Search Results

Search found 33029 results on 1322 pages for 'access vba'.

Page 555/1322 | < Previous Page | 551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560 561 562  | Next Page >

  • Sending data back to Controller Spring-MVC

    - by Umesh Awasthi
    I am not sure if this is a complex problem but as a starting person this seems a bit complex to me. I have an object based on which i need to show some values on the UI and let user select some of them, i need to send data back to another controller when user click on the submit button.Here is the structure of my data object public class PrsData{ private Map<String, List<PrsCDData>> prsCDData; } public class PrsCDData{ private Map<String, Collection<ConfiguredDesignData>> configuredDesignData; } public ConfiguredDesignData{ // simple fields } I have set the object in model before showing the view like model.addAttribute("prsData", productData.getPrData()); In the form i have following settings <form:form method="post" commandName="prsData" action="${addProductToCartAction}" > <form:hidden path="prsCDData['${prsCDDataMap.key}'] [${status.index}].configuredDesignData['${configuredDesignDataMap.key}'] [${configuredDesignDataStatus.index}].code"/> <form:hidden path="prsCDData['${prsCDDataMap.key}'] [${status.index}].configuredDesignData['${configuredDesignDataMap.key}'] [${configuredDesignDataStatus.index}].description"/> </form:form> This is what i have at AddProductToCartController public String addToCart(@RequestParam("productCodePost") final String code, @ModelAttribute("prsData") final PrsData prsData, final Model model, @RequestParam(value = "qty", required = false, defaultValue = "1") final long qty) On submitting the form i am getting following exception org.springframework.beans.NullValueInNestedPathException: Invalid property 'prsCDData[Forced][0]' of bean class [com.product.data.PrsData]: Cannot access indexed value of property referenced in indexed property path 'prsCDData[Forced][0]': returned null It seems like its trying to access the values on this controller while i am trying to send value to that controller and trying to create same object with selected values Can any one tell me where i am doing wrong and what i need to take care of

    Read the article

  • Implicit linking vs. explicit linking of DLL in Delphi

    - by Tom
    I'm having trouble getting my dll to work when using explicit linking. Using implicit linking it works fine. Would someone google me a solution? :) No, just kidding, here's my code: This code works fine: function CountChars(_s: Pchar): integer; StdCall; external 'sample_dll.dll'; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); end; This code doesn't work (I get an access violation): procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var LibHandle: HMODULE; CountChars: function(_s: PChar): integer; begin LibHandle := LoadLibrary('sample_dll.dll'); ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); // Access violation FreeLibrary(LibHandle); end; This is the DLL code: library sample_dll; uses FastMM4, FastMM4Messages, SysUtils, Classes; {$R *.res} function CountChars(_s: PChar): integer; stdcall; begin Result := Length(_s); end; exports CountChars; begin end.

    Read the article

  • RegEx expression or jQuery selector to NOT match "external" links in href

    - by TrueBlueAussie
    I have a jQuery plugin that overrides link behavior, to allow Ajax loading of page content. Simple enough with a delegated event like $(document).on('click','a', function(){});. but I only want it to apply to links that are not like these ones (Ajax loading is not applicable to them, so links like these need to behave normally): target="_blank" // New browser window href="#..." // Bookmark link (page is already loaded). href="afs://..." // AFS file access. href="cid://..." // Content identifiers for MIME body part. href="file://..." // Specifies the address of a file from the locally accessible drive. href="ftp://..." // Uses Internet File Transfer Protocol (FTP) to retrieve a file. href="http://..." // The most commonly used access method. href="https://..." // Provide some level of security of transmission href="mailto://..." // Opens an email program. href="mid://..." // The message identifier for email. href="news://..." // Usenet newsgroup. href="x-exec://..." // Executable program. href="http://AnythingNotHere.com" // External links Sample code: $(document).on('click', 'a:not([target="_blank"])', function(){ var $this = $(this); if ('some additional check of href'){ // Do ajax load and stop default behaviour return false; } // allow link to work normally }); Q: Is there a way to easily detect all "local links" that would only navigate within the current website? excluding all the variations mentioned above. Note: This is for an MVC 5 Razor website, so absolute site URLs are unlikely to occur.

    Read the article

  • Getting setting cookies on different domains, with javascript or other

    - by Luca Matteis
    Haven't been able to find anything particular to this situation online so here i go... I need to set/get the cookies stored at "first.com" while browsing "second.com", I have full access of "first.com" but i only have javascript access (can manipulate the DOM as i want) on "second.com". My first approach was to create an iframe on second.com (with js) that loaded a page like "first.com/doAjax?setCookie=xxx" and that did an ajax call to say "first.com/setCookie?cookieData=xxx" which would set the cookie on "first.com" with the data we passed around. That pretty much worked fine for setting the cookie on first.com from second.com - for getting a cookie I basically followed the same procedure, created the iframe that loaded "first.com/doAjax?getCookie" and that would do an ajax call to say "first.com/getCookie" which would read the cookie info on first.com and return it as a JSON object. The problem is that I'm unable to bring that JSON cookie object back to "second.com" so I can read it, well maybe i could just bring it when the Ajax call is complete using "window.top" but there's timing issues because its not relative to when the iframe has been loaded. I hope i am clear and was wondering if there's an easier solution rather than this crazy iframe-ajax crap, also seems like this wont even work for getting cookies in SAFARI.

    Read the article

  • trouble calculating offset index into 3D array

    - by Derek
    Hello, I am writing a CUDA kernel to create a 3x3 covariance matrix for each location in the rows*cols main matrix. So that 3D matrix is rows*cols*9 in size, which i allocated in a single malloc accordingly. I need to access this in a single index value the 9 values of the 3x3 covariance matrix get their values set according to the appropriate row r and column c from some other 2D arrays. In other words - I need to calculate the appropriate index to access the 9 elements of the 3x3 covariance matrix, as well as the row and column offset of the 2D matrices that are inputs to the value, as well as the appropriate index for the storage array. i have tried to simplify it down to the following: //I am calling this kernel with 1D blocks who are 512 cols x 1row. TILE_WIDTH=512 int bx = blockIdx.x; int by = blockIdx.y; int tx = threadIdx.x; int ty = threadIdx.y; int r = by + ty; int c = bx*TILE_WIDTH + tx; int offset = r*cols+c; int ndx = r*cols*rows + c*cols; if((r < rows) && (c < cols)){ //this IF statement is trying to avoid the case where a threadblock went bigger than my original array..not sure if correct d_cov[ndx + 0] = otherArray[offset]; d_cov[ndx + 1] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 2] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 3] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 4] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 5] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 6] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 7] = otherArray[offset] d_cov[ndx + 8] = otherArray[offset] } When I check this array with the values calculated on the CPU, which loops over i=rows, j=cols, k = 1..9 The results do not match up. in other words d_cov[i*rows*cols + j*cols + k] != correctAnswer[i][j][k] Can anyone give me any tips on how to sovle this problem? Is it an indexing problem, or some other logic error?

    Read the article

  • How do you make use of the provider independency in the Entity Framework?

    - by Anders Svensson
    I'm trying to learn more about data access and the Entity Framework. My goal is to have a "provider independent" data access layer (to be able to switch easily e.g. from SQL Server to MySQL or vice versa), and since the EF is supposed to be provider independent it seems like a good way to go. But how do you use this provider independence? I mean, I was expecting to be able to sort of "program to an interface", and then just be able to switch database provider. But as far as I can tell I'm only getting a concrete type to program against, an "Entities" class, e.g. in my case it is: UserDBEntities _context = new UserDBEntities(); What I would have expected to be able to switch provider easily was to have an interface e.g. like IEntities _context = new UserDBEntities(); Sort of like I can do with datasets... But maybe that isn't how it works at all with EF? Or do you just switch provider in the connectionstring, and the model stays the same?? Please remember that I'm a complete newbie at this EF, and rather inexperienced with databases in general, so I would really appreciate if you could be as clear as possible :-)

    Read the article

  • Integrated Security on Reporting Services XML Datasource

    - by Nathan
    Hey all, I am working on setting up my report server to use a web service as an XML datasource. I seem to be having authentication issues between the web service and the report with I choose to use Integrated security. Here's what I have: 1) I have a website w/ an exposed service. This website is configured to run ONLY on Integrated Security. This means that we have all other modes turned off AND Enabled anonymous access turned off under directory security. 2) Within the Web.config of the website, I have the authentication mode set to Windows. 3) I have the report datasource set to being an XML data source. I have the correct URL to the service and have it set to Windows Integrated Security. Since I am making a hop from the Browser to the Reporting Server to the Web Service, I wonder if I am having an issue w/ Kerberos, but I am not sure. When I try to access the service, I get a 401 error. Here are the IIS logs that I am generating: 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 0 2011-01-07 14:52:12 W3SVC IP_ADDY POST /URL.asmx - 80 - IP_ADDY - 401 1 5 Has anyone worked out this issue before? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • C#: HTTPWebResponse using application/x-www-form-urlencoded

    - by CSharpened
    So I sent an HTTPWebRequest using application/x-www-form-urlencoded as my content type. I assume that this means the reponse will be returned in a similar type? (EDIT: Have now been told this isn't the case) My question is this. How do I access the different key/value pairs returned in the response. My code so far looks like this. I can of course read the string but surely there is a better way to access the data other than ripping the string apart. HttpWebResponse response = SendPOSTRequest("https://site/page?Service=foo", content.ToString(), "", "", true); string responseCode = response.StatusCode.ToString(); string responseStatusDescription = response.StatusDescription; StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()); string result = sr.ReadToEnd(); I tried using XML/linq to read the elements into an XDocument but of course it is not being returned in XML form. Assume I have 3 or 4 different pieces of information in there how could I read them out? EDIT: I have just checked and the data is being returned as text/plain. How can this be processed easily? EDIT: The response string once retrieved via a streamreader is: VPSProtocol=2.23 Status=OK StatusDetail=Server transaction registered successfully. VPSTxId={FDC93F3D-FC64-400D-875F-0B7E855AD81F} SecurityKey=***** NextURL=https://foo.com/PaymentPage.asp?TransactionID={875F-0B7E855AD81F}

    Read the article

  • Using boost::iterator_adaptor

    - by Neil G
    I wrote a sparse vector class (see #1, #2.) I would like to provide two kinds of iterators: The first set, the regular iterators, can point any element, whether set or unset. If they are read from, they return either the set value or value_type(), if they are written to, they create the element and return the lvalue reference. Thus, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable Iterator The second set, the sparse iterators, iterate over only the set elements. Since they don't need to lazily create elements that are written to, they are: Random Access Traversal Iterator and Readable and Writable and Lvalue Iterator I also need const versions of both, which are not writable. I can fill in the blanks, but not sure how to use boost::iterator_adaptor to start out. Here's what I have so far: class iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< iterator // Derived , value_type* // Base , boost::use_default // Value , boost::?????? // CategoryOrTraversal > class sparse_iterator : public boost::iterator_adaptor< iterator // Derived , value_type* // Base , boost::use_default // Value , boost::random_access_traversal_tag? // CategoryOrTraversal >

    Read the article

  • Expose webservice directly to webclients or keep a thin server-side script layer in between?

    - by max
    Hi, I'm developing a REST webservice (Java, Jersey). The people I'm doing this for want to directly access the webservice via Javascript. Some instinct tells me this is not a good idea, but I cannot really explain that instinct. My natural approach would have been to have the webservice do the real logic and database access, but also have some (relatively thin) server-side script layer (e.g. in PHP). Clients would talk to the PHP layer which in turn would talk to the webservice. (The webservice would be pretty local to the apache/PHP server and implicitly trust calls from the script layer. The script layer would take care of session management.) (Btw, I am not talking about just hiding the webservice behind an Apache which simply redirects calls.) But as I find myself at a lack of words/arguments to explain my instinct, I wonder whether my instinct is right - note that while I have been developing all kinds of software in all kinds of languages and frameworks for like 17 years, this is the first time I develop a webservice. So my question is basically: what are your opinions? Are there any standard setups? Is my instinct totally wrong? Or partially? ;P Many thanks, Max PS: I might add a few bits of information about the planned usage of the whole application: will be accessed by different kinds of users, partly general public, partly privileged thus, all major OS/browser combinations can be expected as clients however, writing the client is not my responsibility will potentially have very high load/traffic logic of webservice will later be massively expanded for another product which is basically a superset of the functionality of the current project there is a significant likelihood that at some point an API should be exposed which can be used by 3rd party developers - obviously, with some restrictions at some point, the public view of the product should become accessible via smartphones, too (in other words, maybe a customized version of the site to adapt to the smaller display and different input methods)

    Read the article

  • How to create a separate thread to do some operation periodically and update UI in WPF?I'm stack

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts! I'm trying to do a periodic separated thread operation let's say check for internet connection or check for user's info via web service and update the user interface. i've tried with quartz.net to implement that.So i created an inner class for the window i need to update.That inner class does what is meant for but the problem is that i don't know how to access parent's(window class) members form the child(inner class). for example public partial class Window2 : Window { private int i; public Window2() { InitializeComponent(); } public string doMyOperation() { //code here return result; } public class Myclass :IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { string result = doMyOperation(); //Now here i could be able to call a label of name lblNotif //lblNotif.Content = result; } } } Well the whole idea works but i'm stacked at here i need to access a controls of Window2 Since i'm stacked i tried Spring.Net way of implementing Quartz hoping that i could use MethodInvokingJobDetailFactoryObject and rather have the Operation done on Window2 itself.But for some reason i'm having an exception Cannot resolve type [System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows];, could not load type from string value System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows and the wiring is done so <object name="UpdateLabelJob" type="System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows"/> What i'm i doing wrong here?Is that a way round? thanks for reading and for helping out

    Read the article

  • Do I need to using locking against integers in c++ threads

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    The title says it all really. If I am accessing a single integer type (e.g. long, int, bool, etc...) in multiple threads, do I need to use a synchronisation mechanism such as a mutex to lock them. My understanding is that as atomic types, I don't need to lock access to a single thread, but I see a lot of code out there that does use locking. Profiling such code shows that there is a significant performance hit for using locks, so I'd rather not. So if the item I'm accessing corresponds to a bus width integer (e.g. 4 bytes on a 32 bit processor) do I need to lock access to it when it is being used across multiple threads? Put another way, if thread A is writing to integer variable X at the same time as thread B is reading from the same variable, is it possible that thread B could end up a few bytes of the previous value mixed in with a few bytes of the value being written? Is this architecture dependent, e.g. ok for 4 byte integers on 32 bit systems but unsafe on 8 byte integers on 64 bit systems? Edit: Just saw this related post which helps a fair bit.

    Read the article

  • including pre-built java classes into an android project

    - by moonlightcheese
    i'm trying to include a maven java project into my android project. the maven project is the greader-unofficial project which allows developers access to google reader accounts, and handles all of the http transactions and URI/URL building, making grabbing feeds and items from google reader transparent to the developer. the project is available here: http://code.google.com/p/greader-unofficial/ the code is originally written for the standard jdk and uses classes from java.net that are not a part of the standard Android SDK. i actually tried to manually resolve all dependencies and ran into a problem when i got as far as including com.sun.syndication pieces required by the class be.lechtitseb.google.reader.api.util.AtomUtil.java... some of the classes in java.net that are in the standard jdk (i'm using 1.6) are not in the Android SDK. in addition, resolving all of these dependencies manually is just ridiculous when i'm compiling a maven project that should be pretty simple. however, i can use maven to compile the sources with no issue. how can i include this maven project, which is dependent on the complete jdk, into my android project in such a way that it will compile so that i can access the GoogleReader class from my android project? and for the record, i don't have the expertise to rewrite this entire api to work with the standard Android SDK.

    Read the article

  • Rails 3 HABTM Strange Association: Project and Employee in a tree.

    - by Mauricio
    Hi guys I have to adapt an existing model to a new relation. I have this: A Project has many Employees. the Employees of a Project are organized in some kind of hierarchy (nothing fancy, I resolved this adding a parent_id for each employee to build the 'tree') class Employee < AR:Base belongs_to :project belongs_to :parent, :class_name => 'Employee' has_many :childs, :class_name => 'Employee', :foreign_column => 'parent_id' end class Project < AR:Base has_many :employees, end That worked like a charm, now the new requirement is: The Employees can belong to many Projects at the same time, and the hierarchy will be different according to the project. So I though I will need a new table to build the HABTM, and a new class to access the parent_id to build the tree. Something like class ProjectEmployee < AR:Base belongs_to :project belongs_to :employee belongs_to :parent, :class_name => 'Employee' # <--- ?????? end class Project < AR:Base has_many :project_employee has_many :employees, :through => :project_employee end class Employee < AR:Base has_many :project_employee has_many :projects, :through => :project_employee end How can I access the parent and the childs of an employee for a given project? I need to add and remove childs as wish from the employees of a project. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

    Read the article

  • multiple models in Rails with a shared interface

    - by dfondente
    I'm not sure of the best structure for a particular situation in Rails. We have several types of workshops. The administration of the workshops is the same regardless of workshop type, so the data for the workshops is in a single model. We collect feedback from participants about the workshops, and the questionnaire is different for each type of workshop. I want to access the feedback about the workshop from the workshop model, but the class of the associated model will depend on the type of workshop. If I was doing this in something other than Rails, I would set up an abstract class for WorkshopFeedback, and then have subclasses for each type of workshop: WorkshopFeedbackOne, WorkshopFeedbackTwo, WorkshopFeedbackThree. I'm unsure how to best handle this with Rails. I currently have: class Workshop < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :workshop_feedbacks end class Feedback < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :workshop has_many :feedback_ones has_many :feedback_twos has_many :feedback_threes end class FeedbackOne < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :feedback end class FeedbackTwo < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :feedback end class FeedbackThree < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :feedback end This doesn't seem like to the cleanest way to access the feedback from the workshop model, as accessing the correct feedback will require logic investigating the Workshop type and then choosing, for instance, @workshop.feedback.feedback_one. Is there a better way to handle this situation? Would it be better to use a polymorphic association for feedback? Or maybe using a Module or Mixin for the shared Feedback interface? Note: I am avoiding using Single Table Inheritance here because the FeedbackOne, FeedbackTwo, FeedbackThree models do not share much common data, so I would end up with a large sparsely populated table with STI.

    Read the article

  • how do you authenticate a user between two services, if they are both using a common third-party oauth service?

    - by urandom
    I'm currently experimenting with oauth logins on a website, using google oauth2. While I set that up without too many problems, I saw that there isn't some kind of permanent token, which only google and the authorized service know about a user. Also, from what I gathered, if I were to create a companion app on android, the preferred way is to go with AccountManager, which seems to handle giving oauth2 access tokens for google accounts. But if I authenticate myself from the anroid app using a google account, how do I now link that user to the same one in the web app? One way I think this can be done if the user also logs into the web app as well, so that the server receives a fresh access token, and the android and web one are compared. But that seems like a huge hassle, and I haven't seen many other apps do that. Another is to use a refresh token on the server, but that would require extra permissions which might put off any potential visitors. So what is the general workflow for achieving this? Or am I thinking the wrong way?

    Read the article

  • Writing my own implementation of stl-like Iterator in C++.

    - by Negai
    Good evening everybody, I'm currently trying to understand the intrinsics of iterators in various languages i.e. the way they are implemented. For example, there is the following class exposing the list interface. template<class T> class List { public: virtual void Insert( int beforeIndex, const T item ) throw( ListException ) =0 ; virtual void Append( const T item ) =0; virtual T Get( int position ) const throw( ListException ) =0; virtual int GetLength() const =0; virtual void Remove( int position ) throw( ListException ) =0; virtual ~List() =0 {}; }; According to GoF, the best way to implement an iterator that can support different kinds of traversal is to create the base Iterator class (friend of List) with protected methods that can access List's members. The concrete implementations of Iterator will handle the job in different ways and access List's private and protected data through the base interface. From here forth things are getting confusing. Say, I have class LinkedList and ArrayList, both derived from List, and there are also corresponding iterators, each of the classes returns. How can I implement LinkedListIterator? I'm absolutely out of ideas. And what kind of data can the base iterator class retrieve from the List (which is a mere interface, while the implementations of all the derived classes differ significantly) ? Sorry for so much clutter. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Problem accessing private variables in jQuery like chainable design pattern

    - by novogeek
    Hi folks, I'm trying to create my custom toolbox which imitates jQuery's design pattern. Basically, the idea is somewhat derived from this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2061501/jquery-plugin-design-pattern-common-practice-for-dealing-with-private-function (Check the answer given by "David"). So here is my toolbox function: (function(window){ var mySpace=function(){ return new PrivateSpace(); } var PrivateSpace=function(){ var testCache={}; }; PrivateSpace.prototype={ init:function(){ console.log('init this:', this); return this; }, ajax:function(){ console.log('make ajax calls here'); return this; }, cache:function(key,selector){ console.log('cache selectors here'); testCache[key]=selector; console.log('cached selector: ',testCache); return this; } } window.hmis=window.m$=mySpace(); })(window) Now, if I execute this function like: console.log(m$.cache('firstname','#FirstNameTextbox')); I get an error 'testCache' is not defined. I'm not able to access the variable "testCache" inside my cache function of the prototype. How should I access it? Basically, what I want to do is, I want to cache all my jQuery selectors into an object and use this object in the future.

    Read the article

  • Security strategies for storing password on disk

    - by Mike
    I am building a suite of batch jobs that require regular access to a database, running on a Solaris 10 machine. Because of (unchangable) design constraints, we are required use a certain program to connect to it. Said interface requires us to pass a plain-text password over a command line to connect to the database. This is a terrible security practice, but we are stuck with it. I am trying to make sure things are properly secured on our end. Since the processing is automated (ie, we can't prompt for a password), and I can't store anything outside the disk, I need a strategy for storing our password securely. Here are some basic rules The system has multiple users. We can assume that our permissions are properly enforced (ie, if a file with a is chmod'd to 600, it won't be publically readable) I don't mind anyone with superuser access looking at our stored password Here is what i've got so far Store password in password.txt $chmod 600 password.txt Process reads from password.txt when it's needed Buffer overwritten with zeros when it's no longer needed Although I'm sure there is a better way.

    Read the article

  • Writing to a file in a servlet

    - by ankur verma
    I am working in a servlet and has this code : public void doPost(blah blah){ response.setContentType("text/html"); String datasent = request.getParameter("dataSent"); System.out.println(datasent); try{ FileWriter writer = new FileWriter("C:/xyz.txt"); writer.write("hello"); System.out.println("I wrote"); }catch(Exception ex){ ex.printStackTrace(); } response.getWriter().write("I am from server"); } But everytime it is throwing an error saying Access Denied.. Even when there is no lock on that file and there is no file whose name is C:/xyz.txt what should I do? ;( java.io.FileNotFoundException: C:\xyz.txt (Access is denied) at java.io.FileOutputStream.open(Native Method) at java.io.FileOutputStream.<init>(FileOutputStream.java:212) at java.io.FileOutputStream.<init>(FileOutputStream.java:104) at java.io.FileWriter.<init>(FileWriter.java:63) at test.TestServlet.doPost(TestServlet.java:49) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:641) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:722) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:306) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:210) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:240) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:161) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:164) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:108) at org.apache.catalina.valves.AccessLogValve.invoke(AccessLogValve.java:558) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:118) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:379) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:243) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:259) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:237) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$SocketProcessor.run(JIoEndpoint.java:281) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1110) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:603) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:722)

    Read the article

  • Calling base Text method on custom TextBox

    - by The Demigeek
    I'm trying to create a CurrencyTextBox that inherits from TextBox. I'm seeing some really weird behavior that I just don't understand. After lots of testing, I think I can summarize as follows: In the class code, when I access base.Text (to get the textbox's text), I'm actually getting the return value of my overridden Text property. I thought the base keyword would ensure that the underlying object's methods get called. To demonstrate: public class cTestTextBox : System.Windows.Forms.TextBox { string strText = ""; public cTestTextBox() { SetVal("AAA"); base.Text = "TEST"; } public override string Text { get { string s = strText; s = "++" + s + "++"; return s; } } public void SetVal(string val) { strText = val; } } Place this control on a form and set a breakpoint on the constructor. Run the app. Hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltip shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. Execute the SetVal() statement and again hover your mouse over the base.Text expression. Note that the tooltop shows you the value of the overridden property, not the base property. How do I reliably access the Text property of the textbox from which I'm inheriting?

    Read the article

  • Retrieving my own data via FaceBook API

    - by goggin13
    I am building a website for a comedy group which uses Facebook as one of their marketing platforms; one of the requirements for the new site is to display all of their Facebook events on a calendar. Currently, I am just trying to put together a Python script which can pull some data from my own Facebook account, like a list of all my friends. I presume once I can accomplish this I can move to pulling more complicated data out of my clients account (since they have given me access to their account). I have looked at many of the posts here, and also went through the Facebook API documentation, including Facebook Connect, but am really beating my head against the wall. Everything I have read seems like overkill, as it involves setting up a good deal of infrastructure to allow my app to set up connections to any arbitrary user's account (who authorizes me). Shouldn't it be much simpler, given I only ever need to access 1 account? I cannot find a way to retrieve data without having to display the Facebook login window. I have a script which will retrieve all my friends, but it includes a redirect where I have to physically log myself in to Facebook. Would appreciate any advice or links, I just feel like I must be missing something simple. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Rails: How to name and create unique divs within a loop?

    - by sscirrus
    I have a view with a div that is looped many times. Each of the created divs need to have a unique ID so I can access them specifically (at the moment, all my divs have the same ID specified in html so whenever I try to access a specific div it just finds the first one). This is the version that I currently have (multiple 'rowBox'es are not discernible). <% @customers.each do |customer| %> <div id="customer" class="rowBox"> ... </div> <% end %> I would like to be able to do something like: <% @customers.each do |customer| %> <div id="box<%=customer.id%>"> ... </div> <% end %> This doesn't seem to work. Any ideas on how to accomplish this?

    Read the article

  • Cannot open database requested by the login. The login failed. Login failed for user

    - by Cipher
    Hi, I have copied a DB from one my computers and using it here. On trying to open the page which requires the fetching content from DB, on con.open I am getting this exception: Unable to open the physical file "E:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQLEXPRESS\MSSQL\DATA\cakephp.mdf". Operating system error 32: "32(The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process.)". Unable to open the physical file "E:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL10.SQLEXPRESS\MSSQL\DATA\cakephp_log.LDF". Operating system error 32: "32(The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process.)". Cannot open database "cakephp" requested by the login. The login failed. Login failed for user 'Sarin-PC\Sarin'. I have attached the database from Management Studio Express 2008 and I have also checcked the connection string. Here it is: <connectionStrings> <add name="cn" connectionString="server=.\sqlexpress;database=cakephp;integrated security=true;uid=sarin;pwd=******"/> </connectionStrings> In Visual Studio, when I test the connection, it says "Test connection succeeded". However, there is one strange thing going on. When I login to the Management Studio, there is no + sign with the newly attached database, as shown. If the full WebConfig is reqiured to be seen, I have pasted it here: http://pastebin.com/sVAuN0Ug

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 551 552 553 554 555 556 557 558 559 560 561 562  | Next Page >