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• What is usefulness of W3C's "Semantic Data Extractor" in semantically correct XHTML CSS Development?

  - by metal-gear-solid

  What is the usefulness of W3C's Semantic Data Extractor? http://www.w3.org/2003/12/semantic-extractor.html This tool, geared by an XSLT stylesheet, tries to extract some information from a HTML semantic rich document. It only uses information available through a good usage of the semantics defined in HTML. The aim is to show that providing a semantically rich HTML gives much more value to your code: using a semantically rich HTML code allows a better use of CSS, makes your HTML intelligible to a wider range of user agents (especially search engines bots). As an aside, it can give clues to user agents developers on some hooks that could be interesting to add in their product. After checking validation for CSS and HTML. Should i go for Semantic Data Extractor tool. What it does. and how it can improved our coding.? Is anyone using it? And i check some site randomly with but with most of sites it gives error Using org.apache.xerces.parsers.SAXParser Exception net.sf.saxon.trans.XPathException: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The element type "input" must be terminated by the matching end-tag "`</input>`". org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The element type "input" must be terminated by the matching end-tag "`</input>`". Is it possible to get pass every site with this tool? on one site i got this error No top-level heading (h1) found, no outline extracted. Is it necessary to have at least a H1 in any webpage?

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• What is usefulness of W3C's Semantic Data Extractor in semantically correct XHTML CSS Development?

  - by metal-gear-solid

  What is the usefulness of W3C's Semantic Data Extractor? http://www.w3.org/2003/12/semantic-extractor.html This tool, geared by an XSLT stylesheet, tries to extract some information from a HTML semantic rich document. It only uses information available through a good usage of the semantics defined in HTML. The aim is to show that providing a semantically rich HTML gives much more value to your code: using a semantically rich HTML code allows a better use of CSS, makes your HTML intelligible to a wider range of user agents (especially search engines bots). As an aside, it can give clues to user agents developers on some hooks that could be interesting to add in their product. After checking validation for CSS and HTML. Should i go for Semantic Data Extractor tool. What it does. and how it can improved our coding.? Is anyone using it? And i check some site randomly with but with most of sites it gives error Using org.apache.xerces.parsers.SAXParser Exception net.sf.saxon.trans.XPathException: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The element type "input" must be terminated by the matching end-tag "`</input>`". org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The element type "input" must be terminated by the matching end-tag "`</input>`".

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• What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

  - by Bungle

  I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

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• What harm can javascript do?

  - by The King

  I just happen to read the joel's blog here... So for example if you have a web page that says “What is your name?” with an edit box and then submitting that page takes you to another page that says, Hello, Elmer! (assuming the user’s name is Elmer), well, that’s a security vulnerability, because the user could type in all kinds of weird HTML and JavaScript instead of “Elmer” and their weird JavaScript could do narsty things, and now those narsty things appear to come from you, so for example they can read cookies that you put there and forward them on to Dr. Evil’s evil site. Since javascript runs on client end. All it can access or do is only on the client end. It can read informations stored in hidden fields and change them. It can read, write or manipulate cookies... But I feel, these informations are anyway available to him. (if he is smart enough to pass javascript in a textbox. So we are not empowering him with new information or providing him undue access to our server... Just curious to know whether I miss something. Can you list the things that a malicious user can do with this security hole. Edit : Thanks to all for enlightening . As kizzx2 pointed out in one of the comments... I was overlooking the fact that a JavaScript written by User A may get executed in the browser of User B under numerous circumstances, in which case it becomes a great risk.

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• 4.0/WCF: Best approach for bi-idirectional message bus?

  - by TomTom

  Just a technology update, now that .NET 4.0 is out. I write an application that communicates to the server through what is basically a message bus (instead of method calls). This is based on the internal architecture of the application (which is multi threaded, passing the messages around). There are a limited number of messages to go from the client to the server, quite a lot more from the server to the client. Most of those can be handled via a separate specialized mechanism, but at the end we talk of possibly 10-100 small messages per second going from the server to the client. The client is supposed to operate under "internet conditions". THis means possibly home end users behind standard NAT devices (i.e. typical DSL routers) - a firewalled secure and thus "open" network can not be assumed. I want to have as little latency and as little overhad for the communication as possible. What is the technologally best way to handle the message bus callback? I Have no problem regularly calling to the server for message delivery if something needs to be sent... ...but what are my options to handle the messagtes from the server to the client? WsDualHttp does work how? Especially under a NAT scenario? Just as a note: polling is most likely out - the main problem here is that I would have a significant overhead OR a significant delay, both aren ot really wanted. Technically I would love some sort of streaming appraoch, where the server can write messags to a stream while he generates them and they get sent to the client as they come. Not esure this is doable with WCF, though (if not, I may acutally decide to handle the whole message part outside of WCF and just do control / login / setup / destruction via WCF).

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• Strange Ruby String Selection

  - by Daniel

  The string in question (read from a file): if (true) then { _this = createVehicle ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir -2.109278; }; Retrieved from a large list of similar (all same file) strings via the following: get_stringR(string,"if","};") And the function code: def get_stringR(a,b,c) b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.rindex(c) c ||= b r = a[b,c] return r end As so far, this works fine, but what I wanted to do is select the array after "createVehicle", the following (I thought) should work. newstring = get_string(myString,"\[","\];") Note get_string is the same as get_stringR, except it uses the first occurrence of the pattern both times, rather then the first and last occurrence. The output should have been: ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; Instead it was the below, given via 'puts': ["Land_hut10", [6226.8901, 986.091, 4.5776367e-005], [], 0, "CAN_COLLIDE"]; _vehicle_10 = _this; _this setDir Some 40 characters past the point it should have retrieve, which was very strange... Second note, using both get_string and get_stringR produced the exact same result with the parameters given. I then decided to add the following to my get_string code: b = a.index(b) b ||= 0 c = a.index(c) c ||= b if c 40 then c -= 40 end r = a[b,c] return r And it works as expected (for every 'block' in the file, even though the strings after that array are not identical in any way), but something obviously isn't right :).

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• Rails preventing duplicates in polymorphic has_many :through associations

  - by seaneshbaugh

  Is there an easy or at least elegant way to prevent duplicate entries in polymorphic has_many through associations? I've got two models, stories and links that can be tagged. I'm making a conscious decision to not use a plugin here. I want to actually understand everything that's going on and not be dependent on someone else's code that I don't fully grasp. To see what my question is getting at, if I run the following in the console (assuming the story and tag objects exist in the database already) s = Story.find_by_id(1) t = Tag.find_by_id(1) s.tags << t s.tags << t My taggings join table will have two entries added to it, each with the same exact data (tag_id = 1, taggable_id = 1, taggable_type = "Story"). That just doesn't seem very proper to me. So in an attempt to prevent this from happening I added the following to my Tagging model: before_validation :validate_uniqueness def validate_uniqueness taggings = Tagging.find(:all, :conditions => { :tag_id => self.tag_id, :taggable_id => self.taggable_id, :taggable_type => self.taggable_type }) if !taggings.empty? return false end return true end And it works almost as intended, but if I attempt to add a duplicate tag to a story or link I get an ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed exception. It seems that when you add an association to a list it calls the save! (rather than save sans !) method which raises exceptions if something goes wrong rather than just returning false. That isn't quite what I want to happen. I suppose I can surround any attempts to add new tags with a try/catch but that goes against the idea that you shouldn't expect your exceptions and this is something I fully expect to happen. Is there a better way of doing this that won't raise exceptions when all I want to do is just silently not save the object to the database because a duplicate exists?

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• syntax help required on templated static member function

  - by omatai

  I have a bunch of containers of object pointers that I want to iterate through in different contexts to produce diagnostics for them. I'm struggling with the syntax required to define the functions... which, on account of these objects filtering through diverse parts of my application, seem best encapsulated in a dedicated diagnostics class thus: // Code sketch only - detail fleshed out below... class ObjectListDiagnoser { public: static void GenerateDiagnostics( /* help required here! */ ); }; ... // Elsewhere in the system... ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( /* help required here! */ ); What I'd like to be able to do (in places across my application) is at least this: std::vector<MyObject *> objGroup1; std::list<MyObject *> objGroup2; ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( objGroup1.begin(), objGroup1.end() ); ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( objGroup2.begin(), objGroup2.end() ); ObjectListDiagnoser::GenerateDiagnostics( objGroup1.rbegin(), objGroup1.rend() ); I have tried to template my function in two ways, with no success: class ObjectListDiagnoser { public: // 1 - nope. template <class ObjIter> static void GenerateDiagnostics( ObjIter first, ObjIter last ); // 2. - nope. template <class Container, class ObjIter> static void GenerateDiagnostics( Container<MyObject *>::ObjIter first, Container<MyObject *>::ObjIter last ); }; Can someone provide the correct syntax for this? The container type will vary, and the direction of iteration will vary, but always for the same type of object.

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• Delphi access violation assigning local variable

  - by Justin

  This seems like the simplest thing in the world and I'm ready to pull my hair out over it. I have a unit that looks like this ; Unit myUnit; // ... //normal declarations //... Public //bunch of procedures including Procedure myProcedure; const //bunch of constants var //bunch of vars including myCounter:integer; Implementation Uses //(all my uses) // All of my procedures including Procedure myProcedure; try // load items from file to TListBox - this all works except on EReadError do begin // handle exception end; end; //try myCounter:=0; // <-- ACCESS VIOLATION HERE while myCounter //...etc It's a simple assignment of a variable and I have no idea why it is doing this. I've tried declaring the variable local to the unit, to the procedure, globally - no matter where I try to do it I can't assign a value of zero to an integer, declared anywhere, within this procedure without it throwing an access violation. I'm totally stumped. I'm calling the procedure from inside a button OnClick handler from within the same unit, but no matter where I call it from it throws the exception. The crazy thing is that I do the exact same thing in a dozen other places in units all over the program without problems. Why here? I'm at a total loss.

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• DSA signature verification input

  - by calccrypto

  What is the data inputted into DSA when PGP signs a message? From RFC4880, i found A Signature packet describes a binding between some public key and some data. The most common signatures are a signature of a file or a block of text, and a signature that is a certification of a User ID. im not sure if it is the entire public key, just the public key packet, or some other derivative of a pgp key packet. whatever it is, i cannot get the DSA signature to verify here is a sample im testing my program on: -----BEGIN PGP SIGNED MESSAGE----- Hash: SHA1 abcd -----BEGIN PGP SIGNATURE----- Version: BCPG v1.39 iFkEARECABkFAk0z65ESHGFiYyAodGVzdCBrZXkpIDw+AAoJEC3Jkh8+bnkusO0A oKG+HPF2Qrsth2zS9pK+eSCBSypOAKDBgC2Z0vf2EgLiiNMk8Bxpq68NkQ== =gq0e -----END PGP SIGNATURE----- Dumped from pgpdump.net Old: Signature Packet(tag 2)(89 bytes) Ver 4 - new Sig type - Signature of a canonical text document(0x01). Pub alg - DSA Digital Signature Algorithm(pub 17) Hash alg - SHA1(hash 2) Hashed Sub: signature creation time(sub 2)(4 bytes) Time - Mon Jan 17 07:11:13 UTC 2011 Hashed Sub: signer's User ID(sub 28)(17 bytes) User ID - abc (test key) <> Sub: issuer key ID(sub 16)(8 bytes) Key ID - 0x2DC9921F3E6E792E Hash left 2 bytes - b0 ed DSA r(160 bits) - a1 be 1c f1 76 42 bb 2d 87 6c d2 f6 92 be 79 20 81 4b 2a 4e DSA s(160 bits) - c1 80 2d 99 d2 f7 f6 12 02 e2 88 d3 24 f0 1c 69 ab af 0d 91 -> hash(DSA q bits) and the public key for it is: -----BEGIN PGP PUBLIC KEY BLOCK----- Version: BCPG v1.39 mOIETTPqeBECALx+i9PIc4MB2DYXeqsWUav2cUtMU1N0inmFHSF/2x0d9IWEpVzE kRc30PvmEHI1faQit7NepnHkkphrXLAoZukAoNP3PB8NRQ6lRF6/6e8siUgJtmPL Af9IZOv4PI51gg6ICLKzNO9i3bcUx4yeG2vjMOUAvsLkhSTWob0RxWppo6Pn6MOg dMQHIM5sDH0xGN0dOezzt/imAf9St2B0HQXVfAAbveXBeRoO7jj/qcGx6hWmsKUr BVzdQhBk7Sku6C2KlMtkbtzd1fj8DtnrT8XOPKGp7/Y7ASzRtBFhYmMgKHRlc3Qg a2V5KSA8PohGBBMRAgAGBQJNM+p5AAoJEC3Jkh8+bnkuNEoAnj2QnqGtdlTgUXCQ Fyvwk5wiLGPfAJ4jTGTL62nWzsgrCDIMIfEG2shm8bjMBE0z6ngQAgCUlP7AlfO4 XuKGVCs4NvyBpd0KA0m0wjndOHRNSIz44x24vLfTO0GrueWjPMqRRLHO8zLJS/BX O/BHo6ypjN87Af0VPV1hcq20MEW2iujh3hBwthNwBWhtKdPXOndJGZaB7lshLJuW v9z6WyDNXj/SBEiV1gnPm0ELeg8Syhy5pCjMAgCFEc+NkCzcUOJkVpgLpk+VLwrJ /Wi9q+yCihaJ4EEFt/7vzqmrooXWz2vMugD1C+llN6HkCHTnuMH07/E/2dzciEYE GBECAAYFAk0z6nkACgkQLcmSHz5ueS7NTwCdED1P9NhgR2LqwyS+AEyqlQ0d5joA oK9xPUzjg4FlB+1QTHoOhuokxxyN =CTgL -----END PGP PUBLIC KEY BLOCK----- the public key packet of the key is mOIETTPqeBECALx+i9PIc4MB2DYXeqsWUav2cUtMU1N0inmFHSF/2x0d9IWEpVzEkRc30PvmEHI1faQi t7NepnHkkphrXLAoZukAoNP3PB8NRQ6lRF6/6e8siUgJtmPLAf9IZOv4PI51gg6ICLKzNO9i3bcUx4ye G2vjMOUAvsLkhSTWob0RxWppo6Pn6MOgdMQHIM5sDH0xGN0dOezzt/imAf9St2B0HQXVfAAbveXBeRoO 7jj/qcGx6hWmsKUrBVzdQhBk7Sku6C2KlMtkbtzd1fj8DtnrT8XOPKGp7/Y7ASzR in radix 64 i have tried many different combinations of sha1(< some data + 'abcd'),but the calculated value v never equals r, of the signature i know that the pgp implementation i used to create the key and signature is correct. i also know that my DSA implementation and PGP key data extraction program are correct. thus, the only thing left is the data to hash. what is the correct data to be hashed?

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• What is the general feeling about reflection extensions in std::type_info?

  - by Evan Teran

  I've noticed that reflection is one feature that developers from other languages find very lacking in c++. For certain applications I can really see why! It is so much easier to write things like an IDE's auto-complete if you had reflection. And certainly serialization APIs would be a world easier if we had it. On the other side, one of the main tenets of c++ is don't pay for what you don't use. Which makes complete sense. That's something I love about c++. But it occurred to me there could be a compromise. Why don't compilers add extensions to the std::type_info structure? There would be no runtime overhead. The binary could end up being larger, but this could be a simple compiler switch to enable/disable and to be honest, if you are really concerned about the space savings, you'll likely disable exceptions and RTTI anyway. Some people cite issues with templates, but the compiler happily generates std::type_info structures for template types already. I can imagine a g++ switch like -fenable-typeinfo-reflection which could become very popular (and mainstream libs like boost/Qt/etc could easily have a check to generate code which uses it if there, in which case the end user would benefit with no more cost than flipping a switch). I don't find this unreasonable since large portable libraries like this already depend on compiler extensions. So why isn't this more common? I imagine that I'm missing something, what are the technical issues with this?

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• Rolling Back a Transaction with MySQL Connector in VB.net

  - by Jonathan

  Hey all- I have one multi-row INSERT statement (300 or so sets of values) that I would like to commit to the MySQL database in an all-or-nothing fashion. insert into table VALUES (1, 2, 3), (4, 5, 6), (7, 8, 9); In some cases, a set of values in the command will not meet the criteria of the table (duplicate key, for example). When that happens I do not want any of the previous sets added to the database. I've implemented this with the following code, however, my rollback command doesn't appear to be making a difference. I've used this documentation: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/es/connector-net-examples-mysqltransaction.html Dim transaction As MySqlTransaction = sqlConnection.BeginTransaction() sqlCommand = New MySqlCommand(insertStr, sqlConnection, transaction) Try sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() Catch ex As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & ex.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("Could not execute " & sqlCmd & vbNewLine) Try transaction.Rollback() writeToLog("All statements were rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False Catch rollbackEx As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & rollbackEx.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("All statements were not rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False End Try End Try transaction.commit() I get the DUPLICATE KEY exception thrown, no Rollback Exception thrown, and every set of values up to duplicate key committed to the database. What am I doing wrong? Thanks- Jonathan

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• Is Perl's flip-flop operator bugged? It has global state, how can I reset it?

  - by Evan Carroll

  I'm dismayed. Ok, so this was probably the most fun perl bug I've ever found. Even today I'm learning new stuff about perl. Essentially, the flip-flop operator .. which returns false until the left-hand-side returns true, and then true until the right-hand-side returns false keep global state (or that is what I assume.) My question is can I reset it, (perhaps this would be a good addition to perl4-esque hardly ever used reset())? Or, is there no way to use this operator safely? I also don't see this (the global context bit) documented anywhere in perldoc perlop is this a mistake? Code use feature ':5.10'; use strict; use warnings; sub search { my $arr = shift; grep { !( /start/ .. /never_exist/ ) } @$arr; } my @foo = qw/foo bar start baz end quz quz/; my @bar = qw/foo bar start baz end quz quz/; say 'first shot - foo'; say for search \@foo; say 'second shot - bar'; say for search \@bar; Spoiler $ perl test.pl first shot foo bar second shot

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• How can I include a .eps figure within a Tikz simple flow chart?

  - by Jan

  Hi, I would like to create a simple flow chart in latex with the TikZ package similar to the following example http://www.texample.net/tikz/examples/simple-flow-chart/ However I would like to include figures (a time series plot created in R, as eps or something else) within the flowchart (e.g. for example within a {block}? \documentclass{article} \usepackage[latin1]{inputenc} \usepackage{tikz} \usetikzlibrary{shapes,arrows} \begin{document} \pagestyle{empty} % Define block styles \tikzstyle{decision} = [diamond, draw, fill=blue!20, text width=4.5em, text badly centered, node distance=3cm, inner sep=0pt] \tikzstyle{block} = [rectangle, draw, fill=blue!20, text width=5em, text centered, rounded corners, minimum height=4em] \tikzstyle{line} = [draw, -latex'] \tikzstyle{cloud} = [draw, ellipse,fill=red!20, node distance=3cm, minimum height=2em] \begin{tikzpicture}[node distance = 2cm, auto] % Place nodes \node [block] (init) {initialize model}; \node [cloud, left of=init] (expert) {expert}; \node [cloud, right of=init] (system) {system}; \node [block, below of=init] (identify) {identify candidate models}; \node [block, below of=identify] (evaluate) {evaluate candidate models}; \node [block, left of=evaluate, node distance=3cm] (update) {update model}; \node [decision, below of=evaluate] (decide) {is best candidate better?}; \node [block, below of=decide, node distance=3cm] (stop) {stop}; % Draw edges \path [line] (init) -- (identify); \path [line] (identify) -- (evaluate); \path [line] (evaluate) -- (decide); \path [line] (decide) -| node [near start] {yes} (update); \path [line] (update) |- (identify); \path [line] (decide) -- node {no}(stop); \path [line,dashed] (expert) -- (init); \path [line,dashed] (system) -- (init); \path [line,dashed] (system) |- (evaluate); \end{tikzpicture} \end{document} Thanks, Jan

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• Thinking Sphinx with a date range

  - by Leddo

  Hi, I am implementing a full text search API for my rails apps, and so far have been having great success with Thinking Sphinx. I now want to implement a date range search, and keep getting the "bad value for range" error. Here is a snippet of the controller code, and i'm a bit stuck on what to do next. @search_options = { :page => params[:page], :per_page => params[:per_page]||50 } unless params[:since].blank? # make sure date is in specified format - YYYY-MM-DD d = nil begin d = DateTime.strptime(params[:since], '%Y-%m-%d') rescue raise ArgumentError, "Value for since parameter is not a valid date - please use format YYYY-MM-DD" end @search_options.merge!(:with => {:post_date => d..Time.now.utc}) end logger.info @search_options @posts = Post.search(params[:q], @search_options) When I have a look at the log, I am seeing this bit which seems to imply the date hasn't been converted into the same time format as the Time.now.utc. withpost_date2010-05-25T00:00:00+00:00..Tue Jun 01 17:45:13 UTC 2010 Any ideas? Basically I am trying to have the API request pass in a "since" date to see all posts after a certain date. I am specifying that the date should be in the YYYY-MM-DD format. Thanks for your help. Chris EDIT: I just changed the date parameters merge statement to this @search_options.merge!(:with = {:post_date = d.to_date..DateTime.now}) and now I get this error undefined method `to_i' for Tue, 25 May 2010:Date So obviously there is something still not setup right...

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• Can't access annotation property of subclassed uibutton

  - by Tzur Gazit

  I have a mapView to which I add annotations. The pin's callout have a button (rightCalloutAccessoryView). In order to be able to display various information when the button is pushed, i've subclassed uibutton and added a class called "Annotation". @interface CustomButton : UIButton { NSIndexPath *indexPath; Annotation *mAnnotation; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSIndexPath *indexPath; @property (nonatomic, copy) Annotation *mAnnotation; - (id) setAnnotation2:(Annotation *)annotation; @end Here is "Annotation": @interface Annotation : NSObject <MKAnnotation> { CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; NSString *mPhotoID; NSString *mPhotoUrl; NSString *mPhotoName; NSString *mOwner; NSString *mAddress; } @property (nonatomic, assign) CLLocationCoordinate2D coordinate; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoID; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoUrl; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mPhotoName; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mOwner; @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *mAddress; - (id) initWithCoordinates:(CLLocationCoordinate2D)coordinate; - (id) setPhotoId:(NSString *)id url:(NSString *)url owner:(NSString *)owner address:(NSString *)address andName:(NSString *)name; @end I want to set the annotation property of the uibutton at - (MKAnnotationView *)mapView:(MKMapView *)pMapView viewForAnnotation:(id )annotation, in order to refer to it at the button push handler (-(IBAction) showDetails:(id)sender). The problem is that I can't set the annotation property of the button. I get the following message at run time: 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIButton setMAnnotation:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x5063400' 2010-04-27 08:15:11.781 HotLocations[487:207] Stack: ( 32080987, 2472563977, 32462907, 32032374, 31884994, 55885, 30695992, 30679095, 30662137, 30514190, 30553882, 30481385, 30479684, 30496027, 30588515, 63333386, 31865536, 31861832, 40171029, 40171226, 2846639 ) I appreciate the help. Tzur.

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• matching an element's class to another element's ID, or *part* of another element's ID

  - by shecky

  hello again Such a simple concept but I'm struggling to express it ... apologies in advance for my verbosity. I have a container div with a class, e.g., ; I want to use that class to do two things: add a class (e.g., 'active') to the nav element whose ID matches the class of div#container (e.g., #nav-primary li# apples) add the same class to another element if part of this element's ID matches the class of #container (e.g., div#secondary-apples) I assume there's an .each() loop to check the primary nav's list items' IDs, and to check the div IDs of the secondary nav ... though the latter needs to have its prefix trimmed ... or should I say more simply if the secondary nav div IDs contain the class of div#container? I've tried a few variations of something like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav-primary li').each(function(){ var containerClass = $('#container').attr('class'); var secondaryID = $('#nav-primary li').attr('id'); // something like if ('#nav-primary li id' == (containerClass) { } // or should I first store a variable of the LI's ID and do something like this: if ( secondaryID == containerClass ) { } // and for the trickier part, how do I filter/trim the secondary nav div IDs, something like this: var secondaryNavID = $('#aux-left div[id ... something here to strip the 'secondary-' bit ... ]'); }); // end each }); // end doc.ready.func </script> The markup is, e.g.: ... ... ... ... ... ... ... Many thanks in advance for any suggestions, svs

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• System.Design cannot be referenced in Class Library?

  - by Alex Yeung

  Hi all, I have a very strange problem that I cannot fix and don't know what's going on... I am using VS 2010 Premium and .NET 4.0. Here are my steps to simulate the problem. Step 1. Create a new VB class library project named "MyClassLib" Step 2. Create a new class named "MyTestingClass". Public Class MyTestingClass Inherits System.ComponentModel.Design.CollectionEditor Public Sub New() MyBase.New(GetType(List(Of String))) End Sub End Class Step 3. Add two .net reference. "System.Design" and "System.Drawing". Step 4. Create a new VB console application named "MyClassExe" Step 5. Add "MyClassLib" reference to "MyClassExe". Step 6. Open Module1.vb in "MyClassExe" project Step 7. In the Main method, type Dim a = New MyClassLib.MyTestingClass() Step 8. Try to compile "MyClassLib". It doesn't have problem. Step 9. Try to compile "MyClassExe". It cannot compile because the WHOLE MyClassLib cannot be found!!! I have no idea what's going on? Moreover, the same case happens in C#. Does anyone know what's the problem with "System.Design"? Thank!!!

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• Specify which xml file to load when link is clicked

  - by Jason

  Good morning, I would like it so when a link is clicked on the homepage it would load a particular xml file into the next page (the page is called category-list.apsx). This category list page uses the Repeater Control method to display the xml details on the page. I used the example shown here: http://www.w3schools.com/aspnet/aspnet_repeater.asp So at the moment the repeater script looks like: <script runat="server"> sub Page_Load if Not Page.IsPostBack then dim mycategories=New DataSet mycategories.ReadXml(MapPath("categories.xml")) categories.DataSource=mycategories categories.DataBind() end if end sub </script> After doing some research I did find someone with the same problem and the solution was to insert #tags as part of the link on the homepage (i.e. category-list.apsx#company1results) and then some script on the list page to pick up the correct xml file: <script type="text/javascript"> var old_onload = window.onload; // Play it safe by respecting onload handlers set by other scripts. window.onload=function() { var categories = document.location.href.substring(document.location.href.indexOf("#")+1); loadXMLDoc('XML/'+categories+'.xml'); old_onload(); } </script> This was from the following link: http://www.hotscripts.com/forums/javascript/45641-solved-specify-xml-file-load-when-click-link.html How can I get these two scripts to connect with each other? Thank you for your time

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• Objective-C autorelease pool not releasing object

  - by Chris

  Hi I am very new to Objective-C and was reading through memory management. I was trying to play around a bit with the NSAutoreleasePool but somehow it wont release my object. I have a class with a setter and getter which basically sets a NSString *name. After releasing the pool I tried to NSLog the object and it still works but I guess it should not? @interface TestClass : NSObject { NSString *name; } - (void) setName: (NSString *) string; - (NSString *) name; @end @implementation TestClass - (void) setName: (NSString *) string { name = string; } - (NSString *) name { return name; } @end int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; TestClass *var = [[TestClass alloc] init]; [var setName:@"Chris"]; [var autorelease]; [pool release]; // This should not be possible? NSLog(@"%@",[var name]); return 0; }

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• Adding a UIPickerView over a UITabBarController

  - by Kai

  I'm trying to have a UIPickerView slide from the bottom of the screen (over the top of a tab bar) but can't seem to get it to show up. The actual code for the animation is coming from one of Apple's example code projects (DateCell). I'm calling this code from the first view controller (FirstViewController.m) under the tab bar controller. - (IBAction)showModePicker:(id)sender { if (self.modePicker.superview == nil) { [self.view.window addSubview:self.modePicker]; // size up the picker view to our screen and compute the start/end frame origin for our slide up animation // // compute the start frame CGRect screenRect = [[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]; CGSize pickerSize = [self.modePicker sizeThatFits:CGSizeZero]; CGRect startRect = CGRectMake(0.0, screenRect.origin.y + screenRect.size.height, pickerSize.width, pickerSize.height); self.modePicker.frame = startRect; // compute the end frame CGRect pickerRect = CGRectMake(0.0, screenRect.origin.y + screenRect.size.height - pickerSize.height, pickerSize.width, pickerSize.height); // start the slide up animation [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.3]; // we need to perform some post operations after the animation is complete [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; self.modePicker.frame = pickerRect; // shrink the vertical size to make room for the picker CGRect newFrame = self.view.frame; newFrame.size.height -= self.modePicker.frame.size.height; self.view.frame = newFrame; [UIView commitAnimations]; // add the "Done" button to the nav bar self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = self.doneButton; }} Whenever this action fires via a UIBarButtonItem that lives in a UINavigationBar (which is all under the FirstViewController) nothing happens. Can anyone please offer some advice?

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• Filter subform using combobox

  - by TT1611

  This has taken me nearly 2 weeks and I dont know what else to do. I have a main form (UserSearch) that has a subform (TestUserSub). The associated table for both forms is tblusers. very simple; on the main form (UserSearch) I have a comboboxes associated with the fields in the tblusers eg cmbid, cmbname, cmbdept and so on. All I want, is for a user to make a selection from any of these comboboxes and for the associated fields to display in the subform (TestUserSub). I have tried several different versions of code in the afterupdate event in a couple of the comboboxes and nothing is happening in the subform or in other instances I get error message. One example i have tried is filtering running an SQL command Private Sub cmbid_AfterUpdate() Dim strSQL As String If IsNull(Me.cmbaccess) Then Me.RecordSource = "tblusers" Else strSQL = "SELECT tblUsers.[Team Member_ID] FROM tblUsers " & _ "WHERE (((tblUsers.[Team Member_ID])= " & [form_testusersub].[txtid2]))& ";" Me.RecordSource = strSQL End If End Sub The above didnt work..Can someone please help me with this. I have a sample database that i have been working off and by some very strange way, they have managed to do this same thing without calling any code. Is this possible?

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• ruby, rails, railscasts example I messed up

  - by Sam

  If you saw the railscasts on nested forms this is the helper method to create links dynamically. However, after I upgraded to ruby 1.9.2 and rails 3 this doesn't work and I have now idea why. def link_to_add_fields(name, f, association) new_object = f.object.class.reflect_on_association(association).klass.new fields = f.fields_for(association, new_object, :child_index => "new_#{association}") do |builder| render(association.to_s.singularize + "_fields", :f => builder) end link_to_function(name, h("add_fields(this, \"#{association}\", \"#{escape_javascript(fields)}\")")) end here is the javascript function add_fields(link, association, content) { var new_id = new Date().getTime(); var regexp = new RegExp("new_" + association, "g") $(link).up().insert({ before: content.replace(regexp, new_id) }); } When I view source this is how the link is getting rendered: <p><a href="#" onclick="add_fields(this, &quot;dimensions&quot;, &quot;&quot;); return false;">Add Dimension</a></p> so &quot;&quot; is not the correct information to build a new template and something is going on with how the string for fields is getting set. such as fields= f.fields_for

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• Strange problem with vectors.

  - by Catalin Dumitru

  I have a really strange problem with stl vectors in which the wrong destructor is called for the right object when I call the erase method if that makes any sense. My code looks something like this: for(vector<Category>::iterator iter = this->children.begin(); iter != this->children.end(); iter++) { if((*iter).item == item) { this->children.erase(iter); return; } ------------------------- } It's just a simple function that finds the element in the vector which has some item to be searched, and removes said element from the vector. My problem is than when the erase function is called, and thus the object which the iterator is pointing at is being destroyed, the wrong destructor is being called. More specific the destructor of the last element in the vector is being called, and not of the actual object being removed. Thus the memory is being removed from the wrong object, which will still be an element in the vector, and the actual object which is removed from the vector, still has all of it's memory intact. The costructor of the object looks like this: Category::Category(const Category &from) { this->name = from.name; for(vector<Category>::const_iterator iter = from.children.begin(); iter != from.children.end(); iter++) this->children.push_back((*iter)); this->item = new QTreeWidgetItem; } And the destructor Category::~Category() { this->children.clear(); if(this->item != NULL) { QTreeWidgetItem* parent = this->item->parent(); if(parent != NULL) parent->removeChild(this->item); delete this->item; } }

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• Calling a method on an unitialized object (null pointer)

  - by Florin

  What is the normal behavior in Objective-C if you call a method on an object (pointer) that is nil (maybe because someone forgot to initialize it)? Shouldn't it generate some kind of an error (segmentation fault, null pointer exception...)? If this is normal behavior, is there a way of changing this behavior (by configuring the compiler) so that the program raises some kind of error / exception at runtime? To make it more clear what I am talking about, here's an example. Having this class: @interface Person : NSObject { NSString *name; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *name; - (void)sayHi; @end with this implementation: @implementation Person @synthesize name; - (void)dealloc { [name release]; [super dealloc]; } - (void)sayHi { NSLog(@"Hello"); NSLog(@"My name is %@.", name); } @end Somewhere in the program I do this: Person *person = nil; //person = [[Person alloc] init]; // let's say I comment this line person.name = @"Mike"; // shouldn't I get an error here? [person sayHi]; // and here [person release]; // and here

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