string to my class uin place of an instance of FinalActionType groovy is not able to do the conversion. How can I get an instance of this class to use in a webservice call? I've pasted the important part of the WSDL below. <xsd:simpleType name="FinalActionType"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="stop"/> <xsd:enumeration value="quit"/> <xsd:enumeration value="continue"/> <xsd:whiteSpace value="collapse"/> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType>

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 519 520 521 522 523 524 525 526 527 528 529 530  | Next Page >