Search Results

Search found 40791 results on 1632 pages for 'call display'.

Page 540/1632 | < Previous Page | 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547  | Next Page >

  • Rails routing of a controller's functions query

    - by Jty.tan
    So I've got a Users controller, and it has (amongst others) a function called details. The idea is that a user can go to localhost:3000/user/:user_id/details and be able to view the details of :user_id. For example, I have a user called "tester". When I go to the uri: http://localhost:3000/users/tester/details I'd want the details function to be called up, to render the details view, and to display the information for the user tester. But instead I get an error saying that No action responded to tester. Actions: change_password, create, current_user, details, forgot_password, index, login_required, new, redirect_to_stored, show, and update_attributes And I understand that to basically mean that if I wanted to access details, I should really be using http://localhost:3000/users/details Except that that isn't really working either... .< That is instead bringing me to http://localhost:3000/users/details/registries (which is the default path that I'd stipulated for anybody trying to view users/:user_id, so again, that's working the way I wanted it to) Point is: Can anybody help and tell me how I can go about getting users/:user_id/details to work the way I want it to and display the details of :user_id? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Select boxes page load

    - by Chris
    Hello, I have a dynamic chained select box that I am attempting to show the value of on a page load. In my chained select box, it will default to the first option within the select box on page load, could anyone provide assitance? I stumbled upon this thread, but I can't seem to translate what they are doing with that answer to my language of CF. Dynamic chained drop downs on page refresh Here is the JS script I am using. function dynamicSelect(id1, id2) { // Feature test to see if there is enough W3C DOM support if (document.getElementById && document.getElementsByTagName) { // Obtain references to both select boxes var sel1 = document.getElementById(id1); var sel2 = document.getElementById(id2); // Clone the dynamic select box var clone = sel2.cloneNode(true); // Obtain references to all cloned options var clonedOptions = clone.getElementsByTagName("option"); // Onload init: call a generic function to display the related options in the dynamic select box refreshDynamicSelectOptions(sel1, sel2, clonedOptions); // Onchange of the main select box: call a generic function to display the related options in the dynamic select box sel1.onchange = function() { refreshDynamicSelectOptions(sel1, sel2, clonedOptions); } } } function refreshDynamicSelectOptions(sel1, sel2, clonedOptions) { // Delete all options of the dynamic select box while (sel2.options.length) { sel2.remove(0); } // Create regular expression objects for "select" and the value of the selected option of the main select box as class names var pattern1 = /( |^)(select)( |$)/; var pattern2 = new RegExp("( |^)(" + sel1.options[sel1.selectedIndex].value + ")( |$)"); // Iterate through all cloned options for (var i = 0; i < clonedOptions.length; i++) { // If the classname of a cloned option either equals "select" or equals the value of the selected option of the main select box if (clonedOptions[i].className.match(pattern1) || clonedOptions[i].className.match(pattern2)) { // Clone the option from the hidden option pool and append it to the dynamic select box sel2.appendChild(clonedOptions[i].cloneNode(true)); } } } Thanks so much for any assistance

    Read the article

  • Pass object from JSON into MVC Controller - its always null ?

    - by SteveCl
    Hi I have seen a few questions on here related to the a similar issue, I have read them, followed them, but still i have the same problem. I am basically creating an object in javascript and trying to call a method on the controller that will return a string of html. Not JSON. I've been playing around with dataType and contentType but still no joy. So apologies if the code snippets are a bit messy. Build the object in JS. function GetCardModel() { var card = {}; card.CardTitle = $("#CardTitle").val(); card.TopicTitle = $("#TopicTitle").val(); card.TopicBody = $("#TopicBody").data("tEditor").value(); card.CardClose = $("#CardClose").val(); card.CardFromName = $("#CardFromName").val(); return card; } Take a look at the object - all looks good and as it should in JSON. var model = GetCardModel(); alert(JSON.stringify(GetCardModel())); Make the call... $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Postcard/Create/Preview/", dataType: "json", //contentType: "application/json", date: GetCardModel(), processData: true, success: function (data) { alert("im back"); alert(data); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, error) { alert(xhr.status); alert("Error: " + xhr.responseText); //alert(error); } }); Always when I step into the controller, the object is ALWAYS there, but with null values for all the properties.

    Read the article

  • How to join multiple tables using LINQ-to-SQL?

    - by user603245
    Hi! I'm quite new to linq, so please bear with me. I'm working on a asp.net webpage and I want to add a "search function" (textbox where user inputs name or surname or both or just parts of it and gets back all related information). I have two tables ("Person" and "Application") and I want to display some columns from Person (name and surname) and some from Application (score, position,...). I know how I could do it using sql, but I want to learn more about linq and thus I want to do it using linq. For now I got two main ideas: 1.) var person = dataContext.GetTable<Person>(); var application = dataContext.GetTable<Application>(); var p1 = from p in Person where(p.Name.Contains(tokens[0]) || p.Surname.Contains(tokens[1])) select new {Id = p.Id, Name = p.Name, Surname = p.Surname}; //or maybe without this line //I don't know how to do the following properly var result = from a in Application where a.FK_Application.Equals(index) //just to get the "right" type of application //this is not right, but I don't know how to do it better join p1 on p1.Id == a.FK_Person 2.) The other idea is just to go through "Application" and instead of "join p1 ..." to use var result = from a in Application where a.FK_Application.Equals(index) //just to get the "right" type of application join p from Person on p.Id == a.FK_Person where p.Name.Contains(tokens[0]) || p.Surname.Contains(tokens[1]) I think that first idea is better for queries without the first "where" condition, which I also intended to use. Regardless of what is better (faster), I still don't know how to do it using linq. Also in the end I wanted to display / select just some parts (columns) of the result (joined tables + filtering conditions). I really want to know how to do such things using linq as I'll be dealing also with some similar problems with local data, where I can use only linq. Could somebody please explain me how to do it, I spent days trying to figure it out and searching on the internet for answers. Thank you for your time.

    Read the article

  • cannot enter text in query popup input field

    - by raja
    i am unable to enter text in jquery popup text field...... i am using following plugins my html code </head> <body onmousedown="return false;"> <div id="container"></div> <div id="divMenu"></div> </body> </html> i am appending popup tags as function setupCalibration(){ $('#container').append(' <div data-role="popup" id="calibratePopup" data-transition="flip" data-theme="e" data-overlay-theme="a" class="ui-content" style=" width:300px;height: 200px; z-index:1; display:none;"><label for="name">Text Input:</label><input type="text" name="name" id="name" value="" /></div>'); } and this is how i am invoking popup on click of divmenu button document.getElementById('divMenu').addEventListener('click', function() { $( '#calibratePopup' ).popup({display:block}); $( '#calibratePopup' ).show(); $( '#calibratePopup' ).popup( "open"); }, false); i am able to show popup,but input field is not responding

    Read the article

  • Javascript Instance Variable Syntax (AJAX page refresh)

    - by Rosarch
    I'm having difficulty with Javascript instance variables. I'm trying to make an easy way to refresh the chat page, looking for new messages. The AJAX call supplies a mid, or the lowest message id to be returned. This allows the call to only ask for the most recent messages, instead of all of them. MessageRefresher.prototype._latest_mid; function MessageRefresher(latest_mid) { this._latest_mid = latest_mid; // it thinks `this` refers to the MessageRefresher object } MessageRefresher.prototype.refresh = function () { refreshMessages(this._latest_mid); // it thinks `this` refers to the window this._latest_mid++; } function refreshMessages(latest_mid) { $.getJSON('API/read_messages', { room_id: $.getUrlVar('key'), mid: latest_mid }, function (messages) { for (var i = 0; i < messages[0].length; i++) { var newChild = sprintf("<li>%s: %s</li>", messages[1][i], messages[0][i]); $("#messages").append(newChild); } }); var messageRefresher = new MessageRefresher(0); setInterval(messageRefresher.refresh, 1000); This results in all the messages being printed out, over and over again. I know it has other bugs, but the main issue I'm trying to work out right now is the use of the instance variable. Or is there another way I should be going about doing this?

    Read the article

  • How to protect and hidden form HTML/PHP with JS callback to AS3

    - by Jk_
    Hi guys, I'm developing a Flash website (as3) where I need to be able to upload directly to YouTube by using the DATA API. However in order to do so, I had to use a proper HTML form on top of my flash object. Why? Because of the Browser Based Upload restictions. I first hide the form using JQuery and with a little CSS the form is display just where I want it. Within flash I use ExternalInterface.call() to show/hide the form when I need it! ExternalInterface.call("YTUploader.showIt"); The upload process is working great my only problem is that the form can be displayed easily... You just need a tool like firebug and you can use the form wherever you want on my flash app. So I was wandering which will be the best way to 'protect' this form or the best way to limit its access. Any advices will be appreciated. Thanks for your time. Jk.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate NamingStrategy implementation that maintains state between calls

    - by Robert Petermeier
    Hi, I'm working on a project where we use Hibernate and JBoss 5.1. We need our entity classes to be mapped to Oracle tables that follow a certain naming convention. I'd like to avoid having to specify each table and column name in annotations. Therefore, I'm currently considering implementing a custom implementation of org.hibernate.cfg.NamingStrategy. The SQL naming conventions require the name of columns to have a suffix that is equivalent to a prefix of the table name. If there is a table "T100_RESOURCE", the ID column would have to be named "RES_ID_T100". In order to implement this in a NamingStrategy, the implementation would have to maintain state, i.e. the current class name it is creating the mappings for. It would rely on Hibernate to always call classToTableName() before propertyToColumnName() and to determine all column names by calling propertyToColumnName() before the next call to classToTableName() Is it safe to do that or are there situations where Hibernate will mix things up? I am not thinking of problems through multiple threads here (which can be solved by keeping the last class name in a ThreadLocal) but also of Hibernate deliberately calling this out of order in certain circumstances. For example Hibernate asking for mappings of three properties of class A, then one of class B, then again more attributes of class A.

    Read the article

  • Java program using a class from a JAR file

    - by Myn
    Hi guys, I'll try to phrase this as best I can. I have a program which has an API-like functionality - it uses reflection to dynamically call methods from within a class. In this instance: Server.java public static void main(String[] args) { Class<?> clazz = Class.forName("DiHandler"); StHandler out = (StHandler) clazz; out.read(); DiHandler.java // implements StHandler import edu.ds.*; public void read() { Ds aType = new Ds(); aType = "134"; } So DiHandler has a method read() which can contain anything, it doesn't matter to Server.java after compile time. My problem is: DiHandler.java uses the class Ds from a JAR file. When I'm working on DiHandler.java in Eclipse (in a separate project from the project Server.java is in) I can add this JAR without a problem. But when I move DiHandler.class, after it's compiled, to be used by Server.class, how can it still use the JAR file? I hope this makes some sense, I suppose another way to phrase it would be how can I allow DiHandler to call on a class from the JAR without editing the classpath? Thanks very much in advance and sorry for any confusion or poor phrasing, I can only offer thanks and the customary offer of a pint for any assistance. M

    Read the article

  • Absolute Centering Not Working in IE

    - by Vikas Ghodke
    I have a div which is centered in parent div, it working on all browser but not in ie, can you help me out with this. JSFIDDLE span.qbg3 { display: block; text-align: center; background: url(http://powerblanket.com/may2014/wp-content/uploads/2014/05/qbg3.png) no-repeat center center; background-size:cover; padding: 50px 20px; color: #fff; font-weight: 400; font-size: 30px; position: relative; margin-top: -20px; min-height: 350px; } span.inqbg3 { max-height: 100px; display: block; text-align: center; color: #fff; font-weight: 400; font-size: 40px; position: absolute; margin: auto; top: 0px; right: 0; left: 0; bottom: 0px; background: rgba(0, 0, 0, 0.5); max-width: 700px; padding: 35px 0; } span.inqbg3 a { color: #fff; }

    Read the article

  • How do I add an extra separator to the top of a UITableView?

    - by richt
    Hi, I have a view for the iPhone that is basically split in two, with an informational display in the top half, and a UITableView for selecting actions in the bottom half. The problem is that there is no border or separator above the first cell in the UITableView, so the first item in the list looks funny. How can I add an extra separator at the top of the table, to separate it from the display area above it? Here's the code to build the cells - it's pretty straightforward. The overall layout is handled in a xib. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } switch(indexPath.row) { case 0: { cell.textLabel.text = @"Action 1"; break; } case 1: { cell.textLabel.text = @"Action 2"; break; } // etc....... } return cell; }

    Read the article

  • Run Reporting Service in local mode and generate columns automatically?

    - by grady
    Hi, I have a SQL query right now which I want to use with the MS reporting services in my ASP.NET application. So I created a report in local mode (rdlc) and attached this to a report viewer. Since my query uses parameters, I created a stored procedure, which had exactly those parameters. In addition to that I had some textboxes which are used for entering the params for the query and a button to call the stored proc and to fill the datatset which is bound to the report viewer. This works, I press the button and according to what I entred the correct data is shown. Now my question: In the future I plan to have multiple reports (which will be selected in a dropdown) and I wonder if I can somehow just call the correct stored procedure and according to the columns which are *SELECT*ed in the procedure, the columns are shown in the report. Example: I select report1 from the dropdown (procedure for report 1 is called), 5 columns are shown in the reportviewer. I select report2 from dropdown (procedure for report 2 is called), 8 columns are shown. Is that possible somehow? Thanks :-)

    Read the article

  • Why does Perl's strict not let me pass a parameter hash?

    - by Thariama
    I hava a perl subroutine where i would like to pass parameters as a hash (the aim is to include a css depending on the parameter 'iconsize'). I am using the call: get_function_bar_begin('iconsize' => '32'); for the subroutine get_function_bar_begin: use strict; ... sub get_function_bar_begin { my $self = shift; my %template_params = %{ shift || {} }; return $self->render_template('global/bars /tmpl_incl_function_bar_begin.html',%template_params); } Why does this yield the error message: Error executing run mode 'start': undef error - Can't use string ("iconsize") as a HASH ref while "strict refs" in use at CheckBar.pm at line 334 Am i doing something wrong here? Is there an other way to submit my data ('iconsize') as a hash? (i am still new to Perl) EDIT: Solution which worked for me. I didn't change the call, but my function: sub get_function_bar_begin { my $self = shift; my $paramref = shift; my %params = (ref($paramref) eq 'HASH') ? %$paramref : (); my $iconsize = $params{'iconsize'} || ''; return $self->render_template('global/bars/tmpl_incl_function_bar_begin.html', { 'iconsize' => $iconsize, } ); }

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2008 linker wants all symbols to be resolved, not only used ones

    - by user343011
    We recently upgraded to Visual Studio 2008 from 2005, and I think those error started after that. In our solution, we have a multitude of projects. Many of those are utility projects, or projects containing core functionality used by other projects. The output of those is lib files that are linked to when building the projects generating the final binaries using the "Project dependencies..." option. One of the other projects---Let us call it ResultLib---generates a DLL, and it needs one single function from the core project. This function uses only static function from its own source file, but the project in its entirety uses a lot of low-level Windows functions and also imports a DLL---Let us call it Driver.dll. Our problem is that when building ExtLib, the linker complains about a multitude of unresolved externals, for example all functions exported from Driver.dll, since its lib file is not specified when linking. If we try to fix this by adding all lib files used by other projects that use all of the core project, our resulting ResultLib DLL ends up importing Driver.dll and also exporting all functions defined in it. How do we tell Visual Studio to only try to resolve symbols that are actually used?

    Read the article

  • PHP / Zend custom date input formats

    - by mld
    Hi, I'm creating a library component for other developers on my team using PHP and Zend. This component needs to be able to take as input a date (string) and another string telling it the format of that date. Looking through the Zend documentation and examples, I thought I found the solution - $dateObject = Zend_Date('13.04.2006', array('date_format' => 'dd.MM.yyyy')); this line, however, throws an error - call to undefined function. So instead I tried this - $dt = Zend_Locale_Format::getDate('13.04.2006', array('date_format' => 'dd.MM.yyyy')); This gets the job done, but throws an error if a date that is entered isn't valid. The docs make it look like you can use the isDate() function to check validity - Zend_Date::isDate('13.04.2006', array('date_format' => 'dd.MM.yyyy')) but this line always returns false. So my questions - Am I going about this the right way? If not, is there a better way to handle this via Zend or straight PHP? If I do use Zend_Locale_Format::getDate(), do I need to worry about a locale being set elsewhere and changing the results of the call? I'm locked into PHP 5.2.6 on windows, btw... so 5.3+ functions & strptime() are out.

    Read the article

  • How can I keep the the logic to translate a ViewModel's values to a Where clause to apply to a linq query out of My Controller?

    - by Mr. Manager
    This same problem keeps cropping up. I have a viewModel that doesn't have any persistent backing. It is just a ViewModel to generate a search input form. I want to build a large where clause from the values the user entered. If the Action Accepts as a parameter SearchViewModel How do I do this without passing my viewModel to my service layer? Service shouldn't know about ViewModels right? Oh and if I serialize it, then it would be a big string and the key/values would be strongly typed. SearchViewModel this is just a snippet. [Display(Name="Address")] public string AddressKeywords { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the census. /// </summary> public string Census { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the lot block sub. /// </summary> public string LotBlockSub { get; set; } /// <summary> /// Gets or sets the owner keywords. /// </summary> [Display(Name="Owner")] public string OwnerKeywords { get; set; } In my controller action I was thinking of something like this. but I would think all this logic doesn't belong in my Controller. ActionResult GetSearchResults(SearchViewModel model){ var query = service.GetAllParcels(); if(model.Census != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Census == model.Census); } if (model.OwnerKeywords != null){ query = query.Where(x=>x.Owners == model.OwnerKeywords); } return View(query.ToList()); }

    Read the article

  • iPhone SDK Programming - Working with a variable across 2 views

    - by SD
    I have what I hope is a fairly simple question about using the value from a variable across 2 views. I’m new to the iPhone SDK platform and the Model/View/Controller methodology. I’ve got background in VB.Net, some Php, but mostly SQL, so this is new ground for me. I’m building an app that has 3 views. For simplicity’s sake, I’ll call them View1, View2, View3. On View1 I have an NSString variable that I’ve declared in View1.h, and synthesized in View1.m. I’ll call it String1. View1.m uses a UITextField to ask the user for their name and then sets the value of String1 to that name (i.e. "Bill"). I would now like to use the value of String1 in View2. I'm not doing anything other than displaying the value ("Bill"), in a UILabel object in View2. Can someone tell me what the easiest way to accomplish that is? Many thanks in advance….

    Read the article

  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning with GCC?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • How to alter Postgres table data based on its contents?

    - by williamjones
    This is probably a super simple question, but I'm struggling to come up with the right keywords to find it on Google. I have a Postgres table that has among its contents a column of type text named content_type. That stores what type of entry is stored in that row. There are only about 5 different types, and I decided I want to change one of them to display as something else in my application (I had been directly displaying these). It struck me that it's funny that my view is being dictated by my database model, and I decided I would convert the types being stored in my database as strings into integers, and enumerate the possible types in my application with constants that convert them into their display names. That way, if I ever got the urge to change any category names again, I could just change it with one alteration of a constant. I also have the hunch that storing integers might be somewhat more efficient than storing text in the database. First, a quick threshold question of, is this a good idea? Any feedback or anything I missed? Second, and my main question, what's the Postgres command I could enter to make an alteration like this? I'm thinking I could start by renaming the old content_type column to old_content_type and then creating a new integer column content_type. However, what command would look at a row's old_content_type and fill in the new content_type column based off of that?

    Read the article

  • form submit button moves cutting image

    - by flavour404
    Hi I have a submit button and am styling it using the following css: .subm { background-color:Transparent; background-image:url(Images/Button_Send.png); background-repeat:no-repeat; width:82px; height:30px; display:block; border:none; outline:none; overflow:visible;} .subm:hover { background-color:Transparent; background-image:url(Images/Button_Send_Over.png); background-repeat:no-repeat; width:82px; height:30px; display:block; border:none; outline:none; overflow:visible; } Here is the html: <input type="submit" class="subm" value="" /> Nothing surprising. However, what annoys me is that when the submit button is clicked in IE it moves the image up a couple of pixels cutting them off which makes it look, hmm, good word, 'naff.' How can I compensate or stop this? I have tried expanding the image and leaving a couple of blank pixels at the top but it still does the same thing! Thanks R.

    Read the article

  • CodeIgniter: Where should a particular functionality go ?

    - by Samnan
    I have an application in codeigniter and a page needs to perform the following tasks 1 - controller decides which model to use based of the url and parameters 2 - controller loads the model and get the data from it 3 - controller formats the data in a particular format, depending on the items in it 4 - controller loads a common view, which will display the data (formatted data contains simple display fields) now there is a search page, which needs to do a text query against all of the possible text fields in database in all tables. It needs to show each type of data in its own formatted output on a single page as a list. The problem: The search controller can do the search, dynamically load model for each record type, and get the data from model. Problem comes when the data needs to be formatted. It looks that ideally the search controller should load another controller which will provide formatted data ... There is where it gets out of control ... My question is: What am I doing wrong? Is there any better way to do this? How would you do the same to solve the problem?

    Read the article

  • mysql_affected_rows() returns 0 for UPDATE statement even when an update actually happens

    - by Alex Moore
    I am trying to get the number of rows affected in a simple mysql update query. However, when I run this code below, PHP's mysql_affected_rows() always equals 0. No matter if foo=1 already (in which case the function should correctly return 0, since no rows were changed), or if foo currently equals some other integer (in which case the function should return 1). $updateQuery = "UPDATE myTable SET foo=1 WHERE bar=2"; mysql_query($updateQuery); if (mysql_affected_rows() > 0) { echo "affected!"; } else { echo "not affected"; // always prints not affected } The UPDATE statement itself works. The INT gets changed in my database. I have also double-checked that the database connection isn't being closed beforehand or anything funky. Keep in mind, mysql_affected_rows doesn't necessarily require you to pass a connection link identifier, though I've tried that too. Details on the function: mysql_affected_rows Any ideas? SOLUTION The part I didn't mention turned out to be the cause of my woes here. This PHP file was being called ten times consecutively in an AJAX call, though I was only looking at the value returned on the last call, ie. a big fat 0. My apologies!

    Read the article

  • My website keeps crashing IE, can't debug

    - by Ninja rhino
    I have a website that suddenly started to crash internet explorer. The website loads and starts executing javascript but somewhere in there the machinery explodes. I don't even get a script error, it just crashes. I've tried to manually step through every single line of js with the built in debugger but then of course the problem doesn't occur. If i choose to debug the application when it crashes i see the following message. Unhandled exception at 0x6c5dedf5 in iexplore.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000090. The top 5 items in the call stack looks like this VGX.dll!6c5dedf5() [Frames below may be incorrect and/or missing, no symbols loaded for VGX.dll] VGX.dll!6c594d70() VGX.dll!6c594f63() VGX.dll!6c595350() VGX.dll!6c58f5e3() mshtml.dll!6f88dd17() VGX.dll seems to be part of the vml renderer and i am in fact using VML. I'm not suprised because i've had so many problems with vml, attributes has to be set in specific order, sometimes you cant set attributes when you have elements attached to the dom or vice versa (everything undocumented btw) but then the problems can usually be reproduced when debugging but not now :( The problem also occurs in no plugin-mode. Is there a better approach than trial and error to solve this? Edit: Adding a console outputting every suspect modification to the DOM made the problem only occur sometimes. (the console is also implemented in javascript on the same page, i'm able to see the output even after a crash as the window is still visible) Apparently it seems to be some kind of race condition. I managed to track it down even further, and it seems to occur when you remove an object from the DOM too quickly after it's just been added. (most likely only for vml-elements with some special attribute, didn't try further) And it can't be fixed by adding a dead loop in front of removeChild(pretty bad solution anyway), the page has to be rendered by the browser once after the addChild before you can call removeChild. sigh

    Read the article

  • Is there a design pattern that expresses objects (an their operations) in various states?

    - by darren
    Hi I have a design question about the evolution of an object (and its state) after some sequence of methods complete. I'm having trouble articulating what I mean so I may need to clean up the question based on feedback. Consider an object called Classifier. It has the following methods: void initialise() void populateTrainingSet(TrainingSet t) void pupulateTestingSet(TestingSet t) void train() void test() Result predict(Instance i) My problem is that these methods need to be called in a certain order. Futher, some methods are invalid until a previous method is called, and some methods are invalid after a method has been called. For example, it would be invalid to call predict() before test() was called, and it would be invalid to call train() after test() was called. My approach so far has been to maintain a private enum that represents the current stateof the object: private static enum STATE{ NEW, TRAINED, TESTED, READY}; But this seems a bit cloogy. Is there a design pattern for such a problem type? Maybe something related to the template method.

    Read the article

  • tcp/ip accept not returning, but client does

    - by paquetp
    server: vxworks 6.3 calls the usual socket, bind, listen, then: for (;;) { client = accept(sfd,NULL,NULL); // pass client to worker thread } client: .NET 2.0 TcpClient constructor to connect to server that takes the string hostname and int port, like: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(server_ip, port); This is working fine when the server is compiled and executed in windows (native c++). intermittently, the constructor to TcpClient will return the instance, without throwing any exception, but the accept call in vxWorks does not return with the client fd. tcpstatShow indicates no accept occurred. What could possibly make the TcpClient constructor (which calls 'Connect') return the instance, while the accept call on the server not return? It seems to be related to what the system is doing in the background - it seems more likely to get this symptom to occur when the server is busy persisting data to flash or an NFS share when the client attempts to connect, but can happen when it isn't also. I've tried adjusting priority of the thread running accept I've looked at the size of the queue in 'listen'. There's enough. The total number of file descriptors available should be enough (haven't validated this yet though, first thing in the morning)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 536 537 538 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547  | Next Page >