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  • Best way to "un-promote" files in Accurev?

    - by Luke Rinard
    My company uses Accurev for source control, and for all its benefits, there's one simple action that I just can't figure out how to accomplish. Often we have someone accidentally push a file up too far in our stream structure -- from the "Development" stream to the "Release" stream, for example. What is the best way to "un-promote" this file? That is to say, to get the old version of the file back into the "Release" stream, and keep the new version of the file in the "Development" stream, where it belongs? Just doing a "Revert to Backed" or other Revert action on the file in the Release stream will either cause an old version of the file to propagate down into Development, or will make the file disappear entirely. In the above case, the developer will have to jump through hoops with setting basis times on streams, or use the command line tool to do a checkout of an old transaction, to get the file back. Sometimes the people in question are non-technical, so this is not a good solution. I have also considered moving the files to a "higher ground" stream, reverting, and then cross-promoting them to the lower stream again. This seems really kludgy. It seems like Accurev is obscure enough that Google is no help, so I turn to the good folks of StackOverflow for help -- has anybody figured out the "Accurevy" way to accomplish this?

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  • drupal ajax create node

    - by Mark
    I need to create a drupal node via ajax. I'm looking for some instructions as in: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/960343/creating-a-drupal-node-with-javascript But with more detail, and including the js steps. The JS will probably look something like this: var title = 'Demo Node Title' $('button').click(function () { $.post('demo/js', {"title" : title}, function(data) { var json = eval("(" + data + ")"); if (json['status'] == "error") { alert(json['message']); } else if (json['status'] == "success") { alert(json['message']); // Need to return the nid of the new node here. Anyone know how to do this? } }); }); The PHP (copied from the other question, but I don't understand it much, how do I set the title of the node? also as the comments says, how do I set an input filter?): <?php /** * Implementation of hook_menu(). */ function demo_menu() { $items = array(); $items['demo/js'] = array( 'title' => 'Demo page', 'page callback' => 'demo_js_page', 'access callback' => TRUE, 'type' => MENU_CALLBACK, ); return $items; } /** * Page callback that saves a node. */ function demo_js_page() { if (isset($_REQUEST['title'])) { $node = new stdClass; $node->type = 'blog'; $node->title = check_plain($_REQUEST['title']); node_save($node); drupal_set_message(t('Created node %title', array('%title' => $_REQUEST['title']))); } return t('Thanks for visiting'); } Thanks in advance.

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  • Break on EXC_BAD_ACCESS in XCode?

    - by jasonh
    I'm new to iPhone development and XCode in general and have no idea how to begin troubleshooting an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal. How can I get XCode to break at the exact line that is causing the error? I can't seem to get XCode to stop on the line causing the problem, but I do see the following lines in my debug console: Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetStrokeColorWithColor: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextSetLineWidth: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextAddPath: invalid context Sun Oct 25 15:12:14 jasonsmacbook TestProject[1289] : CGContextDrawPath: invalid context 2009-10-25 15:12:14.680 LanderTest[1289:207] *** -[CFArray objectAtIndex:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3c4e610 Now, I am attempting to draw to the context I retrieve from UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext() and pass to the object that I want to draw with. Further trial and error debugging and I found that an NSMutableArray I have a property for on my class was a zombie. I went into the init function for the class and here's the code I was using: if ((self = [super init])) { NSMutableArray *array = [NSMutableArray array]; self.terrainBlocks = array; [array release]; } return self; } I removed the [array release] line and it no longer gives me the EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal, but I'm now confused about why this works. I thought that when I used the property, it automatically retained it for me, and thus I should release it from within init so that I don't have a leak. I'm thoroughly confused about how this works and all the guides and Stackoverflow questions I've read only confuse me more about how to set properties within my init method. There seems to be no consensus as to which way is the best.

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  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are a lot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Preferably no byte translations required. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician. Just need a decent basic algorithm, we're not launching nukes... NB: Please no philosophy on encryption nor who is Diffie-Hellman. I just need a basic solution.

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  • Why do people hate SQL cursors so much?

    - by Steven A. Lowe
    I can understand wanting to avoid having to use a cursor due to the overhead and inconvenience, but it looks like there's some serious cursor-phobia-mania going on where people are going to great lengths to avoid having to use one for example, one question asked how to do something obviously trivial with a cursor and the accepted answer proposed using a common table expression (CTE) recursive query with a recursive custom function, even though this limits the number of rows that could be processed to 32 (due to recursive call limit in sql server). This strikes me as a terrible solution for system longevity, not to mention a tremendous effort just to avoid using a simple cursor. what is the reason for this level of insane hatred? has some 'noted authority' issued a fatwa against cursors? does some unspeakable evil lurk in the heart of cursors that corrupts the morals of the children or something? wiki question, more interested in the answer than the rep thanks in advance! Related Info: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/37029/sql-server-fast-forward-cursors EDIT: let me be more precise: I understand that cursors should not be used instead of normal relational operations, that is a no-brainer. What I don't understand is people going waaaaay out of their way to avoid cursors like they have cooties or something, even when a cursor is a simpler and/or more efficient solution. It's the irrational hatred that baffles me, not the obvious technical efficiencies.

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  • jQuery - Not sure which method to use, closest() and parent() don't work.

    - by Nike
    Hello, again. :) God i feel like i'm spamming stackoverflow, this is my 3rd post for today. Sorry, heh. I even posted a question regarding this before, kind of, but i've changed the code a bit since so i thought it was better to post a new question. $('.pmlist ul li h4 .toggle').click(function() { $(this).closest('.meddel').toggle(250); }); That's what i've got now. The reason why the closest() method isn't working is because the div .meddel is just next to the h4 element. And closest() only crawls right up the DOM tree, ignoring other child elements. Right? parent() works almost the same and doesn't work either. And as i only want to toggle the closest .meddel div in the element, i need something that, yeah justs grabs the nearest one, and not all of them. To clear it up a bit, here's the HTML for one list item: <li class="item"> <h4><a class="toggle">ämne</a><small>2010-04-17 kl 12:54 by <u>nike1</u></small></h4> <div class="meddel"> <span> <img style="max-width: 70%; min-height: 70%;" src="profile-images/nike1.jpg" alt="" /> <a href="account.php?usr=47">nike1</a> </span> <p>text</p> </div> </li> I have several items like that, and if i click one toggle link, i just want the nearest .meddel to be toggled, as mentioned before. Thanks. -Nike

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  • imagegrabwindow + https = black screen

    - by earls
    I'm doing something stupid and trying to capture thumbnails, snapshots, images of a html webpages. I'm doing something along the lines of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/443837/how-might-i-obtain-a-snapshot-or-thumbnail-of-a-web-page-using-php DCOM + IE + PHP (imagegrabwindow; example from manual) Everything works PERFECT until I try to capture a HTTPS website... https://mail.google.com for example. imagegrabwindow produces a png, but it only shows the browser. the contents of the browser are black. If I log out of Google, I can capture the browser window and the contents thereof - the second I log in, the contents (not the browser frame) are black screen. Yes, I've increased the timeout (before closing the browser window). IE has clearly loaded the page, it just refuses to render for imagegrabwindow. I've been fighting this long enough I know it's either a permissions problem or a service needs to interact with the desktop. Does anyone have any clue what permissions need to be set or which service needs access? I assumed cryptographic services, but that's run as a network service and trying to change it to interact makes it shout and carry on. This is the last piece of the puzzle, I'd really like to get it working. Thank you!

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  • how to get cartesian products between database and local sequences in linq?

    - by JD
    I saw this similar question here but can't figure out how to use Contains in Cartesian product desired result situation: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1712105/linq-to-sql-exception-local-sequence-cannot-be-used-in-linq-to-sql-implementatio Let's say I have following: var a = new [] { 1, 4, 7 }; var b = new [] { 2, 5, 8 }; var test = from i in a from j in b select new { A = i, B = j, AB = string.Format("{0:00}a{1:00}b", i, j), }; foreach (var t in test) Console.Write("{0}, ", t.AB); This works great and I get a dump like so (note, I want the cartesian product): 01a02b, 01a05b, 01a08b, 04a02b, 04a05b, 04a08b, 07a02b, 07a05b, 07a08b, Now what I really want is to take this and cartesian product it again against an ID from a database table I have. But, as soon as I add in one more from clause that instead of referencing objects, references SQL table, I get an error. So, altering above to something like so where db is defined as a new DataContext (i.e., class deriving from System.Data.Linq.DataContext): var a = new [] { 1, 4, 7 }; var b = new [] { 2, 5, 8 }; var test = from symbol in db.Symbols from i in a from j in b select new { A = i, B = j, AB = string.Format("{0}{1:00}a{2:00}b", symbol.ID, i, j), }; foreach (var t in test) Console.Write("{0}, ", t.AB); The error I get is following: Local sequence cannot be used in LINQ to SQL implementations of query operators except the Contains operator Its related to not using Contains apparently but I'm unsure how Contains would be used when I don't really want to constrict the results - I want the Cartesian product for my situation. Any ideas of how to use Contains above and still yield the Cartesian product when joining database and local sequences?

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  • Correct escaping of delimited identifers in SQL Server without using QUOTENAME

    - by Ross Bradbury
    Is there anything else that the code must do to sanitize identifiers (table, view, column) other than to wrap them in double quotation marks and "double up" and double quotation marks present in the identifier name? References would be appreciated. I have inherited a code base that has a custom object-relational mapping (ORM) system. SQL cannot be written in the application but the ORM must still eventually generate the SQL to send to the SQL Server. All identifiers are quoted with double quotation marks. string QuoteName(string identifier) { return "\" + identifier.Replace("\"", "\"\"") + "\""; } If I were building this dynamic SQL in SQL, I would use the built-in SQL Server QUOTENAME function: declare @identifier nvarchar(128); set @identifier = N'Client"; DROP TABLE [dbo].Client; --'; declare @delimitedIdentifier nvarchar(258); set @delimitedIdentifier = QUOTENAME(@identifier, '"'); print @delimitedIdentifier; -- "Client""; DROP TABLE [dbo].Client; --" I have not found any definitive documentation about how to escape quoted identifiers in SQL Server. I have found Delimited Identifiers (Database Engine) and I also saw this stackoverflow question about sanitizing. If it were to have to call the QUOTENAME function just to quote the identifiers that is a lot of traffic to SQL Server that should not be needed. The ORM seems to be pretty well thought out with regards to SQL Injection. It is in C# and predates the nHibernate port and Entity Framework etc. All user input is sent using ADO.NET SqlParameter objects, it is just the identifier names that I am concerned about in this question. This needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and 2008.

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  • iPhone app stopped building crash reports

    - by BankStrong
    My app formerly created useful crash logs. I synced my iPhone in the past and found crash logs in library/logs/CrashReporter About a month ago, my app stopped creating crash reports. When I first discovered this problem, I assumed it was due to memory corruption (a possibility in my app). I just created a new project and added a crash to it. // Implement viewDidLoad to do additional setup after loading the view, // typically from a nib. - (void)viewDidLoad { NSMutableArray *array = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [array removeObjectAtIndex:-1]; [super viewDidLoad]; } This app does not create a crash report either. Ideas I've started to explore: My phone is corrupted (tried restoring - somehow I brought it to the state from a few months ago) My XCode is corrupt (tried reinstalling, but current download demands Snow Leopard - and I can't upgrade to Snow Leopard online). This seems possible - I may have messed with device support around a month ago (similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1224867/does-iphone-os-3-0-1-ruin-your-development-phone ) The location for crash logs has somehow moved. Suggestions?

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  • How to stop MVC caching the results of invoking and action method?

    - by Trey Carroll
    I am experiencing a problem with IE caching the results of an action method. Other articles I found were related to security and the [Authorize] attribute. This problem has nothing to do with security. This is a very simple "record a vote, grab the average, return the avg and the number of votes" method. The only slightly interesting thing about it is that it is invoked via Ajax and returns a Json object. I believe that it is the Json object that is getting catched. When I run it from FireFox and watch the XHR traffic with Firebug, everything works perfectly. However, under IE 8 the "throbber" graphic doesn't ever have time to show up and the page elements that display the "new" avg and count that are being injected into the page with jQuery are never different. I need a way to tell MVC to never cache this action method. This article seems to address the problem, but I cannot understand it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1441467/prevent-caching-of-attributes-in-asp-net-mvc-force-attribute-execution-every-tim I need a bit more context for the solution to understand how to extend AuthorizationAttribute. Please address your answer as if you were speaking to someone who lacks a deep understanding of MVC even if that means replying with an article on some basics/prerequisites that are required. Thanks, Trey Carroll

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  • Asynchronous background processes in Python?

    - by Geuis
    I have been using this as a reference, but not able to accomplish exactly what I need: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/89228/how-to-call-external-command-in-python/92395#92395 I also was reading this: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-3145/ For our project, we have 5 svn checkouts that need to update before we can deploy our application. In my dev environment, where speedy deployments are a bit more important for productivity than a production deployment, I have been working on speeding up the process. I have a bash script that has been working decently but has some limitations. I fire up multiple 'svn updates' with the following bash command: (svn update /repo1) & (svn update /repo2) & (svn update /repo3) & These all run in parallel and it works pretty well. I also use this pattern in the rest of the build script for firing off each ant build, then moving the wars to Tomcat. However, I have no control over stopping deployment if one of the updates or a build fails. I'm re-writing my bash script with Python so I have more control over branches and the deployment process. I am using subprocess.call() to fire off the 'svn update /repo' commands, but each one is acting sequentially. I try '(svn update /repo) &' and those all fire off, but the result code returns immediately. So I have no way to determine if a particular command fails or not in the asynchronous mode. import subprocess subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo1', shell=True ) subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo2', shell=True ) subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo3', shell=True ) I'd love to find a way to have Python fire off each Unix command, and if any of the calls fails at any time the entire script stops.

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  • [Repost-ish] Impossibly slow queries, Tables indexed, How can I speed it up?

    - by colorfulgrayscale
    Hi guys, I posted a little earlier on here at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2656837/query-results-taking-too-long-on-200k-database-speed-up-tips asking about slow executing SQL queries. I was told to index the columns; I did. and its still slow (slow as in, i never see the results, both mysql and sqlite freeze up on query). Help would be greatly appreciated. Here is the SQL SELECT equipment.`unitID` AS `equipment_unitID`, equipment.`fleetCode` AS `equipment_fleetCode`, equipment.type AS equipment_type, equipment.tiremap AS equipment_tiremap, tiremap.`TireID` AS `tiremap_TireID`, tiremap.`WorkMap` AS `tiremap_WorkMap`, tiremap.`Position` AS `tiremap_Position`, tiremap.`DepthMap` AS `tiremap_DepthMap`, tiremap.timestamp AS tiremap_timestamp, workreference.`aMap` AS `workreference_aMap`, workreference.`bMap` AS `workreference_bMap`, tirework.`RO` AS `tirework_RO`, tirework.location AS tirework_location, tirework.mileage AS tirework_mileage, tirework.`mechanicCode` AS `tirework_mechanicCode`, tirework.`partNumber` AS `tirework_partNumber`, tirework.`historyID` AS `tirework_historyID`, tirework.workmap AS tirework_workmap, tirework.timestamp AS tirework_timestamp FROM equipment, tiremap, workreference, tirework WHERE equipment.tiremap = tiremap.`TireID` AND tiremap.`WorkMap` = workreference.`aMap` AND workreference.`bMap` = tirework.workmap LIMIT 5 and here is the EXPLAIN for it id select_type table type possible_keys key key_len ref rows Extra 1 SIMPLE equipment ALL tiremap 14079 1 SIMPLE tiremap ref PRIMARY,WorkMap,TireID,WorkMap_2 PRIMARY 52 tire.equipment.tiremap 3 1 SIMPLE workreference ref aMap,bMap aMap 52 tire.tiremap.WorkMap 1 1 SIMPLE tirework eq_ref NewIndex1 NewIndex1 52 tire.workreference.bMap 1

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  • Update existing Preference-item in a PreferenceActivity upon returning from a (sub)PreferenceScreen

    - by aioobe
    I have a PreferenceActivity with a bunch of (Sub)PreferenceScreens. Each such (Sub)PreferenceScreen represents an account and has the account-username as its title. PreferenceScreen root = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); for (MyAccountClass account : myAccounts) { final PreferenceScreen accScreen = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); accScreen.setTitle(account.getUsername()); // add Preferences to the accScreen // (for instance a "change username"-preference) ... root.add(accScreen); } As the user enters sub-PreferenceScreen, and edits the account user-name, I want the outer PreferenceScreen to update it's PreferenceScreen-title for the account in question. I've tried to add... usernamePref.setOnPreferenceChangeListener(new OnPreferenceChangeListener() { public boolean onPreferenceChange(Preference preference, Object newValue) { accScreen.setTitle(newValue.toString()); return true; } }); ...but the accScreen.setTitle does not seem to take effect on the outer PreferenceScreen. I've note that calling onContentChanged(); actually makes it work, but I realize that this is probably not the preferred way of doing it. I suspect I should call postInvalidate() on some view somewhere, but I really can't figure out on what view and when to do it. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2396153/preferencescreen-androidsummary-update may be experiening the same problem as me. Any help appreciated.

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  • Creating cookieless application on development machine with asp.net

    - by zaladane
    I tried posting this on ServerFault with no luck so i am trying here. I am thinking about setting up a new domain to host static content on my website and have it cookieless just like Stackoverflow with their static domain. So before going ahead and buying the domain and setting it up I wanted to test it on my developement machine first under localhost (I have to mention that i am planning on having IIS running on my new domain for the static files). I therefore created a new application under IIS and disabled session state and forms authentication. When my main application needs resources like css, images and js , I use the path to the "static" application where they are hosted. The problem is that when I look at the request and the response for the requested files, they still have the session_id cookie defined as well as the asp.net authentication cookie. Is it at all possible to accomplish what i am trying to do on a development machine or do i have to just go ahead and purchase the new domain which hopefully with make things right? I tried to read about cookieless domain but can't figure out what i might be missing.

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  • Creating nodes porgramatically in Drupal 6

    - by John
    Hey, I have been searching for how to create nodes in Drupal 6. I found some entries here on stackoverflow, but the questions seemed to either be for older versions or the solutions did not work for me. Ok, so here is my current process for trying to create $node = new stdClass(); $node->title = "test title"; $node->body = "test body"; $node->type= "story"; $node->created = time(); $node->changed = $node->created; $node->status = 1; $node->promote = 1; $node->sticky = 0; $node->format = 1; $node->uid = 1; node_save( $node ); When I execute this code, the node is created, but when I got the administration page, it throws the following errors: warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. user warning: Duplicate entry '36' for key 1 query: INSERT INTO node_comment_statistics (nid, last_comment_timestamp, last_comment_name, last_comment_uid, comment_count) VALUES (36, 1269980590, NULL, 1, 0) in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\sites\all\modules\nodecomment\nodecomment.module on line 409. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. I've looked at different tutorials, and all seem to follow the same process. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using Drupal 6.15. When I roll back the database (to right before I made the changes) the errors are gone. Any help is appreciated!

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  • JQuery-UI Drag, Drop and Re-Drag Clones on Re-Drag

    - by amarcy
    I am using the following code to extend the JQuery-UI demos included with the download. I am trying to set up a container that the user can drag items into and then move the items around within the container. I incorporated the answer from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/867469/jquery-draggable-clone which works with one problem. <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#droppable").droppable({ accept: '.ui-widget-content', drop: function(event, ui) { if($(ui).parent(":not(:has(#id1))")){ $(this).append($(ui.helper).clone().attr("id", "id1")); } $("#id1").draggable({ containment: 'parent', }); } }); $(".ui-widget-content").draggable({helper: 'clone'}); }); </script> div class="demo"> <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <p>Drag me around</p> </div> <div id="droppable" class="ui-widget-header"> <p>Drop here</p> </div> When an item is dropped onto the droppable container it can be dragged one time and when it is dropped after that drag it loses its dragging capability. How do I allow for the item to be dragged multiple times after it has been added to the droppable container?

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  • looking for a license key algorithm.

    - by giulio
    There are alot of questions relating to license keys asked on stackoverflow. But they don't answer this question. Can anyone provide a simple license key algorithm that is technology independent and doesn't required a diploma in mathematics to understand ? The license key algorithm is similar to public key encryption. I just need something simple that can be implemented in any platform .Net/Java and uses simple data like characters. Written as Pseudo code is perfect. So if a person presents a string, a complementary string can be generated that is the authorisation code. Below is a common scenario that it would be used for. Customer downloads s/w which generates a unique key upon initial startup/installation. S/w runs during trial period. At end of trial period an authorisation key is required. Customer goes to designated web-site, enters their code and get authorisation code to enable s/w, after paying :) Don't be afraid to describe your answer as though you're talking to a 5 yr old as I am not a mathemtician.

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  • Web Service Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

    - by dcp
    This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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  • Uncatchable AccesViolationException

    - by Roy
    Hi all, I'm getting close to desperate.. I am developing a field service application for Windows Mobile 6.1 using C# and quite some p/Invoking. (I think I'm referencing about 50 native functions) On normal circumstances this goes without any problem, but when i start stressing the GC i'm getting a nasty 0xC0000005 error witch seems uncatchable. In my test i'm rapidly closing and opening a dialog form (the form did make use of native functions, but for testing i commented these out) and after a while the Windows Mobile error reporter comes around to tell me that there was an fatal error in my application. My code uses a try-catch around the Application.Run(masterForm); and hooks into the CurrentDomain.UnhandledException event, but the application still crashes. Even when i attach the debugger, visual studio just tells me "The remote connection to the device has been lost" when the exception occurs.. Since I didn't succeed to catch the exception in the managed environment, I tried to make sense out of the Error Reporter log file. But this doesn't make any sense, the only consistent this about the error is the application where it occurs in. The thread where the application occurs in is unknown to me, the module where the error occurs differs from time to time (I've seen my application.exe, WS2.dll, netcfagl3_5.dll and mscoree3_5.dll), even the error code is not always the same. (most of the time it's 0xC0000005, but i've also seen an 0X80000002 error, which is a warning accounting the first byte?) I tried debugging through bugtrap, but strangely enough this crashes with the same error code (0xC0000005). I tried to open the kdmp file with visual studio, but i can't seem to make any sense out of this because it only shows me disassembler code when i step into the error (unless i have the right .pbb files, which i don't). Same goes for WinDbg. To make a long story short: I frankly don't have a single clue where to look for this error, and I'm hoping some bright soul on stackoverflow does. I'm happy to provide some code but at this moment I don't know which piece to provide.. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Making that move from junior > mid level

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

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  • Bash Templating: How to build configuration files from templates with Bash?

    - by FractalizeR
    Hello. I'm writting a script to automate creating configuration files for Apache and PHP for my own webserver. I don't want to use any GUIs like CPanel or ISPConfig. I have some templates of Apache and PHP configuration files. Bash script needs to read templates, make variable substitution and output parsed templates into some folder. What is the best way to do that? I can think of several ways. Which one is the best or may be there are some better ways to do that? I want to do that in pure Bash (it's easy in PHP for example) 1)http://stackoverflow.com/questions/415677/how-to-repace-variables-in-a-nix-text-file template.txt: the number is ${i} the word is ${word} script.sh: #!/bin/sh #set variables i=1 word="dog" #read in template one line at the time, and replace variables #(more natural (and efficient) way, thanks to Jonathan Leffler) while read line do eval echo "$line" done < "./template.txt" BTW, how do I redirect output to external file here? Do I need to escape something if variables contain, say, quotes? 2) Using cat & sed for replacing each variable with it's value: Given template.txt: The number is ${i} The word is ${word} Command: cat template.txt | sed -e "s/\${i}/1/" | sed -e "s/\${word}/dog/" Seems bad to me because of the need to escape many different symbols and with many variables the line will be tooooo long. Can you think of some other elegant and safe solution?

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  • DjangoUnicodeDecodeError while storing pickle'd data.

    - by Jack M.
    I've got a simple dict object I'm trying to store in the database after it has been run through pickle. It seems that Django doesn't like trying to encode this error. I've checked with MySQL, and the query isn't even getting there before it is throwing the error, so I don't believe that is the problem. The dict I'm storing looks like this: { 'ordered': [ { 'value': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', 'label': u'Full Name' }, { 'value': u'123-456-7890', 'label': u'Phone Number' }, { 'value': u'[email protected]', 'label': u'Email Address' } ], 'cleaned_data': { u'Phone Number': u'123-456-7890', u'Full Name': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', u'Email Address': u'[email protected]' }, 'post_data': <QueryDict: { u'Phone Number': [u'1234567890'], u'Full Name_1': [u'Last\xd1ame'], u'Full Name_0': [u'First\xd1ame'], u'Email Address': [u'[email protected]'] }>, 'user': <User: itis> } The error that gets thrown is: 'utf8' codec can't decode bytes in position 52-53: invalid data. Position 52-53 is the first instance of \xd1 (Ñ) in the pickled data. So far, I've dug around StackOverflow and found a few questions where the database encoding for the objects was wrong. This doesn't help me because there is no MySQL query yet. This is happening before the database. Google also didn't help much when searching for unicode errors on pickled data. It is probably worth mentioning that if I don't use the Ñ, this code works fine.

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  • Dynamically created iframe used to download file triggers onload with firebug but not without

    - by justkt
    EDIT: as this problem is now "solved" to the point of working, I am looking to have the information on why. For the fix, see my comment below. I have an web application which repeatedly downloads wav files dynamically (after a timeout or as instructed by the user) into an iframe in order to trigger the a default audio player to play them. The application targets only FF 2 or 3. In order to determine when the file is downloaded completely, I am hoping to use the window.onload handler for the iframe. Based on this stackoverflow.com answer I am creating a new iframe each time. As long as firebug is enabled on the browser using the application, everything works great. Without firebug, the onload never fires. The version of firebug is 1.3.1, while I've tested Firefox 2.0.0.19 and 3.0.7. Any ideas how I can get the onload from the iframe to reliably trigger when the wav file has downloaded? Or is there another way to signal the completion of the download? Here's the pertinent code: HTML (hidden's only attribute is display:none;): <div id="audioContainer" class="hidden"> </div> JavaScript (could also use jQuery, but innerHTML is faster than html() from what I've read): waitingForFile = true; // (declared at the beginning of closure) $("#loading").removeClass("hidden"); var content = "<iframe id='audioPlayer' name='audioPlayer' src='" + /path/to/file.wav + "' onload='notifyLoaded()'></iframe>"; document.getElementById("audioContainer").innerHTML = content; And the content of notifyLoaded: function notifyLoaded() { waitingForFile = false; // (declared at beginning of the closure) $("#loading").addClass("hidden"); } I have also tried creating the iframe via document.createElement, but I found the same behavior. The onload triggered each time with firebug enabled and never without it. EDIT: Fixed the information on how the iframe is being declared and added the callback function code. No, no console.log calls here.

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  • How do I duplicate Facebook picture tagging functionality?

    - by marcamillion
    I asked this question in another post - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2597773/how-do-i-put-a-div-box-around-my-cursor-on-click I got a wonderful answer. See the code below: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#image-wrapper").click(function(e){ var ele = $("<div>"); ele.css({width:"50px", height:"50px", border:"1px solid green", position:"absolute", left: e.pageX - 25, top: e.pageY -25}); $("body").append(ele); }); }); </script> <div id="image-wrapper" style="border: 1px solid red; width: 300px; height: 200px;"> </div> The issue I am having is that when I implement this snippet, on every click a box appears and stays there. So if I click on the image 10 times, I get 10 boxes. How do I get the previous box to disappear once I click somewhere else (i.e. have the box move to another place on the image (just like with Facebook Picture Tagging))? Thanks.

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