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  • Defining where on the page the flowdocument I am printing will 'start' and 'end'

    - by Sagi1981
    Dear community. I am almost done with implementing a printing functionality, but I am having trouble getting the last hurdle done with. My problem is, that I am printing some reports, consisting of a header (with information about the person the report is about), a footer (with a page number) and the content in the middle, which is a FlowDocument. Since the flowdocuments can be fairly long, It is very possible that they will span multiple pages. My approach is to make a custom FlowDocumentPaginator which derives from DocumentPaginator. In there i define my header and my footer. However, when I print my page, the flowdocument and my header and footer are on top of eachother. So my question is plain and simple - how do I define from where and to where the flowdocument part on the pages will be placed? here is the code from my custommade Paginator: public class HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator : DocumentPaginator { private DocumentPaginator flowDocumentpaginator; public HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator(FlowDocument document) { flowDocumentpaginator = ((IDocumentPaginatorSource) document).DocumentPaginator; } public override bool IsPageCountValid { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.IsPageCountValid; } } public override int PageCount { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.PageCount; } } public override Size PageSize { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.PageSize; } set { flowDocumentpaginator.PageSize = value; } } public override IDocumentPaginatorSource Source { get { return flowDocumentpaginator.Source; } } public override DocumentPage GetPage(int pageNumber) { DocumentPage page = flowDocumentpaginator.GetPage(pageNumber); ContainerVisual newVisual = new ContainerVisual(); newVisual.Children.Add(page.Visual); DrawingVisual header = new DrawingVisual(); using (DrawingContext dc = header.RenderOpen()) { //Header data } newVisual.Children.Add(header); DrawingVisual footer = new DrawingVisual(); using (DrawingContext dc = footer.RenderOpen()) { Typeface typeface = new Typeface("Trebuchet MS"); FormattedText text = new FormattedText("Page " + (pageNumber + 1).ToString(), CultureInfo.CurrentCulture, FlowDirection.LeftToRight, typeface, 14, Brushes.Black); dc.DrawText(text, new Point(page.Size.Width - 100, page.Size.Height-30)); } newVisual.Children.Add(footer); DocumentPage newPage = new DocumentPage(newVisual); return newPage; } } And here is the printdialogue call: private void btnPrint_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { try { PrintDialog printDialog = new PrintDialog(); if (printDialog.ShowDialog() == true) { FlowDocument fd = new FlowDocument(); MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(ASCIIEncoding.Default.GetBytes(<My string of text - RTF formatted>)); TextRange tr = new TextRange(fd.ContentStart, fd.ContentEnd); tr.Load(stream, DataFormats.Rtf); stream.Close(); fd.ColumnWidth = printDialog.PrintableAreaWidth; HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator paginator = new HeaderedFlowDocumentPaginator(fd); printDialog.PrintDocument(paginator, "myReport"); } } catch (Exception ex) { //Handle } }

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  • Web P2P video confrence solution

    - by dtroy
    I'm looking for the best possible solution which will allow me to incorporate live video/audio conference between 2 users(only 2 at this point) into a flash gaming platform. The video chat is not just an extra feature, it's the main one. I'm mainly looking at open source implementations or something I'll be able to implement myself, but will consider commercial products if they are exactly what I need. Here are a few things I've looked at, but so far, I didn't find any of them good enough: Flash player 10's P2P capabilities sound promising, but I am aware of the fact that Adobe has not release any information on the RTMFP protocol and that there is no commercial server which supports it at this point. Stream all the video/audio live through a flash server (not p2p), but from my personal experience you don't get a smooth conversation. I think TokBox uses this method Java applets are a possible solution too (to perform p2p), but I don't think it will be a nice and elegant solution to combine them in the game at this point (and requires the user to authorize them). BTW, I couldn't find any useful implementations. So, If you know of any, i'll look into them. Google Gmail Video Chat uses a custom (and proprietary) browser plug-in which does the p2p and streams the video/audio into the flash player. This is a possible solution, but I rather not implement the entire p2p protocol stack + browser plug-in at this stage and concentrate on other aspect of the game itself. I think they are using XMPP based protocol similar to Jingle and they've release a Jingle librarby but without the video confrencing implementation. EDIT: In response to Branden: I am aware of Adobe Stratus. Stratus is a beta, hosted rendezvous service that aids establishing communications between Flash Player endpoints (RTMFP server). This current release of the Stratus is prerelease and is designed for evaluation purposes only. The service is not final. There is no guarantee that the service will continue to exist in the future or any information about the future cost. That's why I don't think it can be used as a commercial solution. At least not yet. I'd appreciate your suggestions and advice. thanks!

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  • Unbalanced calls to begin/end appearance transitions for <ViewController>,<Tab>

    - by onkar
    I am trying to implement Tabs into my secondView.On button touch(from ViewController.m) I am navigating to secondView(Tabs). In my Tabs.xib file I have added a TabBar at bottom and it is custom class of UITabBar. ViewController.m - (IBAction)touchedInside:(id)sender { NSLog(@"touhced up inside"); Tabs *temp = [[Tabs alloc]initWithNibName:@"Tabs" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:temp animated:YES]; [self presentViewController:temp animated:YES completion:nil]; } Tabs.m - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; AppDelegate *appDelegate = (AppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; UITabBarController *tabBarController = [[UITabBarController alloc]init]; /* Tab_1 *firstView = [[Tab_1 alloc] init]; UITabBarItem *item1 = [[UITabBarItem alloc]initWithTitle:@"First" image:nil tag:1]; [firstView setTabBarItem:item1]; NSLog(@"after first tab is added"); Tab_2 *secondView = [[Tab_2 alloc] init]; UITabBarItem *item2 = [[UITabBarItem alloc]initWithTitle:@"Sec" image:nil tag:1] ; [secondView setTabBarItem:item2]; NSLog(@"after second tab is added"); [tabBarController setViewControllers:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:firstView,secondView,nil] animated:NO]; NSLog(@"after tab is added"); [appDelegate.window addSubview:tabBarController.view]; NSLog(@"after view is added"); */ appDelegate.window = [[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]]; // Override point for customization after application launch. UIViewController *viewController1 = [[Tab_1 alloc] initWithNibName:@"Tab 1" bundle:nil]; UIViewController *viewController2 = [[Tab_2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"Tab 2" bundle:nil]; UIViewController *viewController3 = [[Tab_2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"Tab 1" bundle:nil]; tabBarController.viewControllers = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:viewController1, viewController2, viewController3, nil]; appDelegate.window.rootViewController = self.tabBarController; [appDelegate.window makeKeyAndVisible]; Tabs *temp = [[Tabs alloc]initWithNibName:@"Tabs" bundle:nil]; [self.navigationController presentModalViewController:temp animated:NO]; } Errors Unbalanced calls to begin/end appearance transitions for <ViewController: 0x6833c80>. 2012-12-06 09:57:48.963 demoTabs[667:f803] Unbalanced calls to begin/end appearance transitions for <Tabs: 0x6a3fc90>.

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  • get current selected button cell placed inside tableview using cocoa

    - by Swati
    hi i have a NSTableView i have two columns A and B B contains some data A contains custom button the button is added to column A using this: Below code is placed inside awakeFromNib method NSButtonCell *buttonCell = [[[NSButtonCell alloc] init] autorelease]; [buttonCell setBordered:NO]; [buttonCell setImagePosition:NSImageOnly]; [buttonCell setButtonType:NSMomentaryChangeButton]; [buttonCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [buttonCell setSelectable:TRUE]; [buttonCell setTag:100]; [buttonCell setTarget:self]; [buttonCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; [[myTable tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] setDataCell:buttonCell]; Some code in display cell of nstableview: -(void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView willDisplayCell:(id)cell forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)rowIndex { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"DataIdentifier"]) { } else if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *zCell = (NSButtonCell *)cell; [zCell setTag:rowIndex]; [zCell setTitle:@"abc"]; [zCell setTarget:self]; [zCell setAction:@selector(selectButtonsForDeletion:)]; } } } now i want that when i click on the button the image of button cell gets changed as well as i want to do some coding. When button gets clicked then by default the tableView's reference gets passed. How can i get the button cell reference i looked here for similar problem: Cocoa: how to nest a button inside a Table View cell? but i am unable to add button inside column of NSTableView. How i change the image: - (void)tableView:(NSTableView *)tableView setObjectValue:(id)object forTableColumn:(NSTableColumn *)tableColumn row:(NSInteger)row; { if(tableView == myTable) { if([[tableColumn identifier] isEqualToString:@"EditIdentifier"]) { NSButtonCell *aCell = (NSButtonCell *)[[tableView tableColumnWithIdentifier:@"EditIdentifier"] dataCellForRow:row]; NSInteger index = [[aCell title]intValue]; if([self.selectedIndexesArray count]>0) { if(![self.selectedIndexesArray containsObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]) { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"uncheck.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray removeObjectAtIndex:[selectedIndexesArray indexOfObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]]; } } else { [aCell setImage:[NSImage imageNamed:@"check.png"]]; [self.selectedIndexesArray addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:index]]; } } } } I have debugged the code and found that proper tag and titles are passed but image applies on more than one button cell, this is too very irregular. cant understand how its working!!! Any suggestions what am i doing wrong??

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  • How to modularize a JSF/Facelets/Spring application with OSGi?

    - by lexicore
    I'm working with very large JSF/Facelets applications which use Spring for DI/bean management. My applications have modular structure and I'm currently looking for approaches to standardize the modularization. My goal is to compose a web application from a number of modules (possibly depending on each other). Each module may contain the following: Classes; Static resources (images, CSS, scripts); Facelet templates; Managed beans - Spring application contexts, with request, session and application-scoped beans (alternative is JSF managed beans); Servlet API stuff - servlets, filters, listeners (this is optional). What I'd like to avoid (almost at all costs) is the need to copy or extract module resources (like Facelets templates) to the WAR or to extend the web.xml for module's servlets, filters, etc. It must be enough to add the module (JAR, bundle, artifact, ...) to the web application (WEB-INF/lib, bundles, plugins, ...) to extend the web application with this module. Currently I solve this task with a custom modularization solution which is heavily based on using classpath resources: Special resources servlet serves static resources from classpath resources (JARs). Special Facelets resource resolver allows loading Facelet templates from classpath resources. Spring loads application contexts via the pattern classpath*:com/acme/foo/module/applicationContext.xml - this loads application contexts defined in module JARs. Finally, a pair of delegating servlets and filters delegate request processing to the servlets and filters configured in Spring application contexts from modules. Last days I read a lot about OSGi and I was considering, how (and if) I could use OSGi as a standardized modularization approach. I was thinking about how individual tasks could be solved with OSGi: Static resources - OSGi bundles which want to export static resources register a ResourceLoader instances with the bundle context. A central ResourceServlet uses these resource loaders to load resources from bundles. Facelet templates - similar to above, a central ResourceResolver uses services registered by bundles. Managed beans - I have no idea how to use an expression like #{myBean.property} if myBean is defined in one of the bundles. Servlet API stuff - use something like WebExtender/Pax Web to register servlets, filters and so on. My questions are: Am I inventing a bicycle here? Are there standard solutions for that? I've found a mentioning of Spring Slices but could not find much documentation about it. Do you think OSGi is the right technology for the described task? Is my sketch of OSGI application more or less correct? How should managed beans (especially request/session scope) be handled? I'd be generally graefult for your comments.

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  • Why would some POST data go missing when using Uploadify?

    - by Chad Johnson
    I have been using Uploadify in my PHP application for the last couple months, and I've been trying to track down an elusive bug. I receive emails when fatal errors occur, and they provide me a good amount of details. I've received dozens of them. I have not, however, been able to reproduce the problem myself. Some users (like myself) experience no problem, while others do. Before I give details of the problem, here is the flow. User visits edit screen for a page in the CMS I am using. Record id for the page is put into a form as a hidden value. User clicks the Uploadify browse button and selects a file (only single file selection is allowed). User clicks Submit button for my form. jQuery intercepts the form submit action, triggers Uploadify to start uploading, and returns false for the submit action (manually cancelling the form submit event so that Uploadify can take over). Uploadify uploads to a custom process script. Uploadify finishes uploading and triggers the Javascript completion callback. The Javascript callback calls $('#myForm').submit() to submit the form. Now that's what SHOULD happen. I've received reports of the upload freezing at 100% and also others where "I/O Error" is displayed. What's happening is, the form is submitting with the completion callback, but some post parameters present in the form are simply not in the post data. The id for the page, which earlier I said is added to the form as a hidden field, is simply not there in the post data ($_POST)--there is no item for 'id' in the $_POST array. The strange thing is, the post data DOES contain values for some fields. For instance, I have an input of type text called "name" which is for the record name, and it does show up in the post data. Here is what I've gathered: This has been happening on Mac OSX 10.5 and 10.6, Windows XP, and Windows 7. I can post exact user agent strings if that helps. Users must use Flash 10.0.12 or later. We've made it so the form reverts to using a normal "file" field if they have < 10.0.12. Does anyone have ANY ideas at all what the cause of this could be?

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  • JbossESB jmsProvider cannot convert IBMMQ JMS Message JMSTextMessage

    - by Himanshu
    I am trying to integrate IBMMQ v6.0.2 with jbossESB. we have local Queue available on IBMMQ on one of our QA QUEUEMANAGER. I am able to listen to the QUEUE using JMSprovider of jboss ESB. As soon as a message (of type jms_text ) is dropped , esb listen to it and pick it up and before it hit the next action it throws following error message. ERROR [JmsComposer] Unsupported JMS message type: com.ibm.jms.JMSTextMessage Here are the steps I followed. jboss-service.mxl : Defined Connection Factory and QUEUE added jars ( com.ibm.mq.* ) to ${jbossesb}/server/${mynode}/lib Added jms lsinterner configuration on jboss-esb.xml Please guide me what I m missing here... Do I need to create custom MessagePlugin ? jboss-esb looks like this <jms-provider name="WSMQ" connection-factory="MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <jms-bus busid="queuestartGwChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" acknowledge-mode ="AUTO_ACKNOWLEDGE" /> </jms-bus> <jms-bus busid="queuestartEsbChannel"> <jms-message-filter dest-type="QUEUE" dest-name="wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue" /> </jms-bus> </jms-provider> jboss-service.xml looks like this <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQConnectionFactory" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=MQQueueConnectionFactory"> <attribute name="JndiName">MQQueueConnectionFactory</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="IsXA">false</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="HostName">111.111.111.111</attribute> <attribute name="Port">1415</attribute> <attribute name="Channel">MYCO.SVRCONN</attribute> <attribute name="TransportType">CLIENT</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> <mbean code="jmx.service.wsmq.WSMQDestination" name="jmx.service.wsmq:service=WSMQRequestQueue"> <attribute name="JndiName">wsmq/SerivceOrderQueue</attribute> <attribute name="JMSStyle">Queue</attribute> <attribute name="QueueManagerName">SQAT0083</attribute> <attribute name="DestinationName">MYCO.SERVICEORDER.QA01.QL01</attribute> <attribute name="TargetClient">MQ</attribute> <depends>jboss:service=Naming</depends> </mbean> I am using jboss-eap-4.3. Really appreciate any help.

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  • What to do when you need more verbs in REST

    - by Richard Levasseur
    There is another similar question to mine, but the discussion veered away from the problem I'm encounting. Say I have a system that deals with expense reports (ER). You can create and edit them, add attachments, and approve/reject them. An expense report might look like this: GET /er/1 => {"title": "Trip to NY", "totalcost": "400 USD", "comments": [ "john: Please add the total cost", "mike: done, can you approve it now?" ], "approvals": [ {"john": "Pending"}, {"finance-group": "Pending"}] } That looks fine, right? Thats what an expense report document looks like. If you want to update it, you can do this: POST /er/1 {"title": "Trip to NY 2010"} If you want to approve it, you can do this: POST /er/1/approval {"approved": true} But, what if you want to update the report and approve it at the same time? How do we do that? If you only wanted to approve, then doing a POST to something like /er/1/approval makes sense. We could put a flag in the URL, POST /er/1?approve=1, and send the data changes as the body, but that flag doesn't seem RESTful. We could put special field to be submitted, too, but that seems a bit hacky, too. If we did that, then why not send up data with attributes like set_title or add_to_cost? We could create a new resource for updating and approving, but (1) I can't think of how to name it without verbs, and (2) it doesn't seem right to name a resource based on what actions can be done to it (what happens if we add more actions?) We could have an X-Approve: True|False header, but headers seem like the wrong tool for the job. It'd also be difficult to get set headers without using javascript in a browser. We could use a custom media-type, application/approve+yes, but that seems no better than creating a new resource. We could create a temporary "batch operations" url, /er/1/batch/A. The client then sends multiple requests, perhaps POST /er/1/batch/A to update, then POST /er/1/batch/A/approval to approve, then POST /er/1/batch/A/status to end the batch. On the backend, the server queues up all the batch requests somewhere, then processes them in the same backend-transaction when it receives the "end batch processing" request. The downside with this is, obviously, that it introduces a lot of complexity. So, what is a good, general way to solve the problem of performing multiple actions in a single request? General because its easy to imagine additional actions that might be done in the same request: Suppress or send notifications (to email, chat, another system, whatever) Override some validation (maximum cost, names of dinner attendees) Trigger backend workflow that doesn't have a representation in the document.

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  • IIS doing unexpected redirect

    - by user2967489
    I have website abc.com and abc.co.in.I have two webservers also. The following issue happens only in abc.co.in with same application deployed on same. We have written a custom IHttpModule and do a rewrite to abc.co.in?some=data. Expected behavior: When user enters some.abc.co.in the expected behavior is browser still display some.abc.co.in but internally call abc.co.in?some=data Actual behavior: The page is rendered properly but in browser the URL changes to some.abc.co.in?some=data I checked what is happening 1.First the server receives the request and does a 301 redirect. 2.The redirect location is some.abc.co.in?some=data I am stuck in this for a day and critical to fix to make our site up and running. How to debug this issue further ?.Any one can think of possible cause? ETW Trace shows <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <OldUrl>/</OldUrl> <NewUrl>/fp?&id=hazzel&params=</NewUrl> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData> <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <ModuleName>DefaultDocumentModule</ModuleName> <Notification>128</Notification> <HttpStatus>301</HttpStatus> <HttpReason>Moved Permanently</HttpReason> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData> <ApplicationData> <TraceData> <DataItem> <Headers>Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Location: http://some.abc.co.in/fp/?id=data Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.5 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET </Headers> </DataItem> </TraceData> </ApplicationData>

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  • Rendering javascript at the server side level. A good or bad idea?

    - by davidhong
    I want to make it clear first: This isn't a question in relation to server-side Javascript or running Javascript server side. This is a question regarding rendering of Javascript code (which will be executed on the client-side) from server-side code. Having said that, take a look at below ASP.net code for example: hlRemoveCategory.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?');") This is prescribing the client-side onclick event on the server-side. As oppose to: $('a[rel=remove]').bind('click', function(event) { return confirm('Are you sure you want to delete this?'); } Now the question I want to ask is: What is the benefit of rendering javascript from the server-side code? Or the vice-versa? I personally prefer the second way of hooking up client-side UI/behaviour to HTML elements for the following reasons: Server-side does what ever it needs to already, including data-validation, event delegation and etc; and What server-side sees as an event is not necessarily the same process on the client-side. i.e., there are plenty more events on client-side (just look at custom events); and What happens on client-side and on server-side, during an event, could be completely irrelevant and decoupled; and What ever happens on client-side happens on client-side, there is no need for the server to know. Server should process and run what is given to them, how the process comes to life is not really up to them to decide in the event of the client-side events; and so and so forth. These are my thoughts obviously. I want to know what others think and if there has been any discussions on this topic. Topics branching from this argument can reach: Code management: is it easier to render everything from server-side? Separation of concern: is it easier if client-side logic is separated to server-side logic? Efficiency: which is more efficient both in terms of coding and running? At the end of the day, I am trying to move my team to go towards the second approach. There are lot of old guys in this team who are afraid of this change. I just wish to convince them with the right facts and stats. Let me know your thoughts.

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  • Routed Command Question

    - by Andrew
    I'd like to implement a custom command to capture a Backspace key gesture inside of a textbox, but I don't know how. I wrote a test program in order to understand what's going on, but the behaviour of the program is rather confusing. Basically, I just need to be able to handle the Backspace key gesture via wpf commands while keyboard focus is in the textbox, and without disrupting the normal behaviour of the Backspace key within the textbox. Here's the xaml for the main window and the corresponding code-behind, too (note that I created a second command for the Enter key, just to compare its behaviour to that of the Backspace key): <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <TextBox Margin="44,54,44,128" Name="textBox1" /> </Grid> </Window> And here's the corresponding code-behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Input; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for EntryListView.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public static RoutedCommand EnterCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public static RoutedCommand BackspaceCommand = new RoutedCommand(); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); CommandBinding cb1 = new CommandBinding(EnterCommand, EnterExecuted, EnterCanExecute); CommandBinding cb2 = new CommandBinding(BackspaceCommand, BackspaceExecuted, BackspaceCanExecute); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb1); this.CommandBindings.Add(cb2); KeyGesture kg1 = new KeyGesture(Key.Enter); KeyGesture kg2 = new KeyGesture(Key.Back); InputBinding ib1 = new InputBinding(EnterCommand, kg1); InputBinding ib2 = new InputBinding(BackspaceCommand, kg2); this.InputBindings.Add(ib1); this.InputBindings.Add(ib2); } #region Command Handlers private void EnterCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterCanExecute Method."); e.CanExecute = true; } private void EnterExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside EnterExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceCanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceCanExecute Method."); e.Handled = true; } private void BackspaceExecuted(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("Inside BackspaceExecuted Method."); e.Handled = true; } #endregion Command Handlers } } Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks! Andrew

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  • WCF Duplex Interaction with Web Server

    - by Mark Struzinski
    Here is my scenario, and it is causing us a considerable amount of grief at the moment: We have a vendor web service which provides base level telephony functionality. This service has a SOAP api, which we are leveraging to build up a custom UI that is integrated into our in house web apps. The api functions on 2 levels. You make standard client calls into the service to initiate actions, such as Login, Place Call, Hang Up, etc. On a different thread, the service sends events back to the client to alert the user of things that are occurring on the system (agent successfully logged in, call was disconnected, etc). I implemented a WCF service to sit between the web server and the vendor service. This WCF service operates in duplex mode, establishing a 2 way connection with the web server. The web server makes outbound calls to the WCF service, which routes them to the vendor's web service. Events are received back to the WCF service, which passes them onto the web server via a callback channel on the WCF client. As events are received on the web server, they are placed into a hash table with the user's name as the key, and a .NET queue as the value to hold the event. Each event is enqueued to the agent who owns it. On a 2 second interval, the web page polls the web server via an ajax request to get new events for the logged in user. It hits the hash table for the user key, dequeues any events that are present, and serializes them back up to the web page. From there, they are processed in order and appropriate messages are displayed to the user. This implementation performs well in a single user scenario. The second I put more than 1 user on the system, I start getting frequent timeouts with the following CommunicationException: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond We are running Windows Server 2008 R2 both servers. Both the web app and WCF service are running on .NET 3.5. The WCF service is running under the net.tcp protocol in duplex mode. The web app is ASP.NET MVC 2. Has anyone dealt with anything like this scenario? Is there a more efficient way (or a widely accepted pattern) to implement this?

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  • Why won't this hit test fire a second time? wpf

    - by csciguy
    All, I have a main window that contains two custom objects (AnimatedCharacter). These objects are nothing but images. These images might contain transparent portions. One of these objects slightly overlaps the other object. There is a listener attached to the main window and is as follows. private void Window_MouseLeftButtonUp_1(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Point pt = e.GetPosition((UIElement)sender); //store off the mouse pt hitPointMouse = pt; //clear the result list hitResultsSubList.Clear(); EllipseGeometry m_egHitArea = new EllipseGeometry(pt, 1, 1); VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(sender as Visual, HitTestFilterFuncNew, new HitTestResultCallback(HitTestCallback), new GeometryHitTestParameters(m_egHitArea)); //Check all sub items you have now hit if (hitResultsSubList.Count > 0) { CheckSubHitItems(hitResultsSubList); } } The idea is to filter out only a select group of items (called AnimatedCharacters). The hittest and filters are as follows public HitTestResultBehavior HitTestCallback(HitTestResult htrResult) { IntersectionDetail idDetail = ((GeometryHitTestResult)htrResult).IntersectionDetail; switch (idDetail) { case IntersectionDetail.FullyContains: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.Intersects: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; case IntersectionDetail.FullyInside: return HitTestResultBehavior.Continue; default: return HitTestResultBehavior.Stop; } } public HitTestFilterBehavior HitTestFilterFuncNew(DependencyObject potentialHitTestTarget) { if (potentialHitTestTarget.GetType() == typeof(AnimatedCharacter)) { hitResultsSubList.Add(potentialHitTestTarget as AnimatedCharacter); } return HitTestFilterBehavior.Continue; } This returns me back a list (called hitResultsSubList) that I attempt to then process further. I want to take everything in the hitResultsSubList and run a hit test on it again. This time, the hit test will be checking alpha levels on the particular animatedCharacter object. private void CheckSubHitItems(List<DependencyObject> hitResultsSub) { for(int i = 0; i<hitResultsSub.Count; i++) { hitResultsList.Clear(); AnimatedCharacter ac = hitResultsSub[i] as AnimatedCharacter; try { //DEBUGGER SKIPS THIS NEXT LINE EVERY SINGLE TIME. VisualTreeHelper.HitTest(ac, null, new HitTestResultCallback(hitCallBack), new PointHitTestParameters(hitPointMouse)); } catch (Exception e) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine(e.StackTrace); } if (hitResultsList.Count > 0) { //do something here } } } Here is my problem now. The hit test in the second function (CheckSubHitItems) never gets called. There are definitely items (DependencyObjects of the type AnimatedCharacter) in the hitResultSub, but no matter what, the second hit test will not fire. I can walk the for loop fine, but when that line is hit, I get the following console statement. Step into: Stepping over non-user code 'System.MulticastDelegate.CtorClosed' No exceptions are thrown. Any help is appreciated.

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  • C# Spell checker Problem

    - by reggie
    I've incorporated spell check into my win forms C# project. This is my code. public void CheckSpelling() { try { // declare local variables to track error count // and information int SpellingErrors = 0; string ErrorCountMessage = string.Empty; // create an instance of a word application Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application WordApp = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.Application(); // hide the MS Word document during the spellcheck //WordApp.WindowState = WdWindowState.wdWindowStateMinimize; // check for zero length content in text area if (this.Text.Length > 0) { WordApp.Visible = false; // create an instance of a word document _Document WordDoc = WordApp.Documents.Add(ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem, ref oFalse); // load the content written into the word doc WordDoc.Words.First.InsertBefore(this.Text); // collect errors form new temporary document set to contain // the content of this control Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.ProofreadingErrors docErrors = WordDoc.SpellingErrors; SpellingErrors = docErrors.Count; // execute spell check; assumes no custom dictionaries WordDoc.CheckSpelling(ref oNothing, ref oIgnoreUpperCase, ref oAlwaysSuggest, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing, ref oNothing); // format a string to contain a report of the errors detected ErrorCountMessage = "Spell check complete; errors detected: " + SpellingErrors; // return corrected text to control's text area object first = 0; object last = WordDoc.Characters.Count - 1; this.Text = WordDoc.Range(ref first, ref last).Text; } else { // if nothing was typed into the control, abort and inform user ErrorCountMessage = "Unable to spell check an empty text box."; } WordApp.Quit(ref oFalse, ref emptyItem, ref emptyItem); System.Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(WordApp); // return report on errors corrected // - could either display from the control or change this to // - return a string which the caller could use as desired. // MessageBox.Show(ErrorCountMessage, "Finished Spelling Check"); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString()); } } The spell checker works well, the only problem is when I try to move the spell checker the main form blurs up for some reason. Also when I close the spell checker the main form is back to normal. It seems like it is opening up Microsoft word then hiding the window, only allowing the spell checker to be seen. Please help.

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  • Interop.Outlook.UserProperties.Add causing problem during connection time

    - by Akie
    Hi All, I have created a plug-in for outlook. Plug-in has only below code. private void OnNewOutlookInspector(Outlook.Inspector OutlookInsptr) { Outlook.MailItem MlItem = (Outlook.MailItem)OutlookInsptr.CurrentItem; //if I remove below line. Everything is working fine. MlItem.UserProperties.Add("INSPINIT", Outlook.OlUserPropertyType.olText , true , true ).Value = "1"; } public void OnConnection(object application, Extensibility.ext_ConnectMode connectMode, object addInInst, ref System.Array custom) { applicationObject = application; addInInstance = addInInst; MessageBox.Show("in connection new 2"); OutlkApp = (Outlook.Application)application; OutlkInsptrs = OutlkApp.Inspectors; OutlkInsptrs.NewInspector += new Outlook.InspectorsEvents_NewInspectorEventHandler(OnNewOutlookInspector); } Problem I am facing is, When I send HTML mail while plug-in is enabled, receiving end it is being received as a plain text. Below is the mail content along with the header and body at recieving end. x-sender: [email protected] x-receiver: [email protected] Received: from blr-s-07.pointcrossblr.com ([192.168.1.107]) by blr-ws-134.pointcrossblr.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(6.0.2600.5949); Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:11:02 +0530 Received: from blrws134 ([192.168.1.175]) by blr-s-07.pointcrossblr.com with Microsoft SMTPSVC(6.0.3790.4675); Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:11:02 +0530 From: "Ashif Nataliya" <[email protected]> To: <[email protected]> Cc: <[email protected]> Subject: RTF FRM blr to pc.com cc blr-ws-134 Date: Wed, 22 Dec 2010 17:11:02 +0530 Message-ID: <[email protected]> MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/mixed; boundary="----=_NextPart_000_00F7_01CBA1FB.36115580" X-Mailer: Microsoft Outlook 14.0 Content-Language: en-us X-MS-TNEF-Correlator: 00000000DCB2344DE8F50F4FBC91085BB5C06D55A4172000 thread-index: AcuhzRuTOBkvHPUnS1aLi9+cHNAWhA== Return-Path: [email protected] X-OriginalArrivalTime: 22 Dec 2010 11:41:02.0822 (UTC) FILETIME=[1C788860:01CBA1CD] This is a multipart message in MIME format. ------=_NextPart_000_00F7_01CBA1FB.36115580 Content-Type: text/plain; charset="us-ascii" Content-Transfer-Encoding: 7bit HTML Test Test Mail ------=_NextPart_000_00F7_01CBA1FB.36115580 Content-Type: application/ms-tnef; name="winmail.dat" Content-Transfer-Encoding: base64 Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="winmail.dat" // and some other code..... Any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Saxon XSLT-Transformation: How to change serialization of an empty tag from <x/> to <x></x>?

    - by Ben
    Hello folks! I do some XSLT-Transformation using Saxon HE 9.2 with the output later being unmarshalled by Castor 1.3.1. The whole thing runs with Java at the JDK 6. My XSLT-Transformation looks like this: <xsl:transform version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:ns="http://my/own/custom/namespace/for/the/target/document"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="UTF-8" indent="no" /> <xsl:template match="/"> <ns:item> <ns:property name="id"> <xsl:value-of select="/some/complicated/xpath" /> </ns:property> <!-- ... more ... --> </xsl:template> So the thing is: if the XPath-expression /some/complicated/xpath evaluates to an empty sequence, the Saxon serializer writes <ns:property/> instead of <ns:property></ns:property>. This, however, confuses the Castor unmarshaller, which is next in the pipeline and which unmarshals the output of the transformation to instances of XSD-generated Java-code. So my question is: How can I tell the Saxon-serializer to output empty tags not as standalone tags? Here is what I am proximately currently doing to execute the transformation: import net.sf.saxon.s9api.*; import javax.xml.transform.*; import javax.xml.transform.sax.SAXSource; // ... // read data XMLReader xmlReader = XMLReaderFactory.createXMLReader(); // ... there is some more setting up the xmlReader here ... InputStream xsltStream = new FileInputStream(xsltFile); InputStream inputStream = new FileInputStream(inputFile); Source xsltSource = new SAXSource(xmlReader, new InputSource(xsltStream)); Source inputSource = new SAXSource(xmlReader, new InputSource(inputStream)); XdmNode input = processor.newDocumentBuilder().build(inputSource); // initialize transformation configuration Processor processor = new Processor(false); XsltCompiler compiler = processor.newXsltCompiler(); compiler.setErrorListener(this); XsltExecutable executable = compiler.compile(xsltSource); Serializer serializer = new Serializer(); serializer.setOutputProperty(Serializer.Property.METHOD, "xml"); serializer.setOutputProperty(Serializer.Property.INDENT, "no"); serializer.setOutputStream(output); // execute transformation XsltTransformer transformer = executable.load(); transformer.setInitialContextNode(input); transformer.setErrorListener(this); transformer.setDestination(serializer); transformer.setSchemaValidationMode(ValidationMode.STRIP); transformer.transform(); I'd appreciate any hint pointing in the direction of a solution. :-) In case of any unclarity I'd be happy to give more details. Nightly greetings from Germany, Benjamin

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  • problem about gridview and baseadapter? Pls help

    - by flybirdtt
    I need a gridview to place 9 items. And i write a custom baseadapter. But find a problem about the position in the getView method.it looks like this gridview miss the 7th item.The code like this:` public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { LayoutDTO lDto = menuHashtable.get(Integer.toString(position)); ViewHolder vHolder = new ViewHolder(); if (lDto != null) { String titleString = lDto.getTitle(); Log.v("title...........", titleString + " " + Integer.toString(position) ); Bitmap iconBitmap = lDto.getIcon(); convertView = mInflater.inflate(R.layout.custombutton, null); vHolder.icon = (ImageView) convertView .findViewById(R.id.imageicon); vHolder.icon.setImageBitmap(iconBitmap); vHolder.text = (TextView) convertView .findViewById(R.id.icontitle); int index = titleString.indexOf("\u0026"); if (index != -1) { String title1 = titleString.substring(0, index + 1).trim(); String title2 = titleString.substring(index + 1, titleString.length()).trim(); vHolder.text.setLines(2); String newtitle = title1 + "\n" + title2; vHolder.text.setText(newtitle); } else { vHolder.text.setLines(2); String newtitle = titleString + "\n" + " "; vHolder.text.setText(newtitle); } convertView.setTag(vHolder); } return convertView; }` The log show this: 05-20 21:37:16.066: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.105: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.125: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.135: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.166: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.185: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Entertainment 1 05-20 21:37:16.195: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Shopping 2 05-20 21:37:16.195: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Fashion 3 05-20 21:37:16.205: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Health & Beauty 4 05-20 21:37:16.215: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Supermarkets 5 05-20 21:37:16.226: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Auto Services 6 05-20 21:37:16.236: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Travel & Accommodation 8 05-20 21:37:16.316: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.326: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.336: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0 05-20 21:37:16.345: VERBOSE/title...........(158): Dining 0

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  • Gap appears between navigation bar and view after rotating & tab switching

    - by Bogatyr
    My iphone application is showing strange behavior when rotating: a gap appears between the navigation title and content view inside a tab bar view (details on how to reproduce are below). I've created a tiny test case that exhibits the same problem: a custom root UIViewController, which creates and displays a UITabBarController programmatically, which has two tabs: 1) plain UIViewController, and 2) UINavigationController created programmatically with a single plain UIViewController content view. The complete code for the application is in the root controller's viewDidLoad (every "*VC" class is a totally vanilla UIViewController subclass with XIB for user interface from XCode, with only the view background color changed to clearly identify each view, nothing else). Here's the viewDidLoad code, and the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation code, this code is the entire application basically: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; FirstVC *fvc = [[FirstVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstVC" bundle:nil]; NavContentsVC *ncvc = [[NavContentsVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"NavContentsVC" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *svc = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:ncvc]; NSMutableArray *localControllersArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:2]; [localControllersArray addObject:fvc]; [localControllersArray addObject:svc]; fvc.title = @"FirstVC-Title"; ncvc.title = @"NavContents-Title"; UITabBarController *tbc = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tbc.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460); [tbc setViewControllers:localControllersArray]; [self.view addSubview:tbc.view]; [localControllersArray release]; [ncvc release]; [svc release]; [fvc release]; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Here's how to reproduce the problem: 1) start application 2) rotate device (happens in simulator, too) to landscape (UITabBar properly rotates) 3) click on tab 2 4) rotate device to portrait -- notice gap of root view controller's background color of about 10 pixels high beneath the Navigation title bar and the Navigation content view. 5) click tab 1 6) click tab 2 And the gap is gone! From my real application, I see that the gap remains during all VC push and pops while the NavigationController tab is active. Switching away to a different tab and back to the Nav tab clears up the gap. What am I doing wrong? I'm running on SDK 3.1.3, this happens both on the simulator and on the device. Except for this particular sequence, everything seems to work fine. Help!

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  • Design pattern question: encapsulation or inheritance

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I have a question I have been toiling over for quite a while. I am building a templating engine with two main classes Template.php and Tag.php, with a bunch of extension classes like Img.php and String.php. The program works like this: A Template object creates a Tag objects. Each tag object determines which extension class (img, string, etc.) to implement. The point of the Tag class is to provide helper functions for each extension class such as wrap('div'), addClass('slideshow'), etc. Each Img or String class is used to render code specific to what is required, so $Img->render() would give something like <img src='blah.jpg' /> My Question is: Should I encapsulate all extension functionality within the Tag object like so: Tag.php function __construct($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call $this->extension = new $namespace($this); // Pass in Tag object so it can be used within extension return $this; // Tag object } function render() { return $this->extension->render(); } Img.php function __construct(Tag $T) { $args = $T->getArgs(); $T->addClass('img'); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } Usage: $T = new Tag("img", array(...); $T->render(); .... or should I create more of an inheritance structure because "Img is a Tag" Tag.php public static create($namespace, $args) { // Sort out namespace to determine which extension to call return new $namespace($args); } Img.php class Img extends Tag { function __construct($args) { // Determine namespace then call create tag $T = parent::__construct($namespace, $args); } function render() { return '<img src="blah.jpg" />'; } } Usage: $Img = Tag::create('img', array(...)); $Img->render(); One thing I do need is a common interface for creating custom tags, ie I can instantiate Img(...) then instantiate String(...), I do need to instantiate each extension using Tag. I know this is somewhat vague of a question, I'm hoping some of you have dealt with this in the past and can foresee certain issues with choosing each design pattern. If you have any other suggestions I would love to hear them. Thanks! Matt Mueller

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  • jQuery Validation plugin: checkbox groups and error message issues

    - by boomturn
    I've put together a form using the jQuery Validation plugin, and all inputs are fine with working validation and error messages – except for checkboxes. I have two checkbox problems. The first is that the Validation plugin API doesn't seem to handle checkboxes in grouped contexts (I'm using fieldsets for grouping). Found several approaches to the issue here, including reference to a post by Rebecca Murphey for a more general case using a custom method and class. Adapting that to this situation: jQuery.validator.addMethod('required_group', function(val, el) { var fieldParent = $(el).closest('fieldset'); return fieldParent.find('.required_group:checked').length; }); jQuery.validator.addClassRules('required_group', { 'required_group': true }); jQuery.validator.messages.required_group = 'Please check at least one box.'; This sort of works, but produces error messages on every checkbox, and only removes them as each box is clicked. This is not an acceptable situation for the user, who can only get rid of them by clicking false positives. Ideally, I guess what's needed is something to prevent or eliminate extra messages before they are displayed and use errorPlacement to display a single error message in the parent fieldset, that would then be removed with a click on any checkbox. Less ideally, maybe they would all display but an event handler could turn off the full set of redundant messages with a click, which is what this approach offered by tvanfosson appears to do. (Another customized approach here, but I couldn't get it to work.) I guess I should also note this form requires the checkboxes to have different names. My second problem is that one of the fieldsets with checkboxes in the form also contains a nested fieldset of checkboxes under one of the outer checkboxes. So in addition to the first-level one-box-checked requirement, if the particular checkbox containing the second-level checkboxes is checked, then at least one of the second-level boxes must be checked. Not sure about the right approach; I'm guessing what needs to happen (following the above scheme) is that the trigger checkbox would use toggleClass to add/remove 'required_group' class to all the checkboxes in the subfield, which would then (hopefully) behave the same as the parent field: $("#triggerCheckbox").click(function () { $(this).find(":checkbox").toggleClass("required_group"); }); Any suggestions or ideas welcome. I'm well beyond my limited jQuery skills on this one and would be happy to hear that I missed simple, elegant and/or obvious ways to do this!

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  • How to intercept 401 from Forms Authentication in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Jiho Han
    I would like to generate a 401 page if the user does not have the right permission. The user requests a url and is redirected to the login page (I have deny all anonymous in web.config). The user logs in successfully and is redirected to the original url. However, upon permission check, it is determined that the user does not have the required permission, so I would like to generate a 401. But Forms Authentication always handles 401 and redirects the user to the login page. To me, this isn't correct. The user has already authenticated, the user just does not have the proper authorization. In other scenarios, such as in ajax or REST service scenario, I definitely do not want the login page - I need the proper 401 page. So far, I've tried custom Authorize filter to return ViewResult with 401 but didn't work. I then tried a normal Action Filter, overriding OnActionExecuting, which did not work either. What I was able to do is handle an event in global.asax, PostRequestHandlerExecute, and check for the permission then write out directly to response: if (permissionDenied) { Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; Context.Response.Clear(); Context.Response.Write("Permission Denied"); Context.Response.Flush(); Context.Response.Close(); return; } That works but it's not really what I want. First of all, I'm not even sure if that is the right event or the place in the pipeline to do that. Second, I want the 401 page to have a little more content. Preferably, it should be an aspx page with possibly the same master page as the rest of the site. That way, anyone browsing the site can see that the permission is denied but with the same look and feel, etc. but the ajax or service user will get the proper status code to act on. Any idea how this can be achieved? I've seen other posts with similar requests but didn't see a solution that I can use. And no, I do not want a 403.

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  • Android: dynamically setting links to text in strings.xml

    - by Martyn
    I'm trying to make an app with localisation built in, but I want a way that I can create a web link within the text, the URL being defined elsewhere (for ease of maintenance). So, I have my links in res/values/strings.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="link1">http://some.link.com</string> <string name="link2">http://some.link2.com</string> </resources> and my localised text in res/values-en-rGB/strings.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <resources> ... <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and link1\nMore text and link2.</string> </resources> I've not tested this bit, but from the localization section of developer.android.com it says that this approach to reducing content duplication should work, although I'm not sure what folder I should put Italian, for example. Would it be in 'res/values-it-rIT/strings.xml'? Lets assume that I have various other languages too. I'm looking for a way of taking the base localised 'sampleText' and inserting my html links in, and getting them to work when clicked on. I've tried two approaches so far: 1, Putting some formatting in the 'sampleText' (%s): <string name="sampleText">Sample text\nMore text and <a href="%s">link1</a>\nMore text and <a href="%s">link2</a>.</string> and then processing the text like this: TextView tv = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.textHolder); tv.setText(getResources().getString(R.string.sampleText, getResources().getString(R.string.link1), getResources().getString(R.string.link2))); But this didn't work when I click on the link, even though the link text is being put in to the correct places. 2, I tried to use Linkify but the regular expression route may be difficult as I'm looking at supporting non-Latin based languages. I tried to put a custom xml tag around the link text and then do something like this: Pattern wordMatcher = Pattern.compile("<span1>.*</span1>"); String viewURL = "content://" + getResources().getString(R.string.someLink); Linkify.addLinks(tv, wordMatcher , viewURL ); But this didn't work either. So, I'd like to know if there's a way of dynamically adding multiple URLs to different sections of the same text which will link to web content? Thank you, Martyn

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  • paypal ipn working but stopping at 'thank you' page.

    - by Tarique Imam
    I am using the code for controller(CODEIGNITER): function paypal_tran(){ if (empty($_GET['action'])){ $_GET['action'] = 'process';} if($this-uri-segment ( 3 )){ $action=$this-uri-segment ( 3 ); } else{ $action='process'; } $ammount=39.99; $this-lenders_model-paypal_process($action,$this_script,$ammount); $this-load-view('view_paypal_tran'); } function ipn(){ if ($this->paypal_class->validate_ipn()) { $data = array( 'fname'=> 'fname', /* insert the user id */ 'lname'=>'lname' ); //$this->db->insert('ajax_test',$data); // For this example, we'll just email ourselves ALL the data. $subject = 'Instant Payment Notification - Recieved Payment'; $to = '[email protected]'; // your email $body = "An instant payment notification was successfully recieved\n"; $body .= "from ".$p->ipn_data['payer_email']." on ".date('m/d/Y'); $body .= " at ".date('g:i A')."\n\nDetails:\n"; foreach ($this->paypal_class->ipn_data as $key => $value) { $body .= "\n$key: $value"; } mail($to, $subject, $body); } } function success() { $this->load->view('paypal_succ_view'); } AND this is my model: function paypal_process($action,$this_script,$ammount){ switch ($action) { case 'process': // Process and order... // There should be no output at this point. To process the POST data, // the submit_paypal_post() function will output all the HTML tags which // contains a FORM which is submited instantaneously using the BODY onload // attribute. In other words, don't echo or printf anything when you're // going to be calling the submit_paypal_post() function. // This is where you would have your form validation and all that jazz. // You would take your POST vars and load them into the class like below, // only using the POST values instead of constant string expressions. // For example, after ensureing all the POST variables from your custom // order form are valid, you might have: // // $p->add_field('first_name', $_POST['first_name']); // $p->add_field('last_name', $_POST['last_name']); $this->paypal_class->add_field('business', '[email protected]'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('return', $this_script.'/success'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('cancel_return', $this_script.'/cancel'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('notify_url', $this_script.'/ipn'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('item_name', 'Lenders Account for one month'); $this->paypal_class->add_field('amount', $ammount); $this->paypal_class->submit_paypal_post(); // submit the fields to paypal $this->paypal_class->dump_fields(); // for debugging, output a table of all the fields break; PROBLEM IS IPN IS NOT WORKING. THE HIDDEN FIELD HAS VALUE FOR REDIRECT TO IPN, BUT NOT WORKING!!PLS HELP

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  • paypal IPN sends two different twice

    - by Patrick
    I've come across something a bit strange I was hoping someone with more experience with Paypal can explain, Specifically the IPN feature. It seems I'm getting two very different hits to my IPN listener. The first one always fails, The second one passes. Now I know Paypal tends to send duplicates, But what I've noticed is two very different $_POST arrays being recieved. Here's the respones : [2014-06-08 23:51:19] RAW POST DATA : Array ( [transaction] => Array ( [0] => ILS 20.00 ) [payment_request_date] => Sun Jun 08 13:52:12 PDT 2014 [return_url] => MY_URL [fees_payer] => EACHRECEIVER [ipn_notification_url] => MY_URL [sender_email] => [email protected] //fake email [verify_sign] => ANp5TpLat3.2ylx.cECtVZ..5HejAsVcs05tdVC7RldmeYNJ91SKaqFJ [test_ipn] => 1 [cancel_url] => MY_URL [pay_key] => AP-04B74091M7083584A [action_type] => PAY [transaction_type] => Adaptive Payment PAY [tracking_id] => 13 // This is a number I passed, But it doesn't exist in the 2nd POST [status] => COMPLETED [log_default_shipping_address_in_transaction] => false [charset] => windows-1252 [notify_version] => UNVERSIONED [reverse_all_parallel_payments_on_error] => false ) [2014-06-08 23:51:19] RAW POST DATA : Array ( [transaction_subject] => [payment_date] => 13:52:28 Jun 08, 2014 PDT [txn_type] => web_accept [last_name] => test [residence_country] => US [item_name] => .... (this continues for quite a bit more) .... [payment_fee] => [mc_fee] => 1.78 [mc_gross] => 20.00 [custom] => [charset] => windows-1252 [notify_version] => 3.8 [ipn_track_id] => f93ce8bdd4382 ) My problem The first IPN with the juicy tracking_id fails, the 2nd IPN is verified, But once the IPN is verified I no longer have access to the tracking_id. My questions Why does paypal send two different IPN's Why are they different? Why isn't any of this documented on Paypal? :(

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  • DatagridView loses current edit on Background update

    - by yoni.s
    Here's my problem : I have a DataGridView bound to a BindingList of custom objects. A background thread is constantly updating a value of these objects. The udpates are showing correctly, and everything is fine except for one thing - If you try to edit a different field while the background-updated field is being updated, it loses the entered value. Here is a code sample that demonstrates this behavior: (for new form, drop a new DataGridView on:) using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Threading; namespace WindowsFormsApplication2 { public partial class Form1 : Form { private BindingList<foo> flist; private Thread thrd; private BindingSource b; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); flist = new BindingList<foo> { new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1}, new foo(){a =1,b = 1, c=1} }; b = new BindingSource(); b.DataSource = flist; dataGridView1.DataSource = b; thrd = new Thread(new ThreadStart(updPRoc)); thrd.Start(); } private void upd() { flist.ToList().ForEach(f=>f.c++); } private void updPRoc() { while (true) { this.BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(upd)); Thread.Sleep(1000); } } } public class foo:INotifyPropertyChanged { private int _c; public int a { get; set; } public int b { get; set; } public int c { get {return _c;} set { _c = value; if (PropertyChanged!= null) PropertyChanged(this,new PropertyChangedEventArgs("c")); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion } } So, you edit column a or b, you will see that the column c update causes you to lose your entry. Any thoughts appreciated.

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