Search Results

Search found 54118 results on 2165 pages for 'default value'.

Page 565/2165 | < Previous Page | 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572  | Next Page >

• Converting between unsigned and signed int safely

  - by polemic

  I have an interface between a client and a server where a client sends (1) an unsigned value, and (2) a flag which indicates if value is signed/unsigned. Server would then static cast unsigned value to appropriate type. I later found out that this is implementation defined behavior and I've been reading about it but I couldn't seem to find an appropriate solution that's completely safe? I've read about type punning, pointer conversions, and memcpy. Would simply using a union type work? A UnionType containing signed and unsigned int, along with the signed/unsigned flag. For signed values, client sets the signed part of the union, and server reads the signed part. Same for the unsigned part. Or am I completely misunderstanding something? Side question: how do I know the specific behavior in this case for a specific scenario, e.g. windriver diab on PPC? I'm a bit lost on how to find such documentation.

  Read the article

• How to observe NSScroller changes?

  - by Paperflyer

  I have an NSScrollView subclass and I would like to update another NSView based on the current scroll position. I tried KVC-observing the value of [self horizontalScroller] but that never gets called. // In awakeFromNib [[self horizontalScroller] addObserver:self forKeyPath:@"value" options:NSKeyValueObservingOptionNew context:NULL]; // Later in the file - (void)observeValueForKeyPath:(NSString *)keyPath ofObject:(id)object change:(NSDictionary *)change context:(void *)context { if (object == [self horizontalScroller] && [keyPath isEqualToString:@"value"]) { // This never gets called } } Do you see an error in my reasoning or know a better method of how to observe the scrolling of an NSScrollview?

  Read the article

• Get positions for NAs only in the "middle" of a matrix column

  - by Abiel

  I want to obtain an index that refers to the positions of NA values in a matrix where the index is true if a given cell is NA and there is at least one non-NA value before and after it in the column. For example, given the following matrix [,1] [,2] [,3] [,4] [1,] NA 1 NA 1 [2,] 1 NA NA 2 [3,] NA 2 NA 3 the only value of the index that comes back TRUE should be [2,2]. Is there a compact expression for what I want to do? If I had to I could loop through columns and use something like min(which(!is.na(x[,i]))) to find the first non-NA value in each column, and then set all values before that to FALSE (and the same for all values after the max). This way I would not select leading and trailing NA values. But this seems a bit messy, so I'm wondering if there is a cleaner expression that does this without loops.

  Read the article

• Eliminating matching values in a SQL result set

  - by Burgess Taylor

  I have a table with a list of transactions (invoices and credits) and I need to get a list of all the rows where the invoices and credits don't match up. eg user product value bill ThingA 200 jim ThingA -200 sue ThingB 100 liz ThingC 50 I only want to see the third and fourth rows, as the values of the others match off. I can do this if I select product, sum(value) ... group by product having sum(value) < 0 which works well, but I want to return the user name as well. As soon as I add the user to the select, I need to group by it as well, which messes it up as the amounts don't match up by user AND product. Any ideas ? I am using MS SQL 2000... Cheers

  Read the article

• Automatic hyperlink in Excel

  - by developer

  Hi All, Is it possible to hyperlink a url in excel automatically. I mean when the cell starts with something like http or www can I hyperlink that. Currently, I have to hit enter in the cell value in the formula bar to make the link as clickable. Also if I change the value in the cell, the link doesnt get refreshed until I hit enter. Is there a way in excel where it will automatically detect and apply a hyperlink.

  Read the article

• Entity Framework 4: C# !(ReferenceEquals()) vs !=

  - by Eric J.

  Unless a class specifically overrides the behavior defined for Object, ReferenceEquals and == do the same thing... compare references. In property setters, I have commonly used the pattern private MyType myProperty; public MyType MyProperty { set { if (myProperty != value) { myProperty = value; // Do stuff like NotifyPropertyChanged } } } However, in code generated by Entity Framework, the if statement is replaced by if (!ReferenceEquals(myProperty, value)) Using ReferenceEquals is more explicit (as I guess not all C# programmers know that == does the same thing if not overridden). Is there any difference that's escaping me between the two if-variants? Are they perhaps accounting for the possibility that POCO designers may have overridden ==? In short, if I have not overridden ==, am I save using != instead of ReferencEquals()?

  Read the article

• Buggy Perl regular expression

  - by Tichomir Mitkov

  Hi, there I'm writing a program that has to get values from a file. In the file each line indicates an entity. Each entity has three values. For example: Value1 Value2 value3 I have a regular expresion to match them m/(.*?) (.*?) (.*?)/m; But it seems that the third value in never matched! The only way to match the third value is to add another value in the file and another "matching brackets" in the expresion. But this does not satisfy me. Thanks in Advance!

  Read the article

• Find element using jQuery

  - by Frode Lillerud

  Hi, I've got some HTML that looks like this. <li class="t-item t-first"> <div class="t-top"> <span class="t-icon t-plus"></span> <span class="t-in">Offshore</span> </div> <input type="hidden" value="41393" name="itemValue" class="t-input"> </li> The HTML is a single item from a treeview created by Telerik. The real data here is that "Offshore" has an id of "41393". From the Telerik code I get the span-element with class"t-in", but I'm unable to get the ID-value from it. How can I use jQuery to find the value of the hidden input type?

  Read the article

• What's the standard behaviour for an out parameter when a TryXxxx method returns false?

  - by Matt Lacey

  Assuming a method with the following signature bool TryXxxx(object something, out int toReturn) What is it acceptable for toReturn to be if TryXxxx returns false? In that it's infered that toReturn should never be used if TryXxxx fails does it matter? If toReturn was a nulable type, then it would make sense to return null. But int isn't nullable and I don't want to have to force it to be. If toReturn is always a certain value if TryXxxx fails we risk having the position where 2 values could be considered to indicate the same thing. I can see this leading to potential possible confusion if the 'default' value was returned as a valid response (when TryXxxx returns true). From an implementation point if view it looks like having toReturn be a[ny] value is easiest, but is there anything more important to consider?

  Read the article

• Any way to access the type of a Scala Option declaration at runtime using reflection?

  - by Graham Lea

  So, I have a Scala class that looks like this: class TestClass { var value: Option[Int] = None } and I'm tackling a problem where I have a String value and I want to coerce it into that Option[Int] at runtime using reflection. To do so, I need to know that the field is an Option and that the type parameter of the Option is Int. What are my options for figuring out that the type of 'value' is Option[Int] at runtime (i.e. using reflection)? I have seen similar problems solved by annotating the field, e.g. @OptionType(Int.class). I'd prefer a solution that didn't require annotations on the reflection target if possible.

  Read the article

• How do I get property injection working in Ninject for a ValidationAttribute in MVC?

  - by jaltiere

  I have a validation attribute set up where I need to hit the database to accomplish the validation. I tried setting up property injection the same way I do elsewhere in the project but it's not working. What step am I missing? public class ApplicationIDValidAttribute : ValidationAttribute { [Inject] protected IRepository<MyType> MyRepo; public override bool IsValid(object value) { if (value == null) return true; int id; if (!Int32.TryParse(value.ToString(), out id)) return false; // MyRepo is null here and is never injected var obj= MyRepo.LoadById(id); return (obj!= null); } One other thing to point out, I have the Ninject kernel set up to inject non-public properties, so I don't think that is the problem. I'm using Ninject 2, MVC 2, and the MVC 2 version of Ninject.Web.MVC. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Getting a ReturnValue from cmd.Parameters in c#?

  - by mark smith

  Hi, I have just finished converted a vb.net app to c# and one of the lines is to get @ReturnValue from the parameter. I ended up having to CAST a lot of things.. Is there not a easier way here is what i have int rc = ((System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlInt32)(((System.Data.SqlClient.SqlParameter)(cmd.Parameters["@ReturnValue"])).SqlValue)).Value; In vb.net it was as simple as doing this Dim rc As Integer = Convert.ToInt32(cmd.Parameters("@ReturnValue").Value) Alot easier :-) But the problem with C# is the property Value isn't available unless I Cast to SqlParameter and i also need to cast to Sqltypes.SqlInt32 - i can't just do a standard Convert.ToInt32

  Read the article

• Setting date from selectInputDate to object

  - by DD

  I have a date controller which does various things. Once a calendar date is set, I want to pass the value from the date controller to another bean. The problem I have is that the setPropertyActionListener gets called before the user clicks on a date. Is there a way to get the date from the selectInputDate after selection and pass to a bean? This is what I tried: <ice:selectInputDate popupDateFormat="dd-MMM-yyyy" renderAsPopup="true" value="#{dateRangeDateContoller.end}" > <f:setPropertyActionListener target="#{searchParameters.endDate}" value="#{dateRangeDateContoller.end}" /> </ice:selectInputDate>

  Read the article

• Caching Web UserControl by Propety is not working (Grr!)

  - by PapillonUK

  Here's my code behind: <PartialCaching(60, Nothing, "UsrCtl_WebUserControl.CacheString", Nothing, True)> _ Partial Class UsrCtl_WebUserControl Inherits System.Web.UI.UserControl Private _CacheString As String Public Property CacheString() As String Get Return _CacheString End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _CacheString = value End Set End Property End Class Here's the user control embedded in a page: <uc:wuc ID="wuc" runat="server" CacheString="A" /> And in another page: <uc:wuc ID="wuc" runat="server" CacheString="B" /> According to the docs this control should maintain a different, 60 second cached version for each value of the CacheString property. It doesn't work - it caches for 60 seconds, but only one cached copy is created regardless of what I put in the CacheString property. Anyone any ideas what i'm doing wrong? - After 4 hours of this I have no hair or nails left - please save my monitor from the brick.

  Read the article

• jquery - add to hidden input field on keypress?

  - by Simpson88Keys

  I've got a hidden input field that I want to append text to depending upon what a user enters in two other fields. So, <input type="hidden" name="name" value="" /> <input type="text" name="first" value="" /> <input type="text" name="second" value="" /> If the user types First in the first input field and Second in the second input field, I want the name input field to be "First Second"... Tried using keyup and keypress, but can't get it to append to what's already there?

  Read the article

• Problem with layout of control when dynamically creating winform and controls for the Form

  - by Ashwani Roy

  I get this response from a web service call. Something like this <Response> <Control1 type = "DropdownList" value= "USA,UK,Sweden,UAE"/> <Control2 type = "Textbox" value= "Contries"/> <Control3 type = "Button" value= "None"> </Response> Based on this I de-serialize it into List<Controls>. Now I need to be able to dynamically create a winform based on these controls. My problem is the layout. I want to be able to create them nicely separated (If possible vertically aligned) in batches of lets say 5.So If I need 15 controls I have 3 columns and 5 rows. What would be best way to achieve this? I know that I can use the inbuilt positioning properties like top, width etc., but maybe someone out there has done something similar in a better way.

  Read the article

• Linq ChangeConflictException occurs when submitting DataContext changes

  - by Alex

  System.Data.Linq.ChangeConflictException: 2 of X updates failed. at System.Data.Linq.ChangeProcessor.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at System.Data.Linq.DataContext.SubmitChanges(ConflictMode failureMode) at PROJECT.Controllers.HomeController.ClickProc(Int32 id, String code, String n) This is what I get very often. This action is done thousands of times a day, and I get this exception about once every 5 seconds. From what I understand it happens when something changes in the database in the period between creating DataContext and updating it. Am I right? How can I fix it? Update I just debugged the error and found the following: Table name: dbo.Stats current value: 9852039 original value: 9852038 database value: 9852039 The Stats table is updated constantly. So how can I still make LINQ save the changes. With "classical" SQL Server access through SqlDataCommand I never had problems like that.

  Read the article

• Improving the join of two wave file?

  - by kaki

  I have written a code for joining two wave files.It works fine when i am joining larger segments but as i need to join very small segments the clarity is not good. I have learned that the signal processing technique such a windowed join can be used to improve the joining of file. y[n] = w[n]s[n] Multiply value of signal at sample number n by the value of a windowing function hamming window w[n]= .54 - .46*cos(2*Pi*n)/L 0 I am not understanding how to get the value to signal at sample n and how to implement this?? the code i am using for joining is import wave m=['C:/begpython/S0001_0002.wav', 'C:/begpython/S0001_0001.wav'] i=1 a=m[i] infiles = [a, "C:/begpython/S0001_0002.wav", a] outfile = "C:/begpython/S0001_00367.wav" data= [] data1=[] for infile in infiles: w = wave.open(infile, 'rb') data1=[w.getnframes] data.append( [w.getparams(), w.readframes(w.getnframes())] ) #data1 = [ord(character) for character in data1] #print data1 #data1 = ''.join(chr(character) for character in data1) w.close() output = wave.open(outfile, 'wb') output.setparams(data[0][0]) output.writeframes(data[0][1]) output.writeframes(data[1][1]) output.writeframes(data[2][1]) output.close()

  Read the article

• different explanation

  - by Delirium tremens

  The following code echoes 5, not 10: $global_obj = null; class my_class { var $value; function my_class() { global $global_obj; $global_obj = &$this; } } $a = new my_class; $a->my_value = 5; $global_obj->my_value = 10; echo $a->my_value; "Upon first examination, it would seem that the constructor of my_class stores a reference to itself inside the $global_obj variable. Therefore, one would expect that, when we later change the value of $global_obj-my_value to 10, the corresponding value in $a would change as well. Unfortunately, the new operator does not return a reference, but a copy of the newly created object." Please, give me a different explanation.

  Read the article

• JSF: attach rich:toggleControl to radio buttons or select items.

  - by arw

  Has anyone had any success attaching a rich:toggleControl component to a radio button component (h:selectOneRadio) or alternatively any of its children select items (in this case s:enumItem). Basic code example: <h:selectOneRadio value="#{backingValue}"> <s:enumItem enumValue="VAL_1" itemLabel="Value One" /> <s:enumItem enumValue="VAL_2" itemLabel="Value Two" /> <s:convertEnum /> </h:selectOneRadio> The ideal thing would be to attach the toggle control to the enumItems so I could have it switch to a particular state. However at this point I'd be happy if the toggle control can just be attached to the selectOneRadio. I've tried the toggle control as a child of the selectOneRadio and enumItems; neither works. I've also tried wrapping the toggleControl around the selectOneRadio, the toggle control works in this case but the radio buttons don't :(

  Read the article

• Javascript / jQuery Exec turns up Null

  - by Matrym

  How do I skip over this next line if it turns out to be null? Currently, it (sometimes) "breaks" and prevents the script from continuing. var title = (/(.*?)<\/title/m).exec(response)[1]; $.get(url, function(response){ var title = (/<title>(.*?)<\/title>/m).exec(response)[1]; if (title == null || title == undefined){ return false; } var words = title.split(' '); $.each(words, function(index, value){ $link.highlight(value + " "); $link.highlight(" " + value); }); });

  Read the article

• MS Office Excel Ribbon - Cannot change/hide Editing group in Home tab

  - by A9S6

  I have a .net addin for Excel. The addin creates the Ribbon UI for Excel 2007 and re-purposes some existing commands such as Cut, Copy, Paste, Sort etc. For Cut, Copy and Paste I am just overriding their OnAction value to call my own procedure when the buttons are clicked. But for Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc commands the case is a little different. When either of the Sort, Sort Asc or Sort Desc buttons are clicked, I want to get notified and then call the default functionality. This was possible in Excel 2003 commandsbars by calling the Execute() method on the CommandBarControl. In Excel 2007, there is a ExecuteMso() method to programmatically click a ribbon element but when the OnAction is overridden, this ExecuteMso() method just executes my own procedure and not the default functionality of that button. So I thought that I will HIDE the Sort buttons in the "Editing" group in Home tab and add my own Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc buttons to it. The buttons will call into my procedure first from where I will call the default behavior. Now the problem is that I am unable to change/hide the Editing group (idMso="GroupEditing"). Is this built-in group not editable? I can however HIDE the Clipboard and other groups(but can't add buttons to them). <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <customUI xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/2006/01/customui"> <ribbon> <tabs> <tab idMso="TabHome"> <group idMso="GroupEditing" visible="false" /> </tab> </tabs> </ribbon> </customUI>

  Read the article

• How can you logically group HTML elements without taking the help of CSS classes ?

  - by Perpetualcoder

  I know that in jQuery you can use something like $(".cssClass") to get all elements with this class. However in plain html and javascript how do you group elements logically? For example: <input id="fee1" data-id="1" data-group="Fees" type="text" value="$15.00"/> <input id="fee2" data-id="2" data-group="Fees" type="text" value="$25.00"/> <input id="fee3" data-id="3" data-group="Fees" type="text" value="$35.00"/> I want to create a javascript function like this: function GetByDataGroup(dataGroup){ /* returns something like [[1,"$15.00"],[2,"$25.00"],[3,"$35.00"]]*/ } EDIT : Due to some political reasons I cant use jQuery or any framework..i know it doesnt make sense :)

  Read the article

• Find common nodes from two linked lists using recursion

  - by Dan

  I have to write a method that returns a linked list with all the nodes that are common to two linked lists using recursion, without loops. For example, first list is 2 - 5 - 7 - 10 second list is 2 - 4 - 8 - 10 the list that would be returned is 2 - 10 I am getting nowhere with this.. What I have been think of was to check each value of the first list with each value of the second list recursively but the second list would then be cut by one node everytime and I cannot compare the next value in the first list with the the second list. I hope this makes sense... Can anyone help?

  Read the article

• Ambiguous Evaluation of Lambda Expression on Array

  - by Joe

  I would like to use a lambda that adds one to x if x is equal to zero. I have tried the following expressions: t = map(lambda x: x+1 if x==0 else x, numpy.array) t = map(lambda x: x==0 and x+1 or x, numpy.array) t = numpy.apply_along_axis(lambda x: x+1 if x==0 else x, 0, numpy.array) Each of these expressions returns the following error: ValueError: The truth value of an array with more than one element is ambiguous. Use a.any() or a.all() My understanding of map() and numpy.apply_along_axis() was that it would take some function and apply it to each value of an array. From the error it seems that the the lambda is being evaluated as x=array, not some value in array. What am I doing wrong? I know that I could write a function to accomplish this but I want to become more familiar with the functional programming aspects of python.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 561 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572  | Next Page >