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• What are major differences between C# and Java?

  - by enba

  I just want to clarify one thing. This is not a question on which one is better, that part I leave to someone else to discuss. I don't care about it. I've been asked this question on my job interview and I thought it might be useful to learn a bit more. These are the ones I could come up with: Java is "platform independent". Well nowadays you could say there is the Mono project so C# could be considered too but I believe it is a bit exaggerating. Why? Well, when a new release of Java is done it is simultaneously available on all platforms it supports, on the other hand how many features of C# 3.0 are still missing in the Mono implementation? Or is it really CLR vs. JRE that we should compare here? Java doesn't support events and delegates. As far as I know. In Java all methods are virtual Development tools: I believe there isn't such a tool yet as Visual Studio. Especially if you've worked with team editions you'll know what I mean. Please add others you think are relevant. Update: Just popped up my mind, Java doesn't have something like custom attributes on classes, methods etc. Or does it?

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• Black Corners On Grouped UITableViewCells Only After Navigation Pops

  - by coneybeare

  I am not graphics expert but I somehow managed to make some good looking custom grouped UITableViewCells by setting the background view to a backgroundView with some CG code. In all SDK's up to 3.1.3 (maybe 3.2... I haven't tested on the iPad) this was working great, but I think a more recent SDK has introduced a change in the way graphics are cached offscreen. Upon first render, everything is great: The drawing is fine and the corners are transparent. If I push a couple of view controllers on the navigation stack and come back, there are now black corners that appear in the views: BEFORE && AFTER I have tons of code, most of which is written up here. I have tried tweaking to the best of my ability, looking at the docs for applicable changes, but after at least 8 hours in I still cannot find what might cause this. I have tried setting every view I can think of to be backgroundColor=clearColor and opaque=NO What else am I missing? Any debugging tips? UPDATE: I have some debug code in viewDidAppear that prints the backgroundColor and class description of all the subviews. - (void)debugView:(UIView *)view { DebugLog(@"%@ - %@", view.backgroundColor, [[view class] description]); for (UIView* child in view.subviews) { [self debugView:child]; } } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; [DownloadController.networkQueue setSuspended:NO]; for (TTTableViewCell *cell in [self.tableView visibleCells]) { [cell debugView:cell]; } } With this code, I inspect the backgroundColor settings of the cell views on first load, when it is fine, and then again after coming back. There are some differences, but all the colors are still set to be clear. This leads me to believe the issue is underneath the UITableViewCell. UPDATE 2: I have created a simple sample application to highlight the problem here

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• Can one connection get details of another? Or, how can I get the most detailed pending transaction

  - by bob-the-destroyer

  Is there a Mysql statement which provides full details of any other open connection or user? For this particular case, on myisam tables specifically. Looking at Mysql's SHOW TABLE STATUS documentation, it's missing some very important information for my purpose. For example: remote odbc connection one is inserting several thousand records, which due to a slow connection speed can take up to an hour. Tcp connection two, using PHP on the server's localhost, is running select queries with aggregate functions on that data. Before allowing connection two to run those queries, I'd like connection two to first check to make sure there's no pending inserts on any other connection on those specific tables so it can instead wait until all data is available. If the table is currently being written to, I'd like to spit back to the user of connection two an approximation of how much longer to wait based on the number of pending inserts. Ideally by table, I'd like to get back using a query the timestamp when connection one began the write, total inserts left to be done, and total inserts already completed. Instead of insert counts, even knowing number of bytes written and left to write would work just fine here. Obviously since connection two is a tcp connection via a PHP script, all I can really use in that script is some sort of query. I suppose if I have to, since it is on localhost, I can exec() it if the only way is by a mysql command line option that outputs this info, but I'd rather not. I suppose I could simply update a custom-made transaction log before and after this massive insert task which the PHP script can check, but hopefully there's already a built-in Mysql feature I can take advantage of.

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• difference between http.context.user and thread.currentprincipal and when to use them?

  - by yamspog

  I have just recently run into an issue running an asp.net web app under visual studio 2008. I get the error 'type is not resolved for member...customUserPrincipal'. Tracking down various discussion groups it seems that there is an issue with Visual Studio's web server when you assign a custom principal against the Thread.CurrentPrincipal. In my code, I now use... HttpContext.Current.User = myCustomPrincipal //Thread.CurrentPrincipal = myCustomPrincipal I'm glad that I got the error out of the way, but it begs the question "What is the difference between these two methods of setting a principal?". There are other stackoverflow questions related to the differences but they don't get into the details of the two approaches. I did find one tantalizing post that had the following grandiose comment but no explanation to back up his assertions... Use HttpConext.Current.User for all web (ASPX/ASMX) applications. Use Thread.CurrentPrincipal for all other applications like winForms, console and windows service applications. Can any of you security/dot.net gurus shed some light on this subject?

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• Using MATLAB's plotting features as an interactive part of a Fortran program

  - by ldigas

  Although many of you will have a decent idea of what I'm aiming at, just from reading the title -- allow me a simple introduction still. I have a Fortran program - it consists of a program, some internal subroutines, 7 modules with its own procedures, and ... uhmm, that's it. Without going into much detail, for I don't think it's necessary at this point, what would be the easiest way to use MATLAB's plotting features (mainly plot(x,y) with some customizations) as an interactive part of my program ? For now I'm using some of my own custom plotting routines (based on HPGL and Calcomp's routines), but just as part of an exercise on my part, I'd like to see where this could go and how would it work (is it even possible what I'm suggesting?). Also, how much effort would it take on my part ? I know this subject has been rather extensively described in many "tutorials" on the net, but for some reason I have trouble finding the really simple yet illustrative introductory ones. So if anyone can post an example or two, simple ones, I'd be really grateful. Or just take me by the hand and guide me through one working example. platform: IVF 11.something :) on Win XP SP2, Matlab 2008b

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• Two pass JSP page rendering

  - by dotsid

  Suppose an example. I have following interface: public interface DataSource<T> { Future<T> fetch(); } This datasource can do asynchronous data fetching. And we have following tag for using datasource in JSP: <html> <d:fetch from="${orderDS}" var="orders"> <c:foreach in="${orders}" var="order"> <div class="order"> <c:out value="${order.title}" /> </div> </c:foreach> </d:fetch> </html> So, what I want? I want JSP rendering engine to call my custom tag (FetchTag in this example) twice. On first call FetchTag will do DataSource.fetch() call and save Future locally as a object field. On second call FetchTag do Future.get() call and will be blocked until data becomes available. Is there any way to do such a thing?

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• Anyone NOT using a Web Framework? Why?

  - by tom

  I'm well aware of the many reasons to use a web framework. I'm just wondering whether anyone out there is using absolutely no web framework whatsoever to develop their web projects. I would really love to know the reason(s) why you're not using a web framework. For the sake of this discussion, your programming language of choice does not matter. Some possibilities for discussion: You don't hide behind an ORM. You don't rely on any sort of templating system. You think MVC is a really nice TLA but lacks an essential vowel or two. No need for any additional javascript framework tomfoolery. You just write as much code as possible in your native programming language(s). Summary of reasons thus far: Language learning opportunities. Specific performance reasons (write-intensive transaction processing). Seeking more nuanced control over your data and applications (less abstraction). You're building your own framework! Prove to yourself that you can succeed (or fail) just like the big framework-building gurus. Integration issues with unpopular/legacy technologies (exotic databases or protocols come to mind). Big company, lots of code, no talent nor buy-in present to move to a web framework. Some frameworks really lock you in and cannot perpetually grow along with your needs. These few black sheep don't make it easy to jump outside of the framework, write some custom code, and easily jump back in. When you finally escape the asylum, you'll never look back.

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• Setting synthesized arrays causing memory leaks using nested arrays

  - by webtoad

  Hello: Why is the following code causing a memory leak in an iPhone App? All of the initted objects below leak, including the arrays, the strings and the numbers. So, I'm thinking it has something to do with the the synthesized array property not releasing the object when I set the property again on the second and subsequent time this piece of code is called. Here is the code: "controller" (below) is my custom view controller class, which I have a reference to, and I am setting with this code snippet: sqlite3_stmt *statement; NSMutableArray *foo_IDs = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_Names = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_IDsBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSMutableArray *foo_NamesBySection = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Get data: NSString *sql = @"select distinct p.foo_ID, p.foo_Name from foo as p "; if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(...) == SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(statement) == SQLITE_ROW) { int p_id; NSString *foo_Name; p_id = sqlite3_column_int(statement, 0); char *str2 = (char *)sqlite3_column_text(statement, 1); foo_Name = [NSString stringWithCString:str2]; [foo_IDs addObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:p_id]]; [foo_Names addObject:foo_Name]; } sqlite3_finalize(statement); } // Pass the array itself into another array: // (normally there is more than one array in each array) [foo_IDsBySection addObject: foo_IDs]; [foo_NamesBySection addObject: foo_Names]; [foo_IDs release]; [foo_Names release]; // Set some synthesized properties (of type NSArray, nonatomic, // retain) in controller: controller.foo_IDsBySection = foo_IDsBySection; controller.foo_NamesBySection = foo_NamesBySection; [foo_IDsBySection release]; [foo_NamesBySection release]; Thanks for any help!

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• Using JQuery in an AJAX control and avoiding conflicts

  - by Rich Andrews

  Hi, I am using JQuery within a custom AJAX user control (part of a home grown toolkit) and I need to ensure that JQuery is present on the hosting page. There can be multiple instances of the control on a page and some controls may need to use different versions of JQuery. At the moment I am using the following code to load in JQuery when the control initializes... Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(Page.GetType(), "jquery-1.4.4.min.js", this.ResolveUrl("TextControlPlugin/lib/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")); This works because the scriptmanager handles not putting multiple copies of the same script into he page. Problems... I cannot use JQuery statically in the calling page (I may not have a control on the page but need to use JQuery) The scriptmanager appears to handle only duplicate URL's and I will need to deploy it from potentially 2 different URL's (the calling page's copy and the controls copy) So, is there a way to isolate a version of JQuery to the context of my control that doesnt interfear with any use of JQuery from the calling page? The developer writing the page may not have access to the internals of the control. I have looked at JQuery.noConflict() but cannot seem to get it to work correctly - I believe I'm having problems with the order in which the scripts are injected into the page - I keep getting JQuery is undefined errors. Any help would be much appreciated

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• How can I create global context variables in JBOSS?

  - by NobodyMan

  This is a follow-up to a question I posted a while back: "Can I use a single WAR in multiple environments?". I was able to create a single-war solution in Tomcat, but now we are migrating our app to JBoss 4.2 and I can't figure out how to set up global environment variables. In Tomcat 6 this was pretty straightforward: I simply put the following snippet in tomcat/conf/Catalina/myappname.xml: <Context ...> <Environment name="TARGET_ENV" value="DEV" type="java.lang.String" override="false"/> </Context> Then in my app I was able to resolve the environment name with the following: Context context = (Context) InitialContext().lookup("java:comp/env"); String targetEnvironment = (String) context.lookup("TARGET_ENV"); The problem is that I can't find out where/how to place global variables in JBoss. I've tried putting the <Environment> tag in the following files to no avail: server/all/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml server/default/deploy/jboss-web.deployer/context.xml I know that I can put environment variables in my app's web.xml but that defeats the purpose of having a unified war - I'd still need custom .war's for dev, qa and prod. I'm a JBoss newbie so if there's any additional information that would help just let me know and I'll append to this question. Many thanks! --N

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• Driver denied access to PCI card

  - by Corin

  We wrote a Windows device driver to access our custom PCI card. The driver uses CreateFile to get a handle to the card. We recently had trouble at one installation were the card appeared to stop working. We tried replacing the card (the replacement appeared not work either). The computer vendor replaced the motherboard and both cards still failed to work. We put the cards in a different computer and both worked fine. We now have the computer at our office for examination. The Windows Device Manager lists our card in Other Devices as usual and says it's working fine. However, our driver initialization fails when it attempts to connect to the card. We created a test version of our driver with some extra debugging and determined that CreateFile is failing. It returns INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE as it is supposed to on failure. GetLastError indicates the error is Access is Denied. Since we're logged into the system as a local administrator, what can deny access to the device?

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• How do you compare using .NET types in an NHibernate ICriteria query for an ICompositeUserType?

  - by gabe

  I have an answered StackOverflow question about how to combine to legacy CHAR database date and time fields into one .NET DateTime property in my POCO here (thanks much Berryl!). Now i am trying to get a custom ICritera query to work against that very DateTime property to no avail. here's my query: ICriteria criteria = Session.CreateCriteria<InputFileLog>() .Add(Expression.Gt(MembersOf<InputFileLog>.GetName(x => x.FileCreationDateTime), DateTime.Now.AddDays(-14))) .AddOrder(Order.Desc(Projections.Id())) .CreateCriteria(typeof(InputFile).Name) .Add(Expression.Eq(MembersOf<InputFile>.GetName(x => x.Id), inputFileName)); IList<InputFileLog> list = criteria.List<InputFileLog>(); And here's the query it's generating: SELECT this_.input_file_token as input1_9_2_, this_.file_creation_date as file2_9_2_, this_.file_creation_time as file3_9_2_, this_.approval_ind as approval4_9_2_, this_.file_id as file5_9_2_, this_.process_name as process6_9_2_, this_.process_status as process7_9_2_, this_.input_file_name as input8_9_2_, gonogo3_.input_file_token as input1_6_0_, gonogo3_.go_nogo_ind as go2_6_0_, inputfile1_.input_file_name as input1_3_1_, inputfile1_.src_code as src2_3_1_, inputfile1_.process_cat_code as process3_3_1_ FROM input_file_log this_ left outer join go_nogo gonogo3_ on this_.input_file_token=gonogo3_.input_file_token inner join input_file inputfile1_ on this_.input_file_name=inputfile1_.input_file_name WHERE this_.file_creation_date > :p0 and this_.file_creation_time > :p1 and inputfile1_.input_file_name = :p2 ORDER BY this_.input_file_token desc; :p0 = '20100401', :p1 = '15:15:27', :p2 = 'LMCONV_JR' The query is exactly what i would expect, actually, except it doesn't actually give me what i want (all the rows in the last 2 weeks) because in the DB it's doing a greater than comparison using CHARs instead of DATEs. I have no idea how to get the query to convert the CHAR values into a DATE in the query without doing a CreateSQLQuery(), which I would like to avoid. Anyone know how to do this?

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• Why is UseCompatibleTextRendering needed here?

  - by HotOil

  Hi, I think I'm missing something fundamental. Please tell me what it is, if you can. I have developed a little C++ WinForms app using VS2008. So it is built using .NET 3.5 SP1. My development box is Win7, if that matters. The default value of UseCompatibleTextRendering property in WinForms controls is false in this version of VStudio. And this should not matter to me, I don't think. I don't have any custom-drawn text or controls. The app looks good running on my Win7 box. If I package it up (dragging along .NET 3.5) and install it on one of our WinXP desktops, the buttons and labels don't look good; the text is chopped off in them. If I set UseCompatibleTextRendering to true and then run it on the XP boxes, the text fits into the buttons and labels. My question is: Why? The installation puts .Net 3.5 on the XP boxes, so the app should be able to find and use the right version of WinForms, right? I should note that before I put my app + .NET 3.5 on these boxes, they have no .NET at all. They do not get automatic Microsoft updates; our IT guy gates the patches and upgrades. [ This sort of thing has happened before with apps I create.. they look/work great on the Engineering machines, because we maintain those and they mostly have up-to-date stuff. When they are run on the corporate boxes, they usually don't run and need the VCredist installed. ] Back to the question at hand: The text looks better with the UseCompatibleTextRendering set to false, so I'd rather keep it that way, if I can. I'd like to understand what might be missing on those XP boxes that is making the text not fit. Thanks S

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• how to minimize application downtime when updating database and application ORM

  - by yamspog

  We currently run an ecommerce solution for a leisure and travel company. Everytime we have a release, we must bring the ecommerce site down as we update database schema and the data access code. We are using a custom built ORM where each data entity is responsible for their own CRUD operations. This is accomplished by dynamically generating the SQL based on attributes in the data entity. For example, the data entity for an address would be... [tableName="address"] public class address : dataEntity { [column="address1"] public string address1; [column="city"] public string city; } So, if we add a new column to the database, we must update the schema of the database and also update the data entity. As you can expect, the business people are not too happy about this outage as it puts a crimp in their cash-flow. The operations people are not happy as they have to deal with a high-pressure time when database and applications are upgraded. The programmers are upset as they are constantly getting in trouble for the legacy system that they inherited. Do any of you smart people out there have some suggestions?

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• jQuery password strength plugin callback validation method

  - by jmorhardt

  I'm using a a jQuery plugin to evaluate password strength. It gives a graphical representation for the user to see how secure the password is. I'd like to use it to validate the field as well. The plugin works by assessing the password and giving it a score. I want to be able to verify that the user has entered a password of at least a certain score. The code is hosted on jQuery's site here: http://plugins.jquery.com/project/pstrength. The documentation states that there is a way to add a rule and do custom validation. I'm not sure where to start. The inline documentation states: * === Changelog === * Version 2.1 (18/05/2008) * Added a jQuery method to add a new rule: jQuery('input[@type=password]').pstrength.addRule(name, method, score, active) And later in the code there's this method: jQuery.extend(jQuery.fn.pstrength, { 'addRule': function (name, method, score, active) { digitalspaghetti.password.addRule(name, method, score, active); return true; }, 'changeScore': function (rule, score) { digitalspaghetti.password.ruleScores[rule] = score; return true; }, 'ruleActive': function (rule, active) { digitalspaghetti.password.rules[rule] = active; return true; } }); If anybody has seen an example of how to do this I'd appreciate a pointer in the right direction. Thanks!

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• .NET Remoting: Getting underlying socket?

  - by Alan

  Hi, I'm writing a light remoting app to assist in debugging a problem with remoting communication. This app mimics much of what a larger application does: Periodically sends a heartbeat to another peer application, and periodically verifies that a heartbeat has been received within some time threshold. What we're seeing is in our big application, the heartbeats seem to get dropped. One peer will go for long periods of time without seeing heartbeats from another peer, until the peer that is "dead" is restarted. The big application is responsive in all other ways. We believe it has something to do with the network setup. We were able to repro the problem locally, and fixed it by making some configuration changes to our test environment. To help our customer diagnose the issue, the mini-remoting app needs to log as much information as possible. So, is there a way to get the underlying socket for the remoting connection? I'm aware that I could write a custom sink for this, but I'd like to keep the actual remoting process as close to what is implemented in the big app as possible. Also as an aside, any ideas why the big-app might be "dropping" heartbeats?

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• using facelet1.1.15 (external facelet) in JSF2

  - by Odelya

  Hi! I have upgrated to JSF2 but still running with facelet1.1.15. I have these parameters in web.xml: <context-param> <param-name>org.ajax4jsf.VIEW_HANDLERS</param-name> <param-value>com.sun.facelets.FaceletViewHandler</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>javax.faces.DISABLE_FACELET_JSF_VIEWHANDLER</param-name> <param-value>true</param-value> </context-param> I am trying to create my own componet step by step of this example : http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/java/library/j-jsf2fu2/index.html#tip3 everything looks fine but i get an error that it doesn't recognize the tag. Has it got to do with the facelet 1.1.15? and it works only with VDL? it there a way to use 1.1.15 and custom components in JSF2? As well - I use tomcat 6

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• Silverlight Binding - Binds when item is added but doesn't get updates.

  - by dw

  Hello, I'm sorta at a loss to why this doesn't work considering I got it from working code, just added a new level of code, but here's what I have. Basically, when I bind the ViewModel to a list, the binding picks up when Items are added to a collection. However, if an update occurs to the item that is bound, it doesn't get updated. Basically, I have an ObservableCollection that contains a custom class with a string value. When that string value gets updated I need it to update the List. Right now, when I debug, the list item does get updated correctly, but the UI doesn't reflect the change. If I set the bound item to a member variable and null it out then reset it to the right collection it will work, but not desired behavior. Here is a mockup of the code, hopefully someone can tell me where I am wrong. Also, I've tried implementing INofityPropertyChanged at every level in the code below. public class Class1 { public string ItemName; } public class Class2 { private Class2 _items; private Class2() //Singleton { _items = new ObservableCollection<Class1>(); } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items { get { return _items; } internal set { _items = value; } } } public class Class3 { private Class2 _Class2Instnace; private Class3() { _Class2Instnace = Class2.Instance; } public ObservableCollection<Class1> Items2 { get {return _Class2Instnace.Items; } } } public class MyViewModel : INofityPropertyChanged { private Class3 _myClass3; private MyViewModel() { _myClass3 = new Class3(); } private BindingItems { get { return _myClass3.Items2; } // Binds when adding items but not when a Class1.ItemName gets updated. } }

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• Passing a variable from beggining to end - Paypal

  - by Phil Jackson

  Hi all, I'be been at this for days and i cant seem to figure it out. All i want to do is when subscribe button is pushed, a variable is send ( post get i dont care ) payment is completed and landed on the success page, with my variable! From what i can gather this should be able to do it: <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_s-xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="hosted_button_id" value="0000000"> <Input type="hidden" name="custom" value="<?php md5($code.microtime()); ?>"/> <input type="image" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_US/i/btn/btn_subscribeCC_LG.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online!"> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_US/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> </form> Any help much appreciated ( and yes I've read paypal and sandbox documentation, just not that good at reading. )

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• server control properties

  - by Richard Friend

  Okay i have a custom server control that has some autocomplete settings, i have this as follows and it works fine. /// <summary> /// Auto complete settings /// </summary> [System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility (System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty), Category("Data"), Description("Auto complete settings"), NotifyParentProperty(true)] public AutoCompleteLookupSettings AutoComplete { private set; get; } I also have a ParameterCollection that is really related to the auto complete settings, currently this collection resides off the control itself like so : /// <summary> /// Parameters for any data lookups /// </summary> [System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility(System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] public ParameterCollection Parameters { get; set; } What i would like to do is move the parameter collection inside of the AutoCompleteSettings as it really relates to my autocomplete, i have tried this but to no avail.. I would like to move from <cc1:TextField ID="TextField1" runat='server'> <AutoComplete MethodName="GetTest" TextField="Item1" TypeName ="AppFrameWork.Utils" /> <Parameters> <asp:ControlParameter ControlID="txtTest" PropertyName="Text" Name="test" /> </Parameters> </cc1:TextField> To <cc1:TextField ID="TextField1" runat='server'> <AutoComplete MethodName="GetTest" TextField="Item1" TypeName ="AppFrameWork.Utils" > <Parameters> <asp:ControlParameter ControlID="txtTest" PropertyName="Text" Name="test" /> </Parameters> </AutoComplete> </cc1:TextField>

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• How to debug memory allocation issues?

  - by amitabh

  Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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• C++: defining maximum/minimum limits for a class

  - by Luis

  Basically what the title says... I have created a class that models time slots in a variable-granularity daily schedule (where for example the first time slot is 30 minutes, but the second time slot can be 40 minutes); the first available slot starts at (a value comparable to) 1. What I want to do now is to define somehow the maximum and minimum allowable values that this class takes and I have two practical questions in order to do so: 1.- does it make sense to define absolute minimum and maximum in such a way for a custom class? Or better, does it suffice that a value always compares as lower-than any other possible value of the type, given the class's defined relational operators, to be defined the min? (and analogusly for the max) 2.- assuming the previous question has an answer modeled after "yes" (or "yes but ..."), how do I define such max/min? I know that there is std::numeric_limits<> but from what I read it is intended for "numeric types". Do I interpret that as meaning "represented as a number" or can I make a broader assumption like "represented with numbers" or "having a correspondence to integers"? After all, it would make sense to define the minimum and maximum for a date class, and maybe for a dictionary class, but numeric_limits may not be intended for those uses (I don't have much experience with it). Plus, numeric_limits has a lot of extra members and information that I don't know what to make with. If I don't use numeric_limits, what other well-known / widely-used mechanism does C++ offer to indicate the available range of values for a class?

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• Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

  - by Michal Czardybon

  Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

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• Javascript not registering/executing after button click

  - by rs

  I have a textbox which i convert to tinymce textbox using tinymce.js file. I'm trying to add a new script with database fields substituted based on selection made from dropdownlist to page using registerstartupscript. In page load protected sub page_load(byVal sender as object, byval e as EventArgs) handles me.load AddScriptToPage() if not page.ispostback() then session("fname") = nothing end if end sub Script Method Sub AddScriptToPage() dim _script = " c.onRenderMenu.add(function(c, m) { " & _ add_columns() & _ "}); " ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(Me.GetType(), keyword,_script) End Sub function add_columns() as string dim ret_string = String.empty select case ddlList.selectedvalue case 1 sqlcommand = "xyz" case 2 sqlcommand = "xyz" case 3 //Load from excel sqlcommand = nothing end select if sqlcommand isnot nothing then executereader() while reader.read() ret_string = ret_string & reader("column") end while elseif session("fname") isnot nothing dt = getdatatable(session("fname").tostring()) //method that opens oledb connection and returns columns for each dr in dt.rows ret_string = ret_string & dr("column") next end if add_columns = ret_string end function When excel file is uploaded to server this event is called protected sub btnclick(byVal sender as object, byval e as EventArgs) if hasfile then 'i have custom properties set after control validation 'Upload file 'set session value with filepath session("fname") = filepath 'call js register event AddScriptToPage() end if end sub When i click upload button i'm calling AddScriptToPage, and debug it it hits AddScripttoPage event and executes it but it doesn't showup on page. It should show column names in tinymce editor but it doesn't. But when i click another button on the same page it shows (becos session has the filename). On Upload button click page flow: Page load - AddScriptToPage is executed (registers scripts with no columns) Then AddScriptToPage in btnclick event is executed (registers scripts with columns) Why is this script not getting registered even though it is executed on vb code on uploadclick event? And why does it show up after another button click and not original button click that calls this event?

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• Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

  - by René Wolferink

  Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

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