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  • Uncatchable AccesViolationException

    - by Roy
    Hi all, I'm getting close to desperate.. I am developing a field service application for Windows Mobile 6.1 using C# and quite some p/Invoking. (I think I'm referencing about 50 native functions) On normal circumstances this goes without any problem, but when i start stressing the GC i'm getting a nasty 0xC0000005 error witch seems uncatchable. In my test i'm rapidly closing and opening a dialog form (the form did make use of native functions, but for testing i commented these out) and after a while the Windows Mobile error reporter comes around to tell me that there was an fatal error in my application. My code uses a try-catch around the Application.Run(masterForm); and hooks into the CurrentDomain.UnhandledException event, but the application still crashes. Even when i attach the debugger, visual studio just tells me "The remote connection to the device has been lost" when the exception occurs.. Since I didn't succeed to catch the exception in the managed environment, I tried to make sense out of the Error Reporter log file. But this doesn't make any sense, the only consistent this about the error is the application where it occurs in. The thread where the application occurs in is unknown to me, the module where the error occurs differs from time to time (I've seen my application.exe, WS2.dll, netcfagl3_5.dll and mscoree3_5.dll), even the error code is not always the same. (most of the time it's 0xC0000005, but i've also seen an 0X80000002 error, which is a warning accounting the first byte?) I tried debugging through bugtrap, but strangely enough this crashes with the same error code (0xC0000005). I tried to open the kdmp file with visual studio, but i can't seem to make any sense out of this because it only shows me disassembler code when i step into the error (unless i have the right .pbb files, which i don't). Same goes for WinDbg. To make a long story short: I frankly don't have a single clue where to look for this error, and I'm hoping some bright soul on stackoverflow does. I'm happy to provide some code but at this moment I don't know which piece to provide.. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Correct escaping of delimited identifers in SQL Server without using QUOTENAME

    - by Ross Bradbury
    Is there anything else that the code must do to sanitize identifiers (table, view, column) other than to wrap them in double quotation marks and "double up" and double quotation marks present in the identifier name? References would be appreciated. I have inherited a code base that has a custom object-relational mapping (ORM) system. SQL cannot be written in the application but the ORM must still eventually generate the SQL to send to the SQL Server. All identifiers are quoted with double quotation marks. string QuoteName(string identifier) { return "\" + identifier.Replace("\"", "\"\"") + "\""; } If I were building this dynamic SQL in SQL, I would use the built-in SQL Server QUOTENAME function: declare @identifier nvarchar(128); set @identifier = N'Client"; DROP TABLE [dbo].Client; --'; declare @delimitedIdentifier nvarchar(258); set @delimitedIdentifier = QUOTENAME(@identifier, '"'); print @delimitedIdentifier; -- "Client""; DROP TABLE [dbo].Client; --" I have not found any definitive documentation about how to escape quoted identifiers in SQL Server. I have found Delimited Identifiers (Database Engine) and I also saw this stackoverflow question about sanitizing. If it were to have to call the QUOTENAME function just to quote the identifiers that is a lot of traffic to SQL Server that should not be needed. The ORM seems to be pretty well thought out with regards to SQL Injection. It is in C# and predates the nHibernate port and Entity Framework etc. All user input is sent using ADO.NET SqlParameter objects, it is just the identifier names that I am concerned about in this question. This needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and 2008.

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  • how to create Java Application and query about OWL using SPARQL/Jena and how to do it on local/remot

    - by user323889
    I want to create simple application using Java Jena and SPARQL ,that insert, delete , update and query the OWL/RDF data I worked on protege to create the ontology and noticed SPARQL in it but I want to use SPARQL using java and jena ... 1) I saw this thread and I knew how to use SPARQL with jena (after http)stackoverflow.com/questions/2267333/using-jena-to-create-a-sparql-query-on-dbpedia it did work with me .. but I want my own ontology to work .. I mean to upload it to server or to work on localhost or whatever ... 2) SPARQL doesn't support operations like update or insert .. but querying is there any other languages/methods that support these operations ? or I should created it manually in java in each application ... 3) how can I upload my ontology and I prefer something related to protege ? because I tried this which got bug : (after http )semweb.krasu.ru/protege2joseki/ and this (which gave me lot of issues) (after http and wwwdot)joseki.org/ nothing work .. 4) RDF-store ... is for just RDF ? because I am working on OWL files .. I mean for example using MySQL as RDF-store .. would it work for OWL concept ?

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  • drupal ajax create node

    - by Mark
    I need to create a drupal node via ajax. I'm looking for some instructions as in: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/960343/creating-a-drupal-node-with-javascript But with more detail, and including the js steps. The JS will probably look something like this: var title = 'Demo Node Title' $('button').click(function () { $.post('demo/js', {"title" : title}, function(data) { var json = eval("(" + data + ")"); if (json['status'] == "error") { alert(json['message']); } else if (json['status'] == "success") { alert(json['message']); // Need to return the nid of the new node here. Anyone know how to do this? } }); }); The PHP (copied from the other question, but I don't understand it much, how do I set the title of the node? also as the comments says, how do I set an input filter?): <?php /** * Implementation of hook_menu(). */ function demo_menu() { $items = array(); $items['demo/js'] = array( 'title' => 'Demo page', 'page callback' => 'demo_js_page', 'access callback' => TRUE, 'type' => MENU_CALLBACK, ); return $items; } /** * Page callback that saves a node. */ function demo_js_page() { if (isset($_REQUEST['title'])) { $node = new stdClass; $node->type = 'blog'; $node->title = check_plain($_REQUEST['title']); node_save($node); drupal_set_message(t('Created node %title', array('%title' => $_REQUEST['title']))); } return t('Thanks for visiting'); } Thanks in advance.

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  • How to compile Python scripts for use in FORTRAN?

    - by Vincent Poirier
    Hello, Although I found many answers and discussions about this question, I am unable to find a solution particular to my situation. Here it is: I have a main program written in FORTRAN. I have been given a set of python scripts that are very useful. My goal is to access these python scripts from my main FORTRAN program. Currently, I simply call the scripts from FORTRAN as such: CALL SYSTEM ('python pyexample.py') Data is read from .dat files and written to .dat files. This is how the python scripts and the main FORTRAN program communicate to each other. I am currently running my code on my local machine. I have python installed with numpy, scipy, etc. My problem: The code needs to run on a remote server. For strictly FORTRAN code, I compile the code locally and send the executable to the server where it waits in a queue. However, the server does not have python installed. The server is being used as a number crunching station between universities and industry. Installing python along with the necessary modules on the server is not an option. This means that my “CALL SYSTEM ('python pyexample.py')” strategy no longer works. Solution?: I found some information on a couple of things in thread http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138521/is-it-feasible-to-compile-python-to-machine-code Shedskin, Psyco, Cython, Pypy, Cpython API These “modules”(? Not sure if that's what to call them) seem to compile python script to C code or C++. Apparently not all python features can be translated to C. As well, some of these appear to be experimental. Is it possible to compile my python scripts with my FORTRAN code? There exists f2py which converts FORTRAN code to python, but it doesn't work the other way around. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you for your time. Vincent PS: I'm using python 2.6 on Ubuntu

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  • HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

    - by Paul Smith
    My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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  • imagegrabwindow + https = black screen

    - by earls
    I'm doing something stupid and trying to capture thumbnails, snapshots, images of a html webpages. I'm doing something along the lines of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/443837/how-might-i-obtain-a-snapshot-or-thumbnail-of-a-web-page-using-php DCOM + IE + PHP (imagegrabwindow; example from manual) Everything works PERFECT until I try to capture a HTTPS website... https://mail.google.com for example. imagegrabwindow produces a png, but it only shows the browser. the contents of the browser are black. If I log out of Google, I can capture the browser window and the contents thereof - the second I log in, the contents (not the browser frame) are black screen. Yes, I've increased the timeout (before closing the browser window). IE has clearly loaded the page, it just refuses to render for imagegrabwindow. I've been fighting this long enough I know it's either a permissions problem or a service needs to interact with the desktop. Does anyone have any clue what permissions need to be set or which service needs access? I assumed cryptographic services, but that's run as a network service and trying to change it to interact makes it shout and carry on. This is the last piece of the puzzle, I'd really like to get it working. Thank you!

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  • Non RBAC User Roles and Permissions System: checking the user's City

    - by micha12
    We are currently designing a User Roles and Permissions System in our web application (ASP.NET), and it seems that we have several cases that do no fit within the classical Role-Based Access Control (RBAC). I will post several questions, each devoted to a particular case, this being the first post. We have the following case: not to allow a user view a certain page if the user lives in a particular city. This is a simple case that is coded in the following way: if (User.City == “Moscow”) // Allow the user to view the page. else // Do not allow the user to view this page. Though this case is very simple and straightforward, it has nothing to do with the RBAC. On StackOverflow, someone called this an Attribute-based Access Control. Under the classical RBAC, it seems that this case should be designed like this: introduce a permission “City where the person lives”, this permission will have a property City. Then create a role, add a permission of type “City = Moscow” to it and the assign the role to the user. Looks extremely cumbersome. The question is whether it is acceptable to introduce such non-RBAC approaches to our permissions system – does that break the design or not? This might seem a primitive question, but we found that most applications use pure RBAC, and we started to think that we might be doing something wrong. Thank you.

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  • Making that move from junior > mid level

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

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  • Update existing Preference-item in a PreferenceActivity upon returning from a (sub)PreferenceScreen

    - by aioobe
    I have a PreferenceActivity with a bunch of (Sub)PreferenceScreens. Each such (Sub)PreferenceScreen represents an account and has the account-username as its title. PreferenceScreen root = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); for (MyAccountClass account : myAccounts) { final PreferenceScreen accScreen = mgr.createPreferenceScreen(this); accScreen.setTitle(account.getUsername()); // add Preferences to the accScreen // (for instance a "change username"-preference) ... root.add(accScreen); } As the user enters sub-PreferenceScreen, and edits the account user-name, I want the outer PreferenceScreen to update it's PreferenceScreen-title for the account in question. I've tried to add... usernamePref.setOnPreferenceChangeListener(new OnPreferenceChangeListener() { public boolean onPreferenceChange(Preference preference, Object newValue) { accScreen.setTitle(newValue.toString()); return true; } }); ...but the accScreen.setTitle does not seem to take effect on the outer PreferenceScreen. I've note that calling onContentChanged(); actually makes it work, but I realize that this is probably not the preferred way of doing it. I suspect I should call postInvalidate() on some view somewhere, but I really can't figure out on what view and when to do it. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2396153/preferencescreen-androidsummary-update may be experiening the same problem as me. Any help appreciated.

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  • Kohana 3 ORM: How to get data from pivot table? and all other tables for that matter

    - by zenna
    I am trying to use ORM to access data stored, in three mysql tables 'users', 'items', and a pivot table for the many-many relationship: 'user_item' I followed the guidance from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1946357/kohana-3-orm-read-additional-columns-in-pivot-tables and tried $user = ORM::factory('user',1); $user->items->find_all(); $user_item = ORM::factory('user_item', array('user_id' => $user, 'item_id' => $user->items)); if ($user_item->loaded()) { foreach ($user_item as $pivot) { print_r($pivot); } } But I get the SQL error: "Unknown column 'user_item.id' in 'order clause' [ SELECT user_item.* FROM user_item WHERE user_id = '1' AND item_id = '' ORDER BY user_item.id ASC LIMIT 1 ]" Which is clearly erroneous because Kohana is trying to order the elements by a column which doesn't exist: user_item.id. This id doesnt exist because the primary keys of this pivot table are the foreign keys of the two other tables, 'users' and 'items'. Trying to use: $user_item = ORM::factory('user_item', array('user_id' => $user, 'item_id' => $user->items)) ->order_by('item_id', 'ASC'); Makes no difference, as it seems the order_by() or any sql queries are ignored if the second argument of the factory is given. Another obvious error with that query is that the item_id = '', when it should contain all the elements. So my question is how can I get access to the data stored in the pivot table, and actually how can I get access to the all items held by a particular user as I even had problems with that? Thanks

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  • Creating nodes porgramatically in Drupal 6

    - by John
    Hey, I have been searching for how to create nodes in Drupal 6. I found some entries here on stackoverflow, but the questions seemed to either be for older versions or the solutions did not work for me. Ok, so here is my current process for trying to create $node = new stdClass(); $node->title = "test title"; $node->body = "test body"; $node->type= "story"; $node->created = time(); $node->changed = $node->created; $node->status = 1; $node->promote = 1; $node->sticky = 0; $node->format = 1; $node->uid = 1; node_save( $node ); When I execute this code, the node is created, but when I got the administration page, it throws the following errors: warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. user warning: Duplicate entry '36' for key 1 query: INSERT INTO node_comment_statistics (nid, last_comment_timestamp, last_comment_name, last_comment_uid, comment_count) VALUES (36, 1269980590, NULL, 1, 0) in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\sites\all\modules\nodecomment\nodecomment.module on line 409. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in C:\wamp\www\steelylib\includes\menu.inc on line 258. I've looked at different tutorials, and all seem to follow the same process. I'm not sure what I am doing wrong. I am using Drupal 6.15. When I roll back the database (to right before I made the changes) the errors are gone. Any help is appreciated!

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  • how to get cartesian products between database and local sequences in linq?

    - by JD
    I saw this similar question here but can't figure out how to use Contains in Cartesian product desired result situation: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1712105/linq-to-sql-exception-local-sequence-cannot-be-used-in-linq-to-sql-implementatio Let's say I have following: var a = new [] { 1, 4, 7 }; var b = new [] { 2, 5, 8 }; var test = from i in a from j in b select new { A = i, B = j, AB = string.Format("{0:00}a{1:00}b", i, j), }; foreach (var t in test) Console.Write("{0}, ", t.AB); This works great and I get a dump like so (note, I want the cartesian product): 01a02b, 01a05b, 01a08b, 04a02b, 04a05b, 04a08b, 07a02b, 07a05b, 07a08b, Now what I really want is to take this and cartesian product it again against an ID from a database table I have. But, as soon as I add in one more from clause that instead of referencing objects, references SQL table, I get an error. So, altering above to something like so where db is defined as a new DataContext (i.e., class deriving from System.Data.Linq.DataContext): var a = new [] { 1, 4, 7 }; var b = new [] { 2, 5, 8 }; var test = from symbol in db.Symbols from i in a from j in b select new { A = i, B = j, AB = string.Format("{0}{1:00}a{2:00}b", symbol.ID, i, j), }; foreach (var t in test) Console.Write("{0}, ", t.AB); The error I get is following: Local sequence cannot be used in LINQ to SQL implementations of query operators except the Contains operator Its related to not using Contains apparently but I'm unsure how Contains would be used when I don't really want to constrict the results - I want the Cartesian product for my situation. Any ideas of how to use Contains above and still yield the Cartesian product when joining database and local sequences?

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  • How to stop MVC caching the results of invoking and action method?

    - by Trey Carroll
    I am experiencing a problem with IE caching the results of an action method. Other articles I found were related to security and the [Authorize] attribute. This problem has nothing to do with security. This is a very simple "record a vote, grab the average, return the avg and the number of votes" method. The only slightly interesting thing about it is that it is invoked via Ajax and returns a Json object. I believe that it is the Json object that is getting catched. When I run it from FireFox and watch the XHR traffic with Firebug, everything works perfectly. However, under IE 8 the "throbber" graphic doesn't ever have time to show up and the page elements that display the "new" avg and count that are being injected into the page with jQuery are never different. I need a way to tell MVC to never cache this action method. This article seems to address the problem, but I cannot understand it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1441467/prevent-caching-of-attributes-in-asp-net-mvc-force-attribute-execution-every-tim I need a bit more context for the solution to understand how to extend AuthorizationAttribute. Please address your answer as if you were speaking to someone who lacks a deep understanding of MVC even if that means replying with an article on some basics/prerequisites that are required. Thanks, Trey Carroll

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  • UIView coordinate transforms on rotation during keyboard appearance

    - by SG
    iPad app; I'm trying to resize my view when the keyboard appears. It amounts to calling this code at appropriate times: CGRect adjustedFrame = self.frame; adjustedFrame.size.height -= keyboardFrame.size.height; [self setFrame:adjustedFrame]; Using this technique for a view contained in a uisplitview-based app works in all 4 orientations, but I've since discovered that a vanilla uiview-based app does not work. What happens is that apparently the uisplitview is smart enough to convert the coordinates of its subviews (their frame) such that the origin is in the "viewer's top left" regardless of the orientation. However, a uiview is not able to correctly report these coordinates. Though the origin is reported as (0,0) in all orientations, the view's effective origin is always as if the ipad were upright. What is weird about this is that the view correctly rotates and draws, but it always originates in the literal device top left. How can I get the view to correctly make its origin the "top left" to the viewer, not the device's fixed top left? What am I missing? Please, for something so trivial I've spent about 6 hours on this already with every brute force technique and research angle I could think of. This is the original source which doesn't work in this case: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1951826/move-up-uitoolbar

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  • Writing to a new window with javascript... get access denied

    - by Søren
    Hello gurus :) I have been struggling with this for a while now, and decided it was time to ask for help. I am trying to create a print function on an aspx page, and I am using javascript to do this: function PrintContentCell() { var display_setting = "toolbar=yes, location=no, directories=yes, menubar=yes,"; display_setting += "scrollbars=yes, width=750, height=600, left=100, top=25"; var content_innerhtml = document.getElementById("testTable").innerHTML; var document_print = window.open("Loading.htm", "", display_setting); document_print.document.open(); document_print.document.write('<html><head><title>Print</title></head>'); document_print.document.write('<body style="font-family:verdana; font-size:12px;" onLoad="self.print();self.close();" >'); document_print.document.write(content_innerhtml); document_print.document.write('</body></html>'); document_print.print(); document_print.document.close(); return false; } I get "Access Denied" when the script tries to write to the new window. The Loading.htm file is just a very slim html document writing out the text "Loading...". I had hoped this would work after reading this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/735136/ie-6-7-access-denied-trying-to-access-a-popup-window-document Anybody can help?

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  • Asynchronous background processes in Python?

    - by Geuis
    I have been using this as a reference, but not able to accomplish exactly what I need: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/89228/how-to-call-external-command-in-python/92395#92395 I also was reading this: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-3145/ For our project, we have 5 svn checkouts that need to update before we can deploy our application. In my dev environment, where speedy deployments are a bit more important for productivity than a production deployment, I have been working on speeding up the process. I have a bash script that has been working decently but has some limitations. I fire up multiple 'svn updates' with the following bash command: (svn update /repo1) & (svn update /repo2) & (svn update /repo3) & These all run in parallel and it works pretty well. I also use this pattern in the rest of the build script for firing off each ant build, then moving the wars to Tomcat. However, I have no control over stopping deployment if one of the updates or a build fails. I'm re-writing my bash script with Python so I have more control over branches and the deployment process. I am using subprocess.call() to fire off the 'svn update /repo' commands, but each one is acting sequentially. I try '(svn update /repo) &' and those all fire off, but the result code returns immediately. So I have no way to determine if a particular command fails or not in the asynchronous mode. import subprocess subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo1', shell=True ) subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo2', shell=True ) subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo3', shell=True ) I'd love to find a way to have Python fire off each Unix command, and if any of the calls fails at any time the entire script stops.

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  • JQuery Cycle fails on Page Refresh

    - by Darknight
    In a similar issue as this one: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1719475/jquery-cycle-firefox-squishing-images I've managed to overcome the initial problem using Jeffs answer in the above link. However now I have noticed a new bug, upon page refresh it simply does not work. I have tried a hard refresh (ctrl+F5) but this does not work. However when you come page to the page it loads fine. here is my modified version (taken from Jeff's): <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var imagesRemaining = $('#slideshow img').length; $('#slideshow img').bind('load', function(e) { imagesRemaining = imagesRemaining - 1; if (imagesRemaining == 0) { $('#slideshow').show(); $('#slideshow').cycle({ fx: 'shuffle', speed: 1200 }); } }); }); </script> Any ideas? I've also tried JQuery Live but could not implement it correctly. I've also tried Meta tags to force images to load. But it only works first time round.

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  • Dynamically created iframe used to download file triggers onload with firebug but not without

    - by justkt
    EDIT: as this problem is now "solved" to the point of working, I am looking to have the information on why. For the fix, see my comment below. I have an web application which repeatedly downloads wav files dynamically (after a timeout or as instructed by the user) into an iframe in order to trigger the a default audio player to play them. The application targets only FF 2 or 3. In order to determine when the file is downloaded completely, I am hoping to use the window.onload handler for the iframe. Based on this stackoverflow.com answer I am creating a new iframe each time. As long as firebug is enabled on the browser using the application, everything works great. Without firebug, the onload never fires. The version of firebug is 1.3.1, while I've tested Firefox 2.0.0.19 and 3.0.7. Any ideas how I can get the onload from the iframe to reliably trigger when the wav file has downloaded? Or is there another way to signal the completion of the download? Here's the pertinent code: HTML (hidden's only attribute is display:none;): <div id="audioContainer" class="hidden"> </div> JavaScript (could also use jQuery, but innerHTML is faster than html() from what I've read): waitingForFile = true; // (declared at the beginning of closure) $("#loading").removeClass("hidden"); var content = "<iframe id='audioPlayer' name='audioPlayer' src='" + /path/to/file.wav + "' onload='notifyLoaded()'></iframe>"; document.getElementById("audioContainer").innerHTML = content; And the content of notifyLoaded: function notifyLoaded() { waitingForFile = false; // (declared at beginning of the closure) $("#loading").addClass("hidden"); } I have also tried creating the iframe via document.createElement, but I found the same behavior. The onload triggered each time with firebug enabled and never without it. EDIT: Fixed the information on how the iframe is being declared and added the callback function code. No, no console.log calls here.

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  • Help with editing data in entity framework.

    - by Levelbit
    Title of this question is simple because there is no an easy explanation for what I'm trying to ask you. I hope you'll understand in the end :). I have to tables in my database: Company and Location (relationship:one to many) and corresponding entity sets. In my wpf application I have some datagrid which I want to fill with locations and to be able to edit every row in separate window as some form of details view (so I don't want to edit my data in datagrid). I did this by accessing Location entity from selected row and creating a new Location entity and then I copy properties from original entity to newly created. Something like cloning the object. After editing if I press OK changed data is copied to original object back, and if I press Cancel nothing happens. Of course, you probably thinking I could use NoTracking option and AttachAsModified method as was mentioned as solution in some earlier questions(see:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/803022/changing-entities-in-the-entityframework) by Alex James, but lets say I had some problems about that and I have my own reasons for doing this. Finally, because navigation property(Company) of my location entity is assigned to newly created location object(during cloning) from some reason in object context additional object as copy of object I want to edit from datagrid is created without my will(similar problem :http://blogs.msdn.com/alexj/archive/2009/12/02/tip-47-how-fix-up-can-make-it-hard-to-change-relationships.aspx). So, when I do ObjectContext.SaveChanges it inserts additional row of data into my database table Location, the same as the one i wanted to edit. I read about sth like this, but I don't quite understand why is that and how to block or override this. I hope I was clear as I could. Please, solutions or some other ideas.

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  • Assigning a property across threads

    - by Mike
    I have set a property across threads before and I found this post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/142003/cross-thread-operation-not-valid-control-accessed-from-a-thread-other-than-the-t about getting a property. I think my issue with the code below is setting the variable to the collection is an object therefore on the heap and therefore is just creating a pointer to the same object So my question is besides creating a deep copy, or copying the collection into a different List object is there a better way to do the following to aviod the error during the for loop. Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'lstProcessFiles' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. Code: private void btnRunProcess_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { richTextBox1.Clear(); BackgroundWorker bg = new BackgroundWorker(); bg.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(bg_DoWork); bg.RunWorkerCompleted += new RunWorkerCompletedEventHandler(bg_RunWorkerCompleted); bg.RunWorkerAsync(lstProcessFiles.SelectedItems); } void bg_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { WorkflowEngine engine = new WorkflowEngine(); ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection selectedCollection=null; if (lstProcessFiles.InvokeRequired) { // Try #1 selectedCollection = (ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection) this.Invoke(new GetSelectedItemsDelegate(GetSelectedItems), new object[] { lstProcessFiles }); // Try #2 //lstProcessFiles.Invoke( // new MethodInvoker(delegate { // selectedCollection = lstProcessFiles.SelectedItems; })); } else { selectedCollection = lstProcessFiles.SelectedItems; } // *********Same Error on this line******************** // Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'lstProcessFiles' accessed // from a thread other than the thread it was created on. foreach (string l in selectedCollection) { if (engine.LoadProcessDocument(String.Format(@"C:\TestDirectory\{0}", l))) { try { engine.Run(); WriteStep(String.Format("Ran {0} Succussfully", l)); } catch { WriteStep(String.Format("{0} Failed", l)); } engine.PrintProcess(); WriteStep(String.Format("Rrinted {0} to debug", l)); } } } private delegate void WriteDelegate(string p); private delegate ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection GetSelectedItemsDelegate(ListBox list); private ListBox.SelectedObjectCollection GetSelectedItems(ListBox list) { return list.SelectedItems; }

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  • DjangoUnicodeDecodeError while storing pickle'd data.

    - by Jack M.
    I've got a simple dict object I'm trying to store in the database after it has been run through pickle. It seems that Django doesn't like trying to encode this error. I've checked with MySQL, and the query isn't even getting there before it is throwing the error, so I don't believe that is the problem. The dict I'm storing looks like this: { 'ordered': [ { 'value': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', 'label': u'Full Name' }, { 'value': u'123-456-7890', 'label': u'Phone Number' }, { 'value': u'[email protected]', 'label': u'Email Address' } ], 'cleaned_data': { u'Phone Number': u'123-456-7890', u'Full Name': u'First\xd1ame Last\xd1ame', u'Email Address': u'[email protected]' }, 'post_data': <QueryDict: { u'Phone Number': [u'1234567890'], u'Full Name_1': [u'Last\xd1ame'], u'Full Name_0': [u'First\xd1ame'], u'Email Address': [u'[email protected]'] }>, 'user': <User: itis> } The error that gets thrown is: 'utf8' codec can't decode bytes in position 52-53: invalid data. Position 52-53 is the first instance of \xd1 (Ñ) in the pickled data. So far, I've dug around StackOverflow and found a few questions where the database encoding for the objects was wrong. This doesn't help me because there is no MySQL query yet. This is happening before the database. Google also didn't help much when searching for unicode errors on pickled data. It is probably worth mentioning that if I don't use the Ñ, this code works fine.

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  • Bash Templating: How to build configuration files from templates with Bash?

    - by FractalizeR
    Hello. I'm writting a script to automate creating configuration files for Apache and PHP for my own webserver. I don't want to use any GUIs like CPanel or ISPConfig. I have some templates of Apache and PHP configuration files. Bash script needs to read templates, make variable substitution and output parsed templates into some folder. What is the best way to do that? I can think of several ways. Which one is the best or may be there are some better ways to do that? I want to do that in pure Bash (it's easy in PHP for example) 1)http://stackoverflow.com/questions/415677/how-to-repace-variables-in-a-nix-text-file template.txt: the number is ${i} the word is ${word} script.sh: #!/bin/sh #set variables i=1 word="dog" #read in template one line at the time, and replace variables #(more natural (and efficient) way, thanks to Jonathan Leffler) while read line do eval echo "$line" done < "./template.txt" BTW, how do I redirect output to external file here? Do I need to escape something if variables contain, say, quotes? 2) Using cat & sed for replacing each variable with it's value: Given template.txt: The number is ${i} The word is ${word} Command: cat template.txt | sed -e "s/\${i}/1/" | sed -e "s/\${word}/dog/" Seems bad to me because of the need to escape many different symbols and with many variables the line will be tooooo long. Can you think of some other elegant and safe solution?

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  • JQuery-UI Drag, Drop and Re-Drag Clones on Re-Drag

    - by amarcy
    I am using the following code to extend the JQuery-UI demos included with the download. I am trying to set up a container that the user can drag items into and then move the items around within the container. I incorporated the answer from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/867469/jquery-draggable-clone which works with one problem. <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#droppable").droppable({ accept: '.ui-widget-content', drop: function(event, ui) { if($(ui).parent(":not(:has(#id1))")){ $(this).append($(ui.helper).clone().attr("id", "id1")); } $("#id1").draggable({ containment: 'parent', }); } }); $(".ui-widget-content").draggable({helper: 'clone'}); }); </script> div class="demo"> <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <p>Drag me around</p> </div> <div id="droppable" class="ui-widget-header"> <p>Drop here</p> </div> When an item is dropped onto the droppable container it can be dragged one time and when it is dropped after that drag it loses its dragging capability. How do I allow for the item to be dragged multiple times after it has been added to the droppable container?

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  • Creating cookieless application on development machine with asp.net

    - by zaladane
    I tried posting this on ServerFault with no luck so i am trying here. I am thinking about setting up a new domain to host static content on my website and have it cookieless just like Stackoverflow with their static domain. So before going ahead and buying the domain and setting it up I wanted to test it on my developement machine first under localhost (I have to mention that i am planning on having IIS running on my new domain for the static files). I therefore created a new application under IIS and disabled session state and forms authentication. When my main application needs resources like css, images and js , I use the path to the "static" application where they are hosted. The problem is that when I look at the request and the response for the requested files, they still have the session_id cookie defined as well as the asp.net authentication cookie. Is it at all possible to accomplish what i am trying to do on a development machine or do i have to just go ahead and purchase the new domain which hopefully with make things right? I tried to read about cookieless domain but can't figure out what i might be missing.

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