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  • Customize a WCF RIA Services Endpoint

    - by Andrew Garrison
    Is it possible to customize the parameters of a WCF RIA Services endpoint? Specifically, I would like to create a custom binding for the endpoint and increase the maxReceivedMessageSize to allow sending the contents of a file that is a few megabytes in size. I've tried meddling in the web.config, but I'm getting the following error: [InvalidOperationException]: The contract name MyNamespace.MyService could not be found in the list of contracts implemented by the service MyNamespace.MyService web.config <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="CustomBinaryHttpBinding"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" /> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <services> <service name="MyNamespace.MyService"> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="MyNamespace.MyService" /> <endpoint address="/binary" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="CustomBinaryHttpBinding" contract="MyNamespace.MyService" /> </service> </services> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" multipleSiteBindingsEnabled="true" /> </system.serviceModel>

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  • event flow in action script 3

    - by Shay
    i try to dispatch a custom event from some component on the stage and i register other component to listen to it but the other component doesn't get the event here is my code what do i miss public class Main extends MovieClip //main document class { var compSource:Game; var compMenu:Menu; public function Main() { compSource = new Game; compMenu = new Menu(); var mc:MovieClip = new MovieClip(); addChild(mc); mc.addChild(compSource); // the source of the event - event dispatch when clicked btn mc.addChild(compMenu); //in init of that Movie clip it add listener to the compSource events } } public class Game extends MovieClip { public function Game() { btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, onFinishGame); } private function onFinishGame(e:MouseEvent):void { var score:Number = Math.random() * 100 + 1; dispatchEvent(new ScoreChanged(score)); } } public class Menu extends MovieClip { //TextField score public function Menu() { addEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); } private function init(e:Event):void { removeEventListener(Event.ADDED_TO_STAGE, init); //on init add listener to event ScoreChanged addEventListener(ScoreChanged.SCORE_GAIN, updateScore); } public function updateScore(e:ScoreChanged):void { //it never gets here! tScore.text = String(e._score); } } public class ScoreChanged extends Event { public static const SCORE_GAIN:String = "SCORE_GAIN"; public var _score:Number; public function ScoreChanged( score:Number ) { trace("new score"); super( SCORE_GAIN, true); _score = score; } } I don't want to write in Main compSource.addEventListener(ScoreChanged.SCORE_GAIN, compMenu.updateScore); cause i dont want the the compSource will need to know about compMenu its compMenu responsibility to know to what events it needs to listen.... any suggestions? Thanks!

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  • Django server side AJAX validation

    - by MMRUser
    Hi, Recently I'm trying to implement a simple Django application that include one server side AJAX validation, it's a simple form input field (username). I have used a pre-built in line AJAX validation library which uses jQuery. So the code goes like this HTML snippet <form id="simpleform" method="post" action="/done/"> Username:<input value="" class="validate[required,custom[noSpecialCaracters],length[0,20],ajax[ajaxUser]]" type="text" name="user" id="user" /> <input class="submit" type="submit" value="Validate"/> </form> The server side code snippet (embedded in to a php script) /* RECEIVE VALUE */ $validateValue=$_POST['validateValue']; $validateId=$_POST['validateId']; $validateError=$_POST['validateError']; /* RETURN VALUE */ $arrayToJs = array(); $arrayToJs[0] = $validateId; $arrayToJs[1] = $validateError; if($validateValue =="testname"){ // validate?? $arrayToJs[2] = "true"; // RETURN TRUE echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH success }else{ for($x=0;$x<1000000;$x++){ if($x == 990000){ $arrayToJs[2] = "false"; echo '{"jsonValidateReturn":'.json_encode($arrayToJs).'}'; // RETURN ARRAY WITH ERROR } } } So my question is that how do I get this in to Python code (in order to use in Django environment) how do I get the user name from the input field in to the back end,I think the server side script snippet already does it but I want to know how to use this in my Pyhon code,and this is my first time using jQuery and I do need to use this same exact validation library. Your valuable corporation is needed. Thanks.

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  • Iphone CATextLayer doesn't show it's text.

    - by lovecactus
    Here is my new bee issue: I was simply trying to add a CATextlayer in an UIView layer. However, according to the following code, I only get the CATextlayer's background color be displayed in the UIView, without any text. Just wonder what did I missed to display the text. Could anyone ofter a hint/sample how to use CATextlayer? Thanks. (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if ((self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil])) { // Custom initialization CATextLayer *TextLayer = [CATextLayer layer]; TextLayer.bounds = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f); TextLayer.string = @"Test"; TextLayer.font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:18].fontName; TextLayer.backgroundColor = [UIColor whiteColor].CGColor; TextLayer.wrapped = NO; //TextLayer.backgroundColor = [UIColor blueColor]; self.view = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 100.0f, 100.0f)]; self.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor blueColor]; [self.view.layer addSublayer:TextLayer]; [self.view.layer layoutSublayers]; } return self; }

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  • Yet Another crosdomain.xml question or: "How to interpret documentation correctly"

    - by cboese
    Hi! I have read a lot about the new policy-policy of flash player and also know the master policy file. Now image the following situation: There are two servers with services (http) running at custom ports servera.com:2222/websiteA serverb.com:3333/websiteB Now I open a swf from server a (eg. servera.com:2222/websiteA/A.swf) that wants to access the service of serverb. Of course I need a crossdomain.xml at the right place and there are multiple variations possible. I dont want to use a master policy file, as I might not have control over the root of both servers. One solution I found works with the following crossdomain: <?xml version="1.0"?> <cross-domain-policy> <allow-access-from domain="*"/> </cross-domain-policy> served at serverb.com:3333/websiteB/crossdomain.xml So now for my question: Is it possible to get rid of the "*" and use a proper (not as general as *) domainname in the allow-access-from rule? All my attempts failed, and from what I understand it should be possible.

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  • Unhandled exception when DataTemplate created dynamically using Silverlight 3.0

    - by user333397
    Requirement is to create a reusable multi-select combobox custom control. To accomplish this, I am creating the DataTemplate dynamically through code and set the combobox ItemTemplate. I am able to load the datatemplate dynamically and set the ItemTemplate, but getting unhandled exception (code: 7054) when we select the combobox. Here is the code Class MultiSelCombBox: ComboBox { public override void OnApplyTemplate() { base.OnApplyTemplate(); CreateTemplate(); } void CreateTemplate() { DataTemplate dt = null; if (CreateItemTemplate) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(CheckBoxBind)) { dt = XamlReader.Load(@"<DataTemplate xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""DropDownTemplate""><Grid xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""CheckboxGrid""><TextBox xmlns='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation' xmlns:x='http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml' x:Name=""test"" xml:space=""preserve"" Text='{Binding " + TextContent + "}'/></Grid></DataTemplate>") as DataTemplate; this.ItemTemplate = dt; } } } //Other code goes here }} what am i doing wrong? suggestion?

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  • How to pass binary data between two apps using Content Provider?

    - by Viktor
    I need to pass some binary data between two android apps using Content Provider (sharedUserId is not an option). I would prefer not to pass the data (a savegame stored as a file, small in size < 20k) as a file (ie. overriding openFile()) since this would necessitate some complicated temp-file scheme to cope with concurrency with several content provider accesses and a running game. I would like to read the file into memory under a mutex lock and then pass the binary array in the simplest way possible. How do I do this? It seems creating a file in memory is not a possibility due to the return type of openFile(). query() needs to return a Cursor. Using MatrixCursor is not possible since it applies toString() to all stored objects when reading it. What do I need to do? Implement a custom Cursor? This class has 30 abstract methods. Do I read the file, put it in a SQLite db and return the cursor? The complexity of this seemingly simple task is mindboggling.

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  • Possible to Inspect Innards of Core C# Functionality

    - by Nick Babcock
    I was struck today, with the inclination to compare the innards of Buffer.BlockCopy and Array.CopyTo. I am curious to see if Array.CopyTo called Buffer.BlockCopy behind the scenes. There is no practical purpose behind this, I just want to further my understanding of the C# language and how it is implemented. Don't jump the gun and accuse me of micro-optimization, but you can accuse me of being curious! When I ran ILasm on mscorlib.dll I received this for Array.CopyTo .method public hidebysig newslot virtual final instance void CopyTo(class System.Array 'array', int32 index) cil managed { // Code size 0 (0x0) } // end of method Array::CopyTo and this for Buffer.BlockCopy .method public hidebysig static void BlockCopy(class System.Array src, int32 srcOffset, class System.Array dst, int32 dstOffset, int32 count) cil managed internalcall { .custom instance void System.Security.SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) } // end of method Buffer::BlockCopy Which, frankly, baffles me. I've never run ILasm on a dll/exe I didn't create. Does this mean that I won't be able to see how these functions are implemented? Searching around only revealed a stackoverflow question, which Marc Gravell said [Buffer.BlockCopy] is basically a wrapper over a raw mem-copy While insightful, it doesn't answer my question if Array.CopyTo calls Buffer.BlockCopy. I'm specifically interested in if I'm able to see how these two functions are implemented, and if I had future questions about the internals of C#, if it is possible for me to investigate it. Or am I out of luck?

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  • How Can I Find Out *HOW* My Site Was Hacked? How Do I Find Site Vulnerabilities?

    - by Imageree
    One of my custom developed ASP.NET sites was hacked today: "Hacked By Swan (Please Stop Wars !.. )" It is using ASP.NET and SQL Server 2005 and IIS 6.0 and Windows 2003 server. I am not using Ajax and I think I am using stored procedures everywhere I am connecting to the database so I dont think it is SQL injection. I have now removed the write permission on the folders. How can I find out what they did to hack the site and what to do to prevent it from happening again? The server is up to date with all Windows updates. What they have done is uploading 6 files (index.asp, index.html, index.htm,...) to the main directory for the website. What log files should I upload? I have log files for IIS from this folder: c:\winnt\system32\LogFiles\W3SVC1. I am willing to show it to some of you but don't think it is good to post on the Internet. Anyone willing to take a look at it? I have already searched on Google but the only thing I find there are other sites that have been hacked - I haven't been able to see any discussion about it. I know this is not strictly related to programming but this is still an important thing for programmers and a lot of programmers have been hacked like this.

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  • Why can't I initialize a class through a setter?

    - by Rob emenaker
    If I have a custom class called Tires: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface Tires : NSObject { @private NSString *brand; int size; } @property (nonatomic,copy) NSString *brand; @property int size; - (id)init; - (void)dealloc; @end ============================================= #import "Tires.h" @implementation Tires @synthesize brand, size; - (id)init { if (self = [super init]) { [self setBrand:[[NSString alloc] initWithString:@""]]; [self setSize:0]; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; [brand release]; } @end And I synthesize a setter and getter in my View Controller: #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> #import "Tires.h" @interface testViewController : UIViewController { Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; } @property (nonatomic,copy) Tires *frontLeft, *frontRight, *backleft, *backRight; @end ==================================== #import "testViewController.h" @implementation testViewController @synthesize frontLeft, frontRight, backleft, backRight; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]]; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end It dies after [self setFrontLeft:[[Tires alloc] init]] comes back. It compiles just fine and when I run the debugger it actually gets all the way through the init method on Tires, but once it comes back it just dies and the view never appears. However if I change the viewDidLoad method to: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; frontLeft = [[Tires alloc] init]; } It works just fine. I could just ditch the setter and access the frontLeft variable directly, but I was under the impression I should use setters and getters as much as possible and logically it seems like the setFrontLeft method should work. This brings up an additional question that my coworkers keep asking in these regards (we are all new to Objective-C); why use a setter and getter at all if you are in the same class as those setters and getters.

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  • Resolving Circular References for Objects Implementing ISerializable

    - by Chris
    I'm writing my own IFormatter implementation and I cannot think of a way to resolve circular references between two types that both implement ISerializable. Here's the usual pattern: [Serializable] class Foo : ISerializable { private Bar m_bar; public Foo(Bar bar) { m_bar = bar; m_bar.Foo = this; } public Bar Bar { get { return m_bar; } } protected Foo(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_bar = (Bar)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Bar)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_bar); } } [Serializable] class Bar : ISerializable { private Foo m_foo; public Foo Foo { get { return m_foo; } set { m_foo = value; } } public Bar() { } protected Bar(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { m_foo = (Foo)info.GetValue("1", typeof(Foo)); } public void GetObjectData(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { info.AddValue("1", m_foo); } } I then do this: Bar b = new Bar(); Foo f = new Foo(b); bool equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); // true // Serialise and deserialise b equal = ReferenceEquals(b, b.Foo.Bar); If I use an out-of-the-box BinaryFormatter to serialise and deserialise b, the above test for reference-equality returns true as one would expect. But I cannot conceive of a way to achieve this in my custom IFormatter. In a non-ISerializable situation I can simply revisit "pending" object fields using reflection once the target references have been resolved. But for objects implementing ISerializable it is not possible to inject new data using SerializationInfo. Can anyone point me in the right direction?

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  • Facebox with other jquery in it

    - by dakemz
    So I have facebox setup and it works. when I load an external page with a tab based navigation (JQuery too) the modal works but the nav doesnt. If it isnt clear I actually want the tabs to be inside the lightbox. And I also have php/mysql running inside the lightbox if that can change anything. Thanks for any help. <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ $('#tabs').tabs(); }); </script> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Informations</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Factures en attente</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-3">Marché en cours</a></li> </ul>

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  • moving audio over a local network using GStreamer

    - by James Turner
    I need to move realtime audio between two Linux machines, which are both running custom software (of mine) which builds on top of Gstreamer. (The software already has other communication between the machines, over a separate TCP-based protocol - I mention this in case having reliable out-of-band data makes a difference to the solution). The audio input will be a microphone / line-in on the sending machine, and normal audio output as the sink on the destination; alsasrc and alsasink are the most likely, though for testing I have been using the audiotestsrc instead of a real microphone. GStreamer offers a multitude of ways to move data round over networks - RTP, RTSP, GDP payloading, UDP and TCP servers, clients and sockets, and so on. There's also many examples on the web of streaming both audio and video - but none of them seem to work for me, in practice; either the destination pipeline fails to negotiate caps, or I hear a single packet and then the pipeline stalls, or the destination pipeline bails out immediately with no data available. In all cases, I'm testing on the command-line just gst-launch. No compression of the audio data is required - raw audio, or trivial WAV, uLaw or aLaw encoding is fine; what's more important is low-ish latency.

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  • Unregistering COM dll with a C# Setup Project

    - by lb
    Hi All. I've been stuck on this one for a while. I'll try explain in the simplest terms and at the best of my knowledge. I will honour any help. I've got a C# project which uses a VB6 compiled ActiveX DLL that I'm constantly updating. I compile the setup project, send it to the client and they run the setup. When building the updated setup project, I would increase the 'Version' of the setup project so it wouldn't bother with 'Another version is already installed'. What started happening after a few updates I began to notice the DLL would not be updated to the new version in the installer. The client computer had the original DLL both installed and registered. First symptom: method not found exceptions from the client C# code. This is not a shared DLL and only this application needs it. I've noticed that when uninstalling the application (through the usual procedure) the DLL is also not removed from the application folder although I would set this file's property 'Permanent' to false. The registration entries in the registry are mantained also. I do update in VS6.0 the version of the DLL (usually increase the build number) before building it. Then in VS2008, I remove it from the References, and add it again from the 'Browse tab', without re-registering it on my dev machine and adding it from the COM tab. I've thought of these options. Custom step in Setup project to regsvr32.exe /u 'hardcoded path of my dll' at uninstall (ugly) Somehow find out how the 'Isolate' property can work for me without registering Find out how to execute setup project 'Conditions' that would actually check the version of the library and to update the file accordingly at every install) Any help would be incredibly welcome.

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  • How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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  • Getting a "No default module defined for this application" exception while running controller unit t

    - by Doron
    I have an application with the default directory structure, for an application without custom modules (see structure figure at the end). I have written a ControllerTestCase.php file as instructed in many tutorials, and I've created the appropriate bootstrap file as well (once again, see figures at the end). I've written some model tests which run just fine, but when I started writing the index controller test file, with only one test in it, with only one line in it ("$this-dispatch('/');"), I'm getting the following exception when running phpunit (but navigating with the browser to the same location - all is good and working): 1) IndexControllerTest::test_indexAction_noParams Zend_Controller_Exception: No default module defined for this application Why is this ? What have I done wrong ? Appendixes: Directory structure: -proj/ -application/ -controllers/ -IndexController.php -ErrorController.php -config/ -layouts/ -models/ -views/ -helpers/ -scripts/ -error/ -error.phtml -index/ -index.phtml -Bootstrap.php -library/ -tests/ -application/ -controllers/ -IndexControllerTest.php -models/ -bootstrap.php -ControllerTestCase.php -library/ -phpunit.xml -public/ -index.php (Basically I have some more files in the models directory, but that's not relevant to this question.) application.ini file: [production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 0 phpSettings.display_errors = 0 includePaths.library = APPLICATION_PATH "/../library" bootstrap.path = APPLICATION_PATH "/Bootstrap.php" bootstrap.class = "Bootstrap" appnamespace = "My" resources.frontController.controllerDirectory = APPLICATION_PATH "/controllers" resources.frontController.params.displayExceptions = 0 resources.layout.layoutPath = APPLICATION_PATH "/layouts/scripts/" resources.view[] = phpSettings.date.timezone = "America/Los_Angeles" [staging : production] [testing : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 [development : production] phpSettings.display_startup_errors = 1 phpSettings.display_errors = 1 resources.frontController.params.displayExceptions = 1 tests/application/bootstrap.php file <?php error_reporting(E_ALL); // Define path to application directory defined('APPLICATION_PATH') || define('APPLICATION_PATH', realpath(dirname(__FILE__) . '/../../application')); // Define application environment defined('APPLICATION_ENV') || define('APPLICATION_ENV', (getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') ? getenv('APPLICATION_ENV') : 'testing')); // Ensure library/ is on include_path set_include_path(implode(PATH_SEPARATOR, array( realpath(APPLICATION_PATH . '/../library'), // this project' library get_include_path(), ))); /** Zend_Application */ require_once 'Zend/Application.php'; require_once 'ControllerTestCase.php';

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  • How to install OpenCV 2.0 on win32

    - by Jive Dadson
    I need to install OpenCV on Win32. I do not have it installed currently. I downloaded OpenCV-2.0.0a-win32.exe and ran it. What the heck do I do now? There are no .lib's and whatnot. I found some instructions for building the release using cmake at http://opencv.willowgarage.com/wiki/InstallGuide . I downloaded the latest and greatest cmake, and tried to follow the instructions, but I was guessing. No joy. I specified VC++9 when I did the "configure," but cmake built a VC++ 6 dsw file. No vcproj. I converted the dsw into a vc++9 vcproj anyway, just to see if it would work. Nope. It compiled lots of files, but many failed because it could not find omp.h. Sure enough, it's not there, anywhere. The build log said, 'A tool returned an error code from "Performing Custom Build Step".' I am lost. Ideally, I would like to find a full installation with all the files pre-built for Win32 vc++ 2008. Failing that, I need instructions that even I can follow. Short sentences and small words, but lots of them. Please help! UPDATE: I tried to build just CXCORE. It complained, "cannot open file 'VCOMPD.lib'" There's that OMP again.

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  • Global.asax Event: Application_OnPostAuthenticateRequest

    - by Hemant Kothiyal
    Hi, I am using Application_OnPostAuthenticateRequest event in global.asax to get roles and permissions of authenticated user also i have made my custom principal class to get user detail and roles and permission. To get some information which remain same for that user. following are the code void Application_OnPostAuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Get a reference to the current User IPrincipal objIPrincipal = HttpContext.Current.User; // If we are dealing with an authenticated forms authentication request if ((objIPrincipal.Identity.IsAuthenticated) && (objIPrincipal.Identity.AuthenticationType == "Forms")) { CustomPrincipal objCustomPrincipal = new CustomPrincipal(); objCustomPrincipal = objCustomPrincipal.GetCustomPrincipalObject(objIPrincipal.Identity.Name); HttpContext.Current.User = objCustomPrincipal; CustomIdentity ci = (CustomIdentity)objCustomPrincipal.Identity; HttpContext.Current.Cache["CountryID"] = FatchMasterInfo.GetCountryID(ci.CultureId); HttpContext.Current.Cache["WeatherLocationID"] = FatchMasterInfo.GetWeatherLocationId(ci.UserId); Thread.CurrentPrincipal = objCustomPrincipal; } } My question is as following This event fires every time for every request. Hence for each request the code execute? My approach is right or not? Is it right to add HttpContext.Current.Cache in this event or we should move it on session start

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  • Cocoa/Objective-C - Child window with text input without main window becoming inactive

    - by Josh
    Hello All, I have a need to spawn a window that will hover just above my main window in a cocoa application. I want this main window to allow the user to enter some text in an input box. All is well until the text input box actually gains focus. The main window becomes "deactivated." This window is borderless and is a slightly custom shape -- its more like a hover card than anything else, I suppose. Basically, I'd like this thing to work almost exactly like Spotlight (Apple + Space) -- you can enter text, but this is such an an ancillary operation that in the context of the greater UX, you don't want the jarring effect of the main window graying out (becoming inactive). You'll notice when you have some application open and in-focus, spotlight will not cause the window of that application to become inactive. This problem arises because text input seems to REQUIRE that the child window become the key window (it will not let you place the cursor in the text input field). When it becomes key, the main window becomes inactive. So far I've tried: Subclassing NSWindow for my main application and overriding isKeyWindow such that it only loses key when the application is no longer the users focus (as opposed to the window). This had the unintended effect of colliding with key status of the child window and having very strange effects on the keyboard input (some keys are not captured, like delete) Creating a view instead of a window. Doesn't work because of this problem -- you cannot draw over a Webkit WebView these days. Anybody Cocoa/OSX wizards have any ideas? I've become a little obsessed with this one. An itch I can't scratch.

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  • Node.js/ v8: How to make my own snapshot to accelerate startup

    - by Anand
    I have a node.js (v0.6.12) application that starts by evaluating a Javascript file, startup.js. It takes a long time to evaluate startup.js, and I'd like to 'bake it in' to a custom build of Node if possible. The v8 source directory distributed with Node, node/deps/v8/src, contains a SconScript that can almost be used to do this. On line 302, we have LIBRARY_FILES = ''' runtime.js v8natives.js array.js string.js uri.js math.js messages.js apinatives.js date.js regexp.js json.js liveedit-debugger.js mirror-debugger.js debug-debugger.js '''.split() Those javascript files are present in the same directory. Something in the build process apparently evaluates them, takes a snapshot of state, and saves it as a byte string in node/out/Release/obj/release/snapshot.cc (on Mac OS). Some customization of the startup snapshot is possible by altering the SconScript. For example, I can change the definition of the builtin Date.toString by altering date.js. I can even add new global variables by adding startup.js to the list of library files, with contents global.test = 1. However, I can't put just any javascript code in startup.js. If it contains Date.toString = 1;, an error results even though the code is valid at the node repl: Build failed: -> task failed (err #2): {task: libv8.a SConstruct -> libv8.a} make: *** [program] Error 1 And it obviously can't make use of code that depends on libraries Node adds to v8. global.underscore = require('underscore'); causes the same error. I'd ideally like a tool, customSnapshot, where customSnapshot startup.js evaluates startup.js with node and then dumps a snapshot to a file, snapshot.cc, which I can put into the node source directory. I can then build node and tell it not to rebuild the snapshot.

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  • How to route tree-structured URLs with ASP.NET Routing?

    - by Venemo
    Hello Everyone, I would like to achieve something very similar to this question, with some enhancements. There is an ASP.NET MVC web application. I have a tree of entities. For example, a Page class which has a property called Children, which is of type IList<Page>. (An instance of the Page class corresponds to a row in a database.) I would like to assign a unique URL to every Page in the database. I handle Page objects with a Controller called PageController. Example URLs: http://mysite.com/Page1/ http://mysite.com/Page1/SubPage/ http://mysite.com/Page/ChildPage/GrandChildPage/ You get the picture. So, I'd like every single Page object to have its own URL that is equal to its parent's URL plus its own name. In addition to that, I also would like the ability to map a single Page to the / (root) URL. I would like to apply these rules: If a URL can be handled with any other route, or a file exists in the filesystem in the specified URL, let the default URL mapping happen If a URL can be handled by the virtual path provider, let that handle it If there is no other, map the other URLs to the PageController class I also found this question, and also this one and this one, but they weren't of much help, since they don't provide an explanation about my first two points. I see the following possible soutions: Map a route for each page invidually. This requires me to go over the entire tree when the application starts, and adding an exact match route to the end of the route table. I could add a route with {*path} and write a custom IRouteHandler that handles it, but I can't see how could I deal with the first two rules then, since this handler would get to handle everything. So far, the first solution seems to be the right one, because it is also the simplest. I would really appreciate your thoughts on this. Thank you in advance!

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  • MVVM Light - master / child views and dependency properties

    - by Carl Dickinson
    I'm getting an odd problem when implementing a master / child view and custom dependency properties. Within my master view I'm binding the view model declaratively in the XAML as follows: DataContext="{Binding MainViewModelProperty, Source={StaticResource Locator}}" and my MainViewModel is exposing an observable collection which I'm binding to an ItemsControl as follows: <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Lists}" Height="490" Canvas.Top="10" Width="70"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Canvas> <local:TaskListControl Canvas.Left="{Binding ListLeft}" Canvas.Top="{Binding ListTop}" Width="{Binding ListWidth}" Height="{Binding ListHeight}" ListDetails="{Binding}"/> </Canvas> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> TaskListControl in turn declares and bind to it's ViewModel and I've also defined a dependency property for the ListDetails property. The ListDetails property is not being set and if I remove the declarative reference to it's viewmodel the dependency property's callback does get fired. Is there a conflict with declaratively binding to viewmodels and definig dependency properties? I really like MVVM Light's blendability and want to perserve with this problem so any help would be apprectiated. If you'd like to receive the source for my project then please ask

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  • How to render a DateTime in a specific format in ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Slauma
    If I have in my model class a property of type DateTime how can I render it in a specific format - for example in the format which ToLongDateString() returns? I have tried this... @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString()) ...which throws an exception because the expression must point to a property or field. And this... @{var val = item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString(); Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => val); } ...which doesn't throw an exception, but the rendered output is empty (although val contains the expected value, as I could see in the debugger). Thanks for tips in advance! Edit ToLongDateString is only an example. What I actually want to use instead of ToLongDateString is a custom extension method of DateTime and DateTime?: public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime dateTime) { if (dateTime.TimeOfDay == TimeSpan.Zero) return dateTime.ToString("d"); else return dateTime.ToString("g"); } public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime? dateTime) { if (dateTime.HasValue) return dateTime.Value.FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(); else return ""; } So, I think I cannot use the DisplayFormat attribute and DataFormatString parameter on the ViewModel properties.

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  • Which is a good way to maintain resources for Internationalization in .Net

    - by ashtee
    I have thought of three approaches to create and maintain resources in .Net projects for WinForms using Visual Studio 2008. (I am sure there should be more than three ways.) I need to decide on one before starting to implement internationalization for our product. Have individual sets of resource files (resx) for each windows form or piece of UI (a custom control) in each .net project. These are auto generated by Visual Studio when Localizable property is set to true in the form or control properties. Have one resource file per .net project. This is added manually and updated manually with the resource strings and messages. Have one resource manager project that has resources for all the components for a set of .net projects. Personally, I do not like the first approach as it creates numerous resources files. The only advantage we get in this approach is that we do not need to set text in UI elements manually. I like second and third approach as they are easy to maintain and there is only one set of resources that you need to handle. So no duplication of strings and messages. Easy for the translators also. What are your thoughts? Please share.

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  • Automatic web form testing/filling

    - by Polatrite
    I recently became lead on getting an inordinate amount of testing done in a very short period of time. We have many different web forms, using custom (Telerik) controls that need to be tested for proper data validation and sensible handling of the data. Some of the forms are several pages long with 30-80 different controls for data entry. I am looking for a software solution (that is free) that would allow me to automate the process of filling in these forms by designing a script, or using a UI. The other requirement is that I can't use any browsers but IE6 (terrible, I know). I have previously used AutoHotkey to great success for automatic Windows form testing, since Autohotkey's API allows you to directly reference controls on the Windows form. However Autohotkey does not have similar support for web forms (everything is just one big "InternetExplorer" control). While I would prefer that I could script some variance in the data to help serialize each test, it's not necessary, as I could go back through and manually edit a field or two (plus "break" whatever control I'm currently testing) to serialize each test. If you've ever seen Spawner: http://forge.mysql.com/projects/project.php?id=214 It's almost exactly the sort of thing I'm looking for (Spawner generates dummy SQL data, as opposed to dummy webform data) - but I won't be picky, I've got a really short deadline to meet and had this thrust in my lap just today. ;) Edit1: One of the challenges of just using Autohotkey to simulate keyboard input (tabbing through controls) is that some controls don't currently have tab index (bug), and some controls cause a page reload after modification, resulting in inconsistent control focus (tabbing screwed up). Our application makes heavy use of page reloads to populate fields (select a location, it auto-populates a city, for example).

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