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• I'm trying to grasp the concept of creating a program that uses a SQL Server database, but I'm used

  - by Sergio Tapia

  How can I make a program use a SQL Server database, and have that program work on whatever computer it's installed on. If you've been following my string of questions today, you'd know that I'm making an open source and free Help Desk suite for small and medium businesses. The client application. The client application is a Windows Forms app. On installation and first launch on every client machine, it'll ask for the address of the main Help Desk server. The server. Here I plan to handle all incoming help requests, show them to the IT guys, and provide WCF services for the Client application to consume. My dilemma lies in that, I know how to make the program run on my local machine; but I'm really stumped on how to make this work for everyone who wants to download and install the server bit on their Windows Server. Would I have to make an SQL Script and have it run on the MS SQL server when a user wants to install the 'server' application? Many thanks to all for your valuable time and effort to teach me. It's really really appreciated. :) Edit: To clarify, each business will have their server completely separate from me. I will have no access whatsoever to them nor will they be in any way connected to me. (I don't know why I should clarify this :P ) So, assuming the have ABSOLUTELY NO DATABASE SERVER installed; what can I do?

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• Behavior of local variables in JavaScripts with()-statement

  - by thr

  I noticed some weird (and to my knowledge undefined behavior, by the ECMA 3.0 Spec at least), take the following snippet: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); alert(bar); } alert(bar); It crashes in both Firefox and Chrome, because "bar" doesn't exist in the first alert(); statement, this is as expected. But if you add a declaration of bar inside the with()-statement, so it looks like this: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; alert(bar); } alert(bar); It will produce the following: undefined, 1, g2, undefined It seems as if you create a variable inside a with()-statement most browsers (tested on Chrome or Firefox) will make that variable exist outside that scope also, it's just set to undefined. Now from my perspective bar should only exist inside the with()-statement, and if you make the example even weirder: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; var zoo; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; zoo = function() { return bar; } alert(bar); } alert(bar); alert(zoo()); It will produce this: undefined, 1, g2, undefined, g2 So the bar inside the with()-statement does not exist outside of it, yet the runtime somehow "automagically" creates a variable named bar that is undefined in its top level scope (global or function) but this variable does not refer to the same one as inside the with()-statement, and that variable will only exist if a with()-statement has a variable named bar that is defined inside it. Very weird, and inconsistent. Anyone have an explanation for this behavior? There is nothing in the ECMA Spec about this.

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• How to handle not-enough-isolatedstorage issue deep in data loader?

  - by Edward Tanguay

  I have a silverlight application which loads data from many external data sources into IsolatedStorage, and while loading any of these sources if it does not have enough IsolatedStorage, it ends up in a catch statement. At that point in that catch statement I would like to ask the user to click a button to approve silverlight to increase the IsolatedStorage capacity. The problem is, although I have a "SwitchPage()" method with which I display a page, if I access it at this point it is too deep in the loading process and the application always goes into an endless loop, hangs and crashes. I need a way to branch out of the application completely somehow to an independent UserControl which has a button and code behind which does the increase logic. What is a solution for an application to be able to branch out of a loading process catch statement like this, display a user control which has a button to ask the user to increase the IsolatedStorage? public static void SaveBitmapImageToIsolatedStorageFile(OpenReadCompletedEventArgs e, string fileName) { try { using (IsolatedStorageFile isf = IsolatedStorageFile.GetUserStoreForApplication()) { using (IsolatedStorageFileStream isfs = new IsolatedStorageFileStream(fileName, FileMode.Create, isf)) { Int64 imgLen = (Int64)e.Result.Length; byte[] b = new byte[imgLen]; e.Result.Read(b, 0, b.Length); isfs.Write(b, 0, b.Length); isfs.Flush(); isfs.Close(); isf.Dispose(); } } } catch (IsolatedStorageException) { //handle: present user with button to increase isolated storage } catch (TargetInvocationException) { //handle: not saved } }

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• high cpu in IIS

  - by Miki Watts

  Hi all. I'm developing a POS application that has a local database on each POS computer, and communicates with the server using WCF hosted in IIS. The application has been deployed in several customers for over a year now. About a week ago, we've started getting reports from one of our customers that the server that the IIS is hosted on is very slow. When I've checked the issue, I saw the application pool with my process rocket to almost 100% cpu on an 8 cpu server. I've checked the SQL Activity Monitor and network volume, and they showed no significant overload beyond what we usually see. When checking the threads in Process Explorer, I saw lots of threads repeatedly calling CreateApplicationContext. I've tried installing .Net 2.0 SP1, according to some posts I found on the net, but it didn't solve the problem and replaced the function calls with CLRCreateManagedInstance. I'm about to capture a dump using adplus and windbg of the IIS processes and try to figure out what's wrong. Has anyone encountered something like this or has an idea which directory I should check ? p.s. The same version of the application is deployed in another customer, and there it works just fine. I also tried rolling back versions (even very old versions) and it still behaves exactly the same. Edit: well, problem solved, turns out I've had an SQL query in there that didn't limit the result set, and when the customer went over a certain number of rows, it started bogging down the server. Took me two days to find it, because of all the surrounding noise in the logs, but I waited for the night and took a dump then, which immediately showed me the query.

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• TransactionScope and Transactions

  - by Mike

  In my C# code I am using TransactionScope because I was told not to rely that my sql programmers will always use transactions and we are responsible and yada yada. Having said that It looks like TransactionScope object Rolls back before the SqlTransaction? Is that possible and if so what is the correct methodology for wrapping a TransactionScope in a transaction. Here is the sql test CREATE PROC ThrowError AS BEGIN TRANSACTION --SqlTransaction SELECT 1/0 IF @@ERROR<> 0 BEGIN ROLLBACK TRANSACTION --SqlTransaction RETURN -1 END ELSE BEGIN COMMIT TRANSACTION --SqlTransaction RETURN 0 END go DECLARE @RESULT INT EXEC @RESULT = ThrowError SELECT @RESULT And if I run this I get just the divide by 0 and return -1 Call from the C# code I get an extra error message Divide by zero error encountered. Transaction count after EXECUTE indicates that a COMMIT or ROLLBACK TRANSACTION tatement is missing. Previous count = 1, current count = 0. If I give the sql transaction a name then Cannot roll back SqlTransaction. No transaction or savepoint of that name was found. Transaction count after EXECUTE indicates that a COMMIT or ROLLBACK TRANSACTION statement is missing. Previous count = 1, current count = 2. some times it seems the count goes up, until the app completely exits The c# is just using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { ... Execute Sql scope.Commit() }

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• Calling subactivity from subactivity

  - by yogsma

  I have three activities in my android app. First activity is main application screen which gives option to open second screen containing second activity. But when I click on the button on second activity which was supposed to open third activity screen, I get "Application has stopped unexpectedly" error. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="org.anddev.android.SampleApp" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0"> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:name=".FirstActivity" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> <activity android:name=".SecondActivity" android:label="@string/app_name" > </activity> <activity android:name=".ThirdActivity" android:label="@string/app_name" > </activity> </application>

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• Servlet send image from server and save in client

  - by sangi

  Hi, I'm new and just developing on J2EE. I am modifying an existing application (an OpenSource project). I need to save an image on a client sent by the server, but I do not know how. This activity must be done in a transparent manner without affecting the existing operation of the application. From the tests done I get this error: java.lang.IllegalStateException: getWriter () has Already Been Called for this response. How should carry out this task, according to your own opinion? How do I save on the client, locally, the image? Update: Thanks for the answers. My problem is that: the image is generated on the server, but not for direct client request (there is no link to click on web page), the picture is composed using other services on the Internet. reconstruct the image on the server. This image must be sent to the client to be saved locally. so I'd like it to appear a window where you assign the destination image plus I'd like the rest of the application were not affected by this activity. The application is yet on production. Thank you very much for your response.

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• How to Inject code in c# method calls from a separate app

  - by Fusspawn

  I was curious if anyone knew of a way of monitoring a .Net application's runtime info (what method is being called and such) and injecting extra code to be run on certain methods from a separate running process. say i have two applications: app1.exe that for simplicity's sake could be class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ Somefunc(); } } static void Somefunc() { Console.WriteLine("Hello World"); } } and I have a second application that I wish to be able to detect when Somefunc() from application 1 is running and inject its own code, class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { while(true){ if(App1.SomeFuncIsCalled) InjectCode(); } } static void InjectCode() { App1.Console.WriteLine("Hello World Injected"); } } So The result would be Application one would show Hello World Hello World Injected I understand its not going to be this simple ( By a long shot ) but I have no idea if it's even possible and if it is where to even start. Any suggestions ? I've seen similar done in java, But never in c#. EDIT: To clarify, the usage of this would be to add a plugin system to a .Net based game that I do not have access to the source code of.

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• Achieving Thread-Safety

  - by Smasher

  Question How can I make sure my application is thread-safe? Are their any common practices, testing methods, things to avoid, things to look for? Background I'm currently developing a server application that performs a number of background tasks in different threads and communicates with clients using Indy (using another bunch of automatically generated threads for the communication). Since the application should be highly availabe, a program crash is a very bad thing and I want to make sure that the application is thread-safe. No matter what, from time to time I discover a piece of code that throws an exception that never occured before and in most cases I realize that it is some kind of synchronization bug, where I forgot to synchronize my objects properly. Hence my question concerning best practices, testing of thread-safety and things like that. mghie: Thanks for the answer! I should perhaps be a little bit more precise. Just to be clear, I know about the principles of multithreading, I use synchronization (monitors) throughout my program and I know how to differentiate threading problems from other implementation problems. But nevertheless, I keep forgetting to add proper synchronization from time to time. Just to give an example, I used the RTL sort function in my code. Looked something like FKeyList.Sort (CompareKeysFunc); Turns out, that I had to synchronize FKeyList while sorting. It just don't came to my mind when initially writing that simple line of code. It's these thins I wanna talk about. What are the places where one easily forgets to add synchronization code? How do YOU make sure that you added sync code in all important places?

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• How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

  - by Daniel Schneller

  In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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• Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible?

  - by fyasar

  I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

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• Run Visual Studio with Administrator Rights using app.manifest [ExecutionLevel]

  - by srk

  I need to change the key in a registry in order to restrict the user from using Task Manager, since it is an Kiosk application. My code for changing the registry is working perfectly for Administrator account. But my application is going to be run in normal user account. When i tried to run my application in normal user account, i get the below error : DisableTaskManagerSystem.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the registry key 'HKey_Current_User\Software\Mictrosoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Policies\System' is denied. at Microsoft.win32.RegistryKey.win32Error(int32 errorcode, String str) So i need to run my application with all administrator privileges. For which i am using the below app.manifest. But some how i getting the same error. How to overcome this ? Code in app.manifest : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <ms_asmv2:trustInfo xmlns:ms_asmv2="urn:schemas-microsoft- com:asm.v2"> <ms_asmv2:security> <ms_asmv2:requestedPrivileges> <ms_asmv2:requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator" uiAccess="true"> </ms_asmv2:requestedExecutionLevel> </ms_asmv2:requestedPrivileges> </ms_asmv2:security> </ms_asmv2:trustInfo> </assembly>

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• How to configure a subproject dependency in Maven without deploying jars?

  - by MikeHoss

  I googled this and it seems that no one has an answer, yet it seems like such an elementary thing that it should be possible. I have the following project structure: parent ---sub-project1 ---sub-project2 sub-project2 needs to have sub-project1 as a dependency. So I have this in sub-project2's pom: <dependencies> <dependency> <artifactId>sub-project1</artifactId> <groupId>mygroup</groupId> <version>1.0-SNAPSHOT</version> </dependency> .... When I do this, Maven tries to dowload the sub-project1.jar file, which does not exist because it's not ready for the repo yet. I tried to put a <scope>import</scope> in the dependency, but that didn't work either -- same result. So what do I have to do to get Maven to look at sub-project1 when building sub-project2?

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• How someone using my Facebook website app can post to their pages timeline

  - by user1334414

  I have a website where businesses create content through a PHP backend system. Each time they create a new piece of content, I want it to publish to their Facebook pages timeline (not the users timeline). I have created the authenticate code: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : 'XXXXXXXXXX', status : true, cookie : true, xfbml : true, oauth : true, }); }; (function(d){ var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk'; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; d.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(js); }(document)); </script> <div class="fb-login-button" scope="manage_pages"> Login with Facebook </div> With manage_pages as a scope. I need to know how they can select which page they want the post to go to (if they have more than 1 page), and also how to automatically post to that pages wall when they submit the content (which is done via a PHP form). Thanks

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• Framework or design pattern for mailing all users of a webapp

  - by Todd Owen

  My app takes care of user registration (with the option to receive email announcements), and can easily handle the actual template-based rendering of email for a given user. JavaMail provides the mail transport layer. But how should I design the application layer between the business objects (e.g. User) and the mail transport? The straightforward approach would be a simple, synchronous loop: iterate through the users, queue the emails, and be done with it. "Queue" might mean sending them straight to the MTA (mail server), or to an in-memory queue to be consumed by another thread. However, I also plan to implement features like throttling the rate of emails, processing bounced emails (NDRs), and maintaining status across application restarts. My intuition is that a good design would decouple this from both the business layer and the mail transport layer as much as possible. I wondered if others had solved this problem before, but after much searching I haven't found any Java libraries which seem to fit this problem. Standalone mail apps such as James or list servers are too large in scope; packages like Spring's MailSender or Commons Email are too small in scope (being basically drop-in replacements for JavaMail). For other languages I haven't found anything appropriate either. I'm curious about how other developers have gone about adding bulk mailing to their applications.

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• Remotely connecting two non-local computers with sockets

  - by Velizar Hristov

  This question seems like something very obvious to ask, and yet I spent more than an hour trying to find an answer. First I host and wait for someone to connect. Then, from another instance of the application, I try to connect with a socket - for the constructor, I use InetAddress, port. The port is always right, and everything works if I use "localhost" for the address. However, if I type my IP, I get an IOException. I even sent the application to someone else, gave him my IP, and it didn't work. The aim of the application is to connect two computers. It's in Java. Here is the relevant code. Server: ServerSocket serverSocket = new ServerSocket(port); Socket clientSocket = serverSocket.accept(); Client: InetAddress a = InetAddress.getByName(ip); Socket s = new Socket(a, port); I don't get past that. Obviously, the values of int port and String ip are taken from text fields. Edit: the purpose of my application is to connect two non-local computers.

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• How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

  - by Shailesh Jaiswal

  I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

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• Gdata JavaScript Authsub continues redirect

  - by Krustal

  I am using the JavaScript Google Data API and having issues getting the AuthSub script to work correctly. This is my script currently: google.load('gdata', '1'); function getCookie(c_name){ if(document.cookie.length>0){ c_start=document.cookie.indexOf(c_name + "="); if(c_start!=-1){ c_start=c_start + c_name.length+1; c_end=document.cookie.indexOf(";",c_start); if(c_end==-1) c_end=document.cookie.length; return unescape(document.cookie.substring(c_start, c_end)); } } return ""; } function main(){ var scope = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/'; if(!google.accounts.user.checkLogin(scope)){ google.accounts.user.login(); } else { /* * Retrieve all calendars */ // Create the calendar service object var calendarService = new google.gdata.calendar.CalendarService('GoogleInc-jsguide-1.0'); // The default "allcalendars" feed is used to retrieve a list of all // calendars (primary, secondary and subscribed) of the logged-in user var feedUri = 'http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/default/allcalendars/full'; // The callback method that will be called when getAllCalendarsFeed() returns feed data var callback = function(result) { // Obtain the array of CalendarEntry var entries = result.feed.entry; //for (var i = 0; i < entries.length; i++) { var calendarEntry = entries[0]; var calendarTitle = calendarEntry.getTitle().getText(); alert('Calendar title = ' + calendarTitle); //} } // Error handler to be invoked when getAllCalendarsFeed() produces an error var handleError = function(error) { alert(error); } // Submit the request using the calendar service object calendarService.getAllCalendarsFeed(feedUri, callback, handleError); } } google.setOnLoadCallback(main); However when I run this the page redirects me to the authentication page. After I authenticate it send me back to my page and then quickly sends me back to the authenticate page again. I've included alerts to check if the token is being set and it doesn't seem to be working. Has anyone has this problem?

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• How to prevent chrome from injecting content to webpage

  - by Nazariy

  Recently I have discovered that my application is misbehaving in Google Chrome. On a page with a form, after it was submitted, my application reloads page using simple method like this: header('Location: ' . $url); after that, page is rendered incorrectly and this content is injected to DOM <div id="sbi_camera_button" class="sbi_search" style="left: 0px; top: 0px; position: absolute; width: 29px; height: 27px; border: none; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; z-index: 2147483647; display: none; "></div> After manual page refresh everything works as expected. I'm not sure what causing this behavior, as I'm working in closed local environment and application works fine in Firefox. My application using following libraries (hosted locally): jQuery v1.7.1 jQuery UI 1.8.16 Bootstrap.js v 2.1.1 Can someone suggest me what can possibly cause this issue?

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• Any useful suggestions to figure out where memory is being free'd in a Win32 process?

  - by LeopardSkinPillBoxHat

  An application I am working with is exhibiting the following behaviour: During a particular high-memory operation, the memory usage of the process under Task Manager (Mem Usage stat) reaches a peak of approximately 2.5GB (Note: A registry key has been set to allow this, as usually there is a maximum of 2GB for a process under 32-bit Windows) After the operation is complete, the process size slowly starts decreasing at a rate of 1MB per second. I am trying to figure out the easiest way to quickly determine who is freeing this memory, and where it is being free'd. I am having trouble attaching a memory profiler to my code, and I don't particularly want to override the new/delete operators to track the allocations/deallocations (IOW, I want to do this without re-compiling my code). Can anyone offer any useful suggestions of how I could do this via the Visual Studio debugger? Update I should also mention that it's a multi-threaded application, so pausing the application and analysing the call stack through the debugger is not the most desirable option. I considered freezing different threads one at a time to see if the memory stops reducing, but I'm fairly certain this will cause the application to crash.

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• Validation on ManyToManyField before Save in Models.py

  - by Heyl1

  I have the following models: class Application(models.Model): users = models.ManyToManyField(User, through='Permission') folder = models.ForeignKey(Folder) class Folder(models.Model): company = models.ManyToManyField(Compnay) class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User, related_name='profile') company = models.ManyToManyField(Company) What I would like to do is to check whether one of the users of the Application has the same company as the Application (via Folder). If this is the case the Application instance should not be saved. The problem is that the ManyToManyFields aren't updated until after the 'post-save' signal. The only option seems to be the new m2m_changed signal. But I'm not sure how I then roll back the save that has already happened. Another option would be to rewrite the save function (in models.py, because I'm talking about the admin here), but I'm not sure how I could access the manytomanyfield content. Finally I've read something about rewriting the save function in the admin of the model in admin.py, however I still wouldn't know how you would access the manytomanyfield content. I have been searching for this everywhere but nothing I come across seems to work for me. If anything is unclear, please tell me. Thanks for your help! Heleen

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• Can I commit changes to actual database while debugging C# in Visual Studio?

  - by nathant23

  I am creating a C# application using Visual Studio that uses an SQLExpress database. When I hit f5 to debug the application and make changes to the database I believe what is happening is there is a copy of the database in the bin/debug folder that changes are being made to. However, when I stop the debugging and then hit f5 the next time a new copy of the database is being put in the bin/debug folder so that all the changes made the last time are gone. My question is: Is there a way that when I am debugging the application I can have it make changes to the actual database and those changes are actually saved or will it only make changes to the copy in the bin/debug folder (if that is what is actually happening)? I've seen similar questions, but I couldn't find an answer that said if it's possible to make those changes persistent in the actual .mdf file. The reason I ask is because as I build this application I am continuously adding pieces and testing to make sure they all work together. When I put in test data I am using actual data that I would like to stay in the database. This would just help me not have to reenter the data later. Thanks in advance for any help or information that could help me better understand the process.

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• "Access is denied" by executing .hta file with JScript on Windows XP x64

  - by mem64k

  I have a simple HTML (as HTA) application that shows strange behavior on Windows XP x64 machine. I getting periodically (not every time) error message "Access is denied." when i start the application. The same application on Windows XP 32bit runs just fine... Does somebody has any idea or explanation? Error message: Line: 18 Char: 6 Error: Access is denied. Code: 0 URL: file:///D:/test_j.hta Here is the code of my "test_j.hta": <html> <head> <title>Test J</title> <HTA:APPLICATION ID="objTestJ" APPLICATIONNAME="TestJ" SCROLL="no" SINGLEINSTANCE="yes" WINDOWSTATE="normal" > <script language="JScript"> function main() { //window.alert("test"); window.resizeTo(500, 300); } function OnExit() { window.close(); } </script> </head> <body onload="main()"> <input type="button" value="Exit" name="Exit" onClick="OnExit()" title="Exit"> </body> </html>

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• How to implement jsf validator?

  - by Krishna

  HI, I want to know how to implement Validator in JSF. What is the advantages of declaring the validator-id. When it will be called in the life cycle?. I have implemented the following code. Please find out what is wrong in the code. I am not seeing it called anywhere in the life cycle. <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE faces-config PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD JavaServer Faces Config 1.1//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-facesconfig_1_1.dtd"> <faces-config> <lifecycle> <phase-listener>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfPhaseListener</phase-listener> </lifecycle> <validator> <validator-id>JsfValidator</validator-id> <validator-class>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfValidator</validator-class> </validator> <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>jsfBean</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>javabeat.net.beans.ManagedBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>request</managed-bean-scope> </managed-bean> <navigation-rule> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>success</from-outcome> <to-view-id>success.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> </navigation-rule> </faces-config> public class JsfValidator implements Validator { public JsfValidator() { System.out.println("Inside JsfValidator Constructor"); } @Override public void validate(FacesContext facesContext, UIComponent uiComponent, Object object) throws ValidatorException { System.out.println("Inside Validator"); } }

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• Cross-domain data access in JavaScript

  - by vit

  We have an ASP.Net application hosted on our network and exposed to a specific client. This client wants to be able to import data from their own server into our application. The data is retrieved with an HTTP request and is CSV formatted. The problem is that they do not want to expose their server to our network and are requesting the import to be done on the client side (all clients are from the same network as their server). So, what needs to be done is: They request an import page from our server The client script on the page issues a request to their server to get CSV formatted data The data is sent back to our application This is not a challenge when both servers are on the same domain: a simple hidden iframe or something similar will do the trick, but here what I'm getting is a cross-domain "access denied" error. They also refuse to change the data format to return JSON or XML formatted data. What I tried and learned so far is: Hidden iframe -- "access denied" XMLHttpRequest -- behaviour depends on the browser security settings: may work, may work while nagging a user with security warnings, or may not work at all Dynamic script tags -- would have worked if they could have returned data in JSON format IE client data binding -- the same "access denied" error Is there anything else I can try before giving up and saying that it will not be possible without exposing their server to our application, changing their data format or changing their browser security settings? (DNS trick is not an option, by the way).

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