Search Results

Search found 59643 results on 2386 pages for 'data migration'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 546/2386 | < Previous Page | 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553  | Next Page >

  • rsync windows to linux permission denied

    - by user64908
    Using Command rsync -avzP --delete --omit-dir-times ../../ [email protected]:/var/www/mysite/ I'm getting rsync: mkstemp "/var/www/mysite/.." failed: Permission denied (13) If ext is in the www-data group should I still set all the files to be owned by user www-data? I am trying to publish the files with rsync and then set the permissions using sudo chown -R www-data doc sudo chgrp -R www-data doc but I can't even rsync because of the permission denied. The SSH works fine, the rsync too except when it tries to write over or update some of the files in /var/www Client * Windows 7 * Cygwin 1.7.16 (GNU bash, version 4.1.10(4)-release (i686-pc-cygwin)) * rsync version 3.0.9 protocol version 30 Server * Ubuntu 12.04 * Apache2 * Root Accounts [ubuntu,ext] * Groups [www-data] * sudo vigr has www-data:x:33:ubuntu,ext I have already configure this http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2124169/cwrsync-ignores-nontsec-on-windows-7 This article has also managed to confuse me http://unix.stackexchange.com/questions/41687/how-should-i-rsync-files-in-var-www-if-i-want-them-to-be-owned-by-www-data What is the right procedure?

    Read the article

  • Need a cleaner way, which avoids too many 'if statements', to write this method for inputing data in

    - by indiehacker
    What is the best way to reference datastore model attributes without using the four 'if statements' I have in the below sample code, which seem messy and inefficient. For real-world code I may have a situation of 100 attributes such as self.var1, self.var2, ... self.varN that I want to some how reference with just an integer (or strings) as an argument to some method. class PixelObject(db.Model): zoom0 = db.ListProperty(int) zoom1 = db.ListProperty(int) zoom2 = db.ListProperty(int) zoom3 = db.ListProperty(int) zoom4 = db.ListProperty(int) def inputZoomData(self, zoomInteger, input_data): """input_data goes to specified attribute based on if 0,1,2,3,or 4 is argument""" if zoomInteger == 0: self.zoom0 = input_data if zoomInteger == 1: self.zoom1 = input_data if zoomInteger == 2: self.zoom2 = input_data if zoomInteger == 3: self.zoom3 = input_data if zoomInteger == 4: self.zoom4 = input_data

    Read the article

  • Flex + PHP + ValueObjects

    - by Tempname
    I have a php/flex value object that I am using to transmit data to/from in my application. Everything works great php-flex, but I am having an issue with flex-php. In my MergeTemplateService.php service I have the following code. This is the method that flex hits directly: function updateTemplate($valueObject){ $object = DAOFactory::getMergeTemplateDAO()->update($valueObject); return $object; } I am passing a value object that from flex looks like this: (com.rottmanj.vo::MergeTemplateVO)#0 communityID = 0 creationDate = (null) enterpriseID = 0 lastModifyDate = (null) templateID = 2 templateName = "My New Test Template" userID = 0 The issue I am having is that my updateTemplate method sees the value object as an array and not an object. In my amfphp globals.php I have set my voPath as: $voPath = "services/class/dto/"; Any help with this is greatly appreciated Here are my two value objects: AS3 VO: package com.rottmanj.vo { [RemoteClass(alias="MergeTemplate")] public class MergeTemplateVO { public var templateID:int; public var templateName:String; public var communityID:int; public var enterpriseID:int; public var userID:int; public var creationDate:String; public var lastModifyDate:String public function MergeTemplateVO(data:Object = null):void { if(data != null) { templateID = data.templateID; templateName = data.templateName; communityID = data.communityID; enterpriseID = data.enterpriseID; userID = data.userID; creationDate = data.creationDate; lastModifyDate = data.lastModifyDate; } } } } PHPVO: <?php class MergeTemplate{ var $templateID; var $templateName; var $communityID; var $enterpriseID; var $userID; var $creationDate; var $lastModifyDate; var $_explictType = 'MergeTemplate'; } ?>

    Read the article

  • how to force ejb3 to reload value from data base and not use those of the context

    - by Kohan95
    Hello here I have a big problem that I hope to find help here I have two entities @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.JOINED) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="Role", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING) public class Utilisateur implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name="id") private Long id; @Column(name="nom",nullable=false) private String nom; @Column(name="Role",nullable=false, insertable=false) private String Role ; //... } @Entity @Table(name="ResCom") @DiscriminatorValue("ResCom") public class ResCom extends Utilisateur { /... } the first thing I do ResCom rsCom= new ResCom(nom,prenom, email,civilite, SysQl.crypePasse(pass)); gr.create(rsCom); I check my database I see that property is ResCom insert but when I check the value of role I get null Utilisateur tets= gr.findByEmail(email); message=tets.getEmail()+" and Role :"+tets.getRole()+""; but in my bass it ResCom !!!!! the problem disappears when I deploy the project again I hope you have a solution And thank you in advance sorry for my English

    Read the article

  • Pattern for version-specific implementations of a Java class

    - by Mike Monkiewicz
    So here's my conundrum. I am programming a tool that needs to work on old versions of our application. I have the code to the application, but can not alter any of the classes. To pull information out of our database, I have a DTO of sorts that is populated by Hibernate. It consumes a data object for version 1.0 of our app, cleverly named DataObject. Below is the DTO class. public class MyDTO { private MyWrapperClass wrapper; public MyDTO(DataObject data) { wrapper = new MyWrapperClass(data); } } The DTO is instantiated through a Hibernate query as follows: select new com.foo.bar.MyDTO(t1.data) from mytable t1 Now, a little logic is needed on top of the data object, so I made a wrapper class for it. Note the DTO stores an instance of the wrapper class, not the original data object. public class MyWrapperClass { private DataObject data; public MyWrapperClass(DataObject data) { this.data = data; } public String doSomethingImportant() { ... version-specific logic ... } } This works well until I need to work on version 2.0 of our application. Now DataObject in the two versions are very similar, but not the same. This resulted in different sub classes of MyWrapperClass, which implement their own version-specific doSomethingImportant(). Still doing okay. But how does myDTO instantiate the appropriate version-specific MyWrapperClass? Hibernate is in turn instantiating MyDTO, so it's not like I can @Autowire a dependency in Spring. I would love to reuse MyDTO (and my dozens of other DTOs) for both versions of the tool, without having to duplicate the class. Don't repeat yourself, and all that. I'm sure there's a very simple pattern I'm missing that would help this. Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Use a foreign key mapping to get data from the other table using Python and SQLAlchemy.

    - by Az
    Hmm, the title was harder to formulate than I thought. Basically, I've got these simple classes mapped to tables, using SQLAlchemy. I know they're missing a few items but those aren't essential for highlighting the problem. class Customer(object): def __init__(self, uid, name, email): self.uid = uid self.name = name self.email = email def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Cust: %s, Name: %s (Email: %s)" %(self.uid, self.name, self.email) The above is basically a simple customer with an id, name and an email address. class Order(object): def __init__(self, item_id, item_name, customer): self.item_id = item_id self.item_name = item_name self.customer = None def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "Item ID %s: %s, has been ordered by customer no. %s" %(self.item_id, self.item_name, self.customer) This is the Orders class that just holds the order information: an id, a name and a reference to a customer. It's initialised to None to indicate that this item doesn't have a customer yet. The code's job will assign the item a customer. The following code maps these classes to respective database tables. # SQLAlchemy database transmutation engine = create_engine('sqlite:///:memory:', echo=False) metadata = MetaData() customers_table = Table('customers', metadata, Column('uid', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String), Column('email', String) ) orders_table = Table('orders', metadata, Column('item_id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('item_name', String), Column('customer', Integer, ForeignKey('customers.uid')) ) metadata.create_all(engine) mapper(Customer, customers_table) mapper(Orders, orders_table) Now if I do something like: for order in session.query(Order): print order I can get a list of orders in this form: Item ID 1001: MX4000 Laser Mouse, has been ordered by customer no. 12 What I want to do is find out customer 12's name and email address (which is why I used the ForeignKey into the Customer table). How would I go about it?

    Read the article

  • Ruby and jQuery -- $(document).ajaxSend() not modifying the params as expected

    - by Jason
    I cannot get jquery's ajaxSend (http://api.jquery.com/ajaxSend/) to properly modify the parameters. I have: $(document).ajaxSend(function(event, request, settings) { settings.data = $.deparam(settings.data); settings.data['random'] = new Date().getTime(); settings.data['_method'] = 'get'; settings.data = $.param(settings.data) $.log(settings); }); $(document).ready(function() { //...snip... $.ajaxSetup({ data : { remote : 1, authenticity_token : encodeURIComponent(AUTH_TOKEN) } }); }); The idea here is that we always want 4 param sent across: remote and auth_token always get set properly. However, random and _method (both needed for IE issues) do not get set. Logging settings inside ajaxSend shows me that they are set to settings.data: "remote=1&authenticity_token=6GA9R_snip_253D&random=1270584905846&_method=get" but when it gets sent across the wire, I only have the following: authenticity_token 6GA9R_snip_253D remote 1 Why in the world is this not working?

    Read the article

  • Why is the Objective-C Boolean data type defined as a signed char?

    - by EddieCatflap
    Something that has piqued my interest is Objective-C's BOOL type definition. Why is it defined as a signed char (which could cause unexpected behaviour if a value greater than 1 byte in length is assigned to it) rather than as an int, as C does (much less margin for error: a zero value is false, a non-zero value is true)? The only reason I can think of is the Objective-C designers micro-optimising storage because the char will use less memory than the int. Please can someone enlighten me?

    Read the article

  • Io exception: There is no process to read data written to a pipe.

    - by Srikanth
    I'm using Hibernate3.2+Websphere6.0+struts1.3.. After deploying ,application works fine. After some idle time ,i will get this type of error repeatedly,am not able to login at all. Im not using any connection pooling. i feel after idle time its not able to connect to the database again..if i restart the server everything works fine for some time...after that same story.. please help me out

    Read the article

  • Do Managers in Python Multiprocessing module lock the shared data?

    - by AnonProcess
    This Question has been asked before: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2936626/how-to-share-a-dictionary-between-multiple-processes-in-python-without-locking However I have several doubts regarding the program given in the answer: The issue is that the following step isn't atomic d['blah'] += 1 Even with locking the answer provided in that question would lead to random results. Since Process 1 read value of d['blah'] saves it on the stack increments it and again writes it. In Between a Process 2 can read the d['blah'] as well. Locking means that while d['blah'] is being written or read no other process can access it. Can someone clarify my doubts?

    Read the article

  • OOF (Out of Office) is not working for remote users (Outlook Anywhere)

    - by Doughecka
    I'm not sure how long this issue has been happening, but recently a few of the remote sales users were going to a sales meeting and wanted to set their Out of Office... however in Outlook 2010, they get this error message: "Your automatic reply settings cannot be displayed because the server is currently unavailable" When I run the Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer, Autodiscover completes fine, but the next step fails: Exception details: Message: The request failed. The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden. Type: Microsoft.Exchange.WebServices.Data.ServiceRequestException Stack trace: at Microsoft.Exchange.WebServices.Data.ServiceRequestBase.GetEwsHttpWebResponse(IEwsHttpWebRequest request) at Microsoft.Exchange.WebServices.Data.MultiResponseServiceRequest`1.Execute() at Microsoft.Exchange.WebServices.Data.ExchangeService.BindToFolder[TFolder](FolderId folderId, PropertySet propertySet) at Microsoft.Exchange.Tools.ExRca.Tests.EnsureEmptyFolderTest.PerformTestReally() Exception details: Message: The remote server returned an error: (403) Forbidden. Type: System.Net.WebException Stack trace: at System.Net.HttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at Microsoft.Exchange.WebServices.Data.EwsHttpWebRequest.Microsoft.Exchange.WebServices.Data.IEwsHttpWebRequest.GetResponse() at Microsoft.Exchange.WebServices.Data.ServiceRequestBase.GetEwsHttpWebResponse(IEwsHttpWebRequest request) I've done some research, but I have yet to find a working fix for this... it seems like some permissions are messed up in IIS, but I haven't figured out what.

    Read the article

  • With PHP and AJAX, Can two clients inter-exchange data without MySQL?

    - by Devyn
    Hi, Let's assume I'm developing a AJAX, PHP chess game. During the game, one movement of a player will be notified to the another but we are not saving that information. Normally, we used to store in MySQL every time a player makes movement and show update position to another player. What I want is to reduce MySQL load as much as possible and server is not interested in movements between two players. Server will only save final result like who wins. So what should I do?

    Read the article

  • Avoid slowdowns while using off-site database

    - by Anders Holmström
    The basic layout of my problem is this: Website (ASP.NET/C#) hosted at a dedicated hosting company (location 1) Company database (SQL Server) with records of relevant data (location 2). Location 1 & 2 connected through VPN. Customer visiting the website and wanting to pull data from the company database. No possibility of changing the server locations or layout (i.e. moving the website to an in-office server isn't possible). What I want to do is figure out the best way to handle the data acces in this case, minimizing the need for time-expensive database calls over the VPN. The first idea I'm getting is this: When a user enters the section of the website needing the DB data, you pull all the needed tables from the database into a in-memory dataset. All subsequent views/updates to the data is done on this dataset. When the user leaves (logout, session timeout, browser closed etc) the dataset gets sent to the SQL server. I'm not sure if this is a realistic solution, and it obviously has some problems. If two web visitors are performing updates on the same data, the one finishing up last will have their changes overwriting the first ones. There's also no way of knowing you have the latest data (i.e. if a customer pulls som info on their projects and we update this info while they are viewing them, they won't see these changes PLUS the above overwriting issue will arise). The other solution would be to somehow aggregate database calls and make sure they only happen when you need them, e.g. during data updates but not during data views. But then again the longer a pause between these refreshing DB calls, the bigger a chance that the data view is out of date as per the problem described above. Any input on the above or some fresh ideas would be most welcome.

    Read the article

  • How can I store large amount of data from a database to XML (speed problem, part three)?

    - by Andrija
    After getting some responses, the current situation is that I'm using this tip: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/xml/library/x-tipbigdoc5.html (Listing 1. Turning ResultSets into XML), and XMLWriter for Java from http://www.megginson.com/downloads/ . Basically, it reads date from the database and writes them to a file as characters, using column names to create opening and closing tags. While doing so, I need to make two changes to the input stream, namely to the dates and numbers. // Iterate over the set while (rs.next()) { w.startElement("row"); for (int i = 0; i < count; i++) { Object ob = rs.getObject(i + 1); if (rs.wasNull()) { ob = null; } String colName = meta.getColumnLabel(i + 1); if (ob != null ) { if (ob instanceof Timestamp) { w.dataElement(colName, Util.formatDate((Timestamp)ob, dateFormat)); } else if (ob instanceof BigDecimal){ w.dataElement(colName, Util.transformToHTML(new Integer(((BigDecimal)ob).intValue()))); } else { w.dataElement(colName, ob.toString()); } } else { w.emptyElement(colName); } } w.endElement("row"); } The SQL that gets the results has the to_number command (e.g. to_number(sif.ID) ID ) and the to_date command (e.g. TO_DATE (sif.datum_do, 'DD.MM.RRRR') datum_do). The problems are that the returning date is a timestamp, meaning I don't get 14.02.2010 but rather 14.02.2010 00:00:000 so I have to format it to the dd.mm.yyyy format. The second problem are the numbers; for some reason, they are in database as varchar2 and can have leading zeroes that need to be stripped; I'm guessing I could do that in my SQL with the trim function so the Util.transformToHTML is unnecessary (for clarification, here's the method): public static String transformToHTML(Integer number) { String result = ""; try { result = number.toString(); } catch (Exception e) {} return result; } What I'd like to know is a) Can I get the date in the format I want and skip additional processing thus shortening the processing time? b) Is there a better way to do this? We're talking about XML files that are in the 50 MB - 250 MB filesize category.

    Read the article

  • Can I read Captcha data from JavaScript in a secure way ?

    - by Space Cracker
    We use Captcha control in a registration form that we make full client validation for all fields in JavaScript ( JQuery ) beside server validation .. I tried a lot of ways but all will write the Captcha value in JavaScript that can be accessed by anyone :( I search if is there any way that allow me validate Captcha value in client side using JQuery in secure way or it can't be done ?

    Read the article

  • How do I put my return data from an asmx into JSON?

    - by jphenow
    I want to return an array of javascript objects from my asp.net asmx file. ie. variable = [ { *value1*: 'value1', *value2*: 'value2', ..., }, { . . } ]; I seem have been having trouble reaching this. I'd put this into code but I've been hacking away at it so much it'd probably do more harm than good in having this answered. Basically I am using a web service to find names as people type the name. I'd use a regular text file or something but its a huge database that's always changing - and don't worry I've indexed the names so searching can be a little snappier - but I would really prefer to stick with this method and just figure out how to get usable JSON back to javascript. I've seen a few that sort of attempt to describe how one would approach this but I honestly think microsofts articles are damn near unreadable. Thanks in advance for assistance. EDIT: I'm using the $.ajax() function from jQuery - I've had it working but it seems like I was doing it in bad practice not returning and using actual JSON. Previously I'd take a string back and insert it into html to use the variable it set - very roundabout.

    Read the article

  • How do you share pre-calculated data between calls to a Rails web service?

    - by Nigel Thorne
    I have a Rails app that allows users to build up a network structure and then ask questions about how to navigate around it. When adding nodes and connections these are just saved to the database. At the point you make a query of the network I calculate the shortest path from any node to any other node. Constructing this in memory takes a while (something I need to fix), but once it is there, you can instantly get the answer to any of these path questions. The question is... How do I share this network between calls to the website, so each request doesn't regenerate the paths network each time? Note: I am hosting this on apache server using passenger (mod ruby) Thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Problem with accessing in DOM with jQuery

    - by Tristan
    Hello, I changed the tree of my JSON-P output, and i cannot access to my object DOM anymore : Here's my output : jsonp1271634374310( {"Inter-Medias": {"name":"Inter-Medias","idGSP":"14","average":"80","services":"8.86"} }); And here's my jQuery script : success: function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest){ widget = data.name; widget += data.average ; .... I know one level is missing, but if I try to do : data.Inter-Medias.name or data.name.name it's still not working. Any idea please ? I will have case where i'll have multiple Ojbect, so i want to display all of them, how to do that ? for (i=0;i < data.length;i++) Does it look right ? Bonus question : i understand function(data, textStatus, XMLHttpRequest) that in case of success this function is triggered, the data is what the script recieved from his request, but i have no idea what textStatus or XMLHttpRequest are here too and why ?! Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How can I bind dynamic data to DataGridTemplateColun in code?

    - by TuomoT
    I'm using DataGrid from CodePlex. I have objects (ICustomTypeDescriptor) that have properties 'name' 'description' 'c' 'd' and so on (the names are dynamic, and so is the value) and they have information behind them. I have templates for different types. And if I have to list the properties of a single element I can just bind to the values in xaml and use datatemplateselector (in datagridtemplatecolumn) which will pick the correct template. However, when I'm listing several of the elements, how can I use the selectors and the templates? How do I get the correct property bound to the template (two-way)? When ignoring the need for different templates, using DataGridTextColumn with bindings is very simple (and works, see example below), is there any way to use similar approach with the DataGridTemplateColumn? foreach (String propertyName in listOfPropertyNames) { DataGridTextColumn textColumn = new DataGridTextColumn() { Header = propertyName, Binding = new Binding() { Path = new PropertyPath(propertyName) } }; DataGrid.Columns.Add(textColumn); }

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553  | Next Page >