insert id - Page 566 - Developer IT

Android SMS API

- by Schildmeijer

I know that the SMS content provider is not part of the public API (at least not documented), but if I understand correctly it's still possible to use many of the SMS features as long as you know how to use the API(?). E.g it's pretty straightforward to insert an SMS into your inbox: ContentValues values = new ContentValues(); values.put("address", "+457014921911"); contentResolver.insert(Uri.parse("content://sms"), values); Unfortunately this does not trigger the standard "new-SMS-in-your-inbox" notification. Is it possible to trigger this manually? Edit: AFAIK the "standard mail application (Messaging)" in Android is listening for incoming SMSes using the android.permission.RECEIVE_SMS permission. And then, when a new SMS has arrived, a status bar notification is inserted with a "special" notification id. So one solution to my problem (stated above) could be to find, and send the correct broadcast intent; something like "NEW SMS HAS ARRIVED"-intent. Edit: Downloaded a third party messaging application (chompsms) from Android market. This application satisfies my needs better. When i execute the code above the chompsms notice the new sms and shows the "standard status bar notification". So I would say that the standard Android Messaging application is not detecting sms properly? Or am I wrong?

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How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

- by Sandor Drieënhuizen

I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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LINQ to SQL - Tracking New / Dirty Objects

- by Joseph Sturtevant

Is there a way to determine if a LINQ object has not yet been inserted in the database (new) or has been changed since the last update (dirty)? I plan on binding my UI to LINQ objects (using WPF) and need it to behave differently depending whether or not the object is already in the database. MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext(); MyObject obj; if (new Random().NextDouble() > .5) obj = new MyObject(); else obj = context.MyObjects.First(); // How can I distinguish these two cases? The only simple solution I can think of is to set the primary key of new records to a negative value (my PKs are an identity field and will therefore be set to a positive integer on INSERT). This will only work for detecting new records. It also requires identity PKs, and requires control of the code creating the new object. Is there a better way to do this? It seems like LINQ must be internally tracking the status of these objects so that it can know what to do on context.SubmitChanges(). Is there some way to access that "object status"? Clarification Apparently my initial question was confusing. I'm not looking for a way to insert or update records. I'm looking for a way, given any LINQ object, to determine if that object has not been inserted (new) or has been changed since its last update (dirty).

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How can I get the correct DisplayMetrics from an AppWidget in Android?

- by Gary

I need to determine the screen density at runtime in an Android AppWidget. I've set up an HDPI emulator device (avd). If set up a regular executable project, and insert this code into the onCreate method: DisplayMetrics dm = getResources().getDisplayMetrics(); Log.d("MyTag", "screen density " + dm.densityDpi); This outputs "screen density 240" as expected. However, if I set up an AppWidget project, and insert this code into the onUpdate method: DisplayMetrics dm = context.getResources().getDisplayMetrics(); Log.d("MyTag", "screen density " + dm.densityDpi); This outputs "screen density 160". I noticed, hooking up the debugger, that the mDefaultDisplay member of the Resources object here is null in the AppWidget case. Similarly, if I get a resource at runtime using the Resources object obtained from context.getResources() in the AppWidget, it returns the wrong resource based on screen density. For instance, I have a 60x60px drawable for mdpi, and an 80x80 drawable for hdpi. If I get this Drawable object using context.getResources().getDrawable(...), it returns the 60x60 version. Is there any way to correctly deal with resources at runtime from the context of an AppWidget? Thanks!

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LINQ to SQL - Left Outer Join with multiple join conditions

- by dan

I have the following SQL which I am trying to translate to LINQ: SELECT f.value FROM period as p LEFT OUTER JOIN facts AS f ON p.id = f.periodid AND f.otherid = 17 WHERE p.companyid = 100 I have seen the typical implementation of the left outer join (ie. into x from y in x.DefaultIfEmpty() etc.) but am unsure how to introduce the other join condition ('AND f.otherid = 17') EDIT Why is the 'AND f.otherid = 17' condition part of the JOIN instead of in the WHERE clause? Because f may not exist for some rows and I still want these rows to be included. If the condition is applied in the WHERE clause, after the JOIN - then I don't get the behaviour I want. Unfortunately this: from p in context.Periods join f in context.Facts on p.id equals f.periodid into fg from fgi in fg.DefaultIfEmpty() where p.companyid == 100 && fgi.otherid == 17 select f.value seems to be equivalent to this: SELECT f.value FROM period as p LEFT OUTER JOIN facts AS f ON p.id = f.periodid WHERE p.companyid = 100 && AND f.otherid = 17 which is not quite what I'm after.

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cannot use obsolete binding at ‘input’ because it has a destructor

- by ihm

here's the word-count I wrote. I got this error: cannot use obsolete binding at ‘input’ because it has a destructor and error: name lookup of ‘input’ changed for ISO ‘for’ scoping what are they suppose to mean? thanks in advance. //rewrite the word-count program using insert instead of subscripting #include <iostream> #include <utility> #include <map> #include <string> using namespace std; int main () { cout<<"please enter some words"<<endl; map<string,int> word_count; for(string input; cin>>input; ) if(!word_count.insert(make_pair(input,1)).second); ++word_count[input]; for(map<string,int>::iterator iter=word_count.begin(); iter!=word_count.end(); ++iter) cout<<iter->first<<": "<<iter->second<<endl; return 0; }

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Locking a table for getting MAX in LINQ

- by Hossein Margani

Hi Every one! I have a query in LINQ, I want to get MAX of Code of my table and increase it and insert new record with new Code. just like the IDENTITY feature of SQL Server, but here my Code column is char(5) where can be alphabets and numeric. My problem is when inserting a new row, two concurrent processes get max and insert an equal Code to the record. my command is: var maxCode = db.Customers.Select(c=>c.Code).Max(); var anotherCustomer = db.Customers.Where(...).SingleOrDefault(); anotherCustomer.Code = GenerateNextCode(maxCode); db.SubmitChanges(); I ran this command cross 1000 threads and each updating 200 customers, and used a Transaction with IsolationLevel.Serializable, after two or three execution an error occured: using (var db = new DBModelDataContext()) { DbTransaction tran = null; try { db.Connection.Open(); tran = db.Connection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable); db.Transaction = tran; . . . . tran.Commit(); } catch { tran.Rollback(); } finally { db.Connection.Close(); } } error: Transaction (Process ID 60) was deadlocked on lock resources with another process and has been chosen as the deadlock victim. Rerun the transaction. other IsolationLevels generates this error: Row not found or changed. Please help me, thank you.

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Google Contacts Error: If-Match or If-None-Match header or entry etag attribute required

- by Ali

Hi guys I'm following the example code as defined on this website: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/x-phpgooglecontact/index.html I want to be able to integrate with my google apps account and play around with teh contacts. However I get this error whenever I try to run the modify contacts code: If-Match or If-None-Match header or entry etag attribute required This is my code: Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_ClientLogin'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Http_Client'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_Query'); Zend_Loader::loadClass('Zend_Gdata_Feed'); $client = getGoogleClient('cp'); // this is a function I made - its working fine $client->setHeaders('If-Match: *'); $gdata = new Zend_Gdata($client); $gdata->setMajorProtocolVersion(3); $query = new Zend_Gdata_Query($id);// id is the google reference $entry = $gdata->getEntry($query); $xml = simplexml_load_string($entry->getXML()); $xml->name->fullName = trim($contact->first_name).' '.trim($contact->last_name); $entryResult = $gdata->updateEntry($xml->saveXML(), $id);

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Sugar CRM Soap call not working properly

- by Jasim

I have sugar crm instance and i was trying to get some data from it using soap service. Below is the code which i am using for it. When i run the same code , sometimes it is returning correct data, sometimes it not. Can any one tell me what the problem is?? include "nusoap.php"; $client = new soapclient('http://asdf.net/test/urbancrm_2009_06_22/soap.php'); // Login to SugarCRM $auth_array = array( 'user_auth' => array( 'user_name' => '******', 'password' => '*******' ), ); $response = $client->call('login', $auth_array); if (!$response['error']['number']){ // Successfully logged in $session_id = $response['id']; //$response = $client->call('get_entry_list',array('session'=>$session_id , 'module_name'=>'Users', 'query'=>'', 'order_by'=>'','offset'=>'','select_fields'=>array('id','user_name'))); $response = $client->call('get_entry_list',array('session'=>$session_id , 'module_name'=>'itf_Apartments', "query"=>"itf_apartments_cstm.neighborhood_c='Loop'", 'order_by'=>'','offset'=>'','select_fields'=>array('name','studio','convertible','one_bedroom','one_bedroom_plus_den','two_bedroom','two_bedroom_plus_den','penthouse','photo_c','building_type_c','neighborhood_c'))); //$response = $client->call('get_entry_list',array('session'=>$session_id , 'module_name'=>'itf_Apartments', 'query'=>'itf_apartments_cstm.urbanlux_id_c="1"', 'order_by'=>'','offset'=>'','select_fields'=>array('name','studio','convertible','one_bedroom','one_bedroom_plus_den','two_bedroom','two_bedroom_plus_den','penthouse',))); //store id and user name as a key value pair in array //echo "---"; print_r($response); } else { echo "else"; print_r($response); } ?

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REST application, Transactions, Cache drop

- by Julian Davchev

Hi, I am building REST API in php with memcache layer on top for caching all resources. After some reading experience it turns out it's best when documents are as simple as posible...mainly due to dropping cache sequences. So if there is 'building','room' entities for the 'room' document I would only place the id of the 'building' and not the whole data of it. Then on api client side I would merge data as needed. Problem becomes when I need to update/insert (most cases more than one table). I update one resource but on second update system fails or whatever and there becomes database inconsistancies. I see several solutions: 1. Implement rest transactions which I find wrong and complex as idea is to be stateless and easy. 2. On update/insert actions I pass more complex data (not single entities) so I can force transactions on API level. But this will make it weird that your GET document structure is same as PUT document structure. And again somehow make drop sequences complex. Any pointers are more than welcome. Cheers,

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ORM model and DAO in my particular case

- by EugeneP

I have the DB structure as follows: table STUDENT (say, id, surname, etc) table STUDENT_PROPERTIES (say, name_of_the_property:char, value_of_the_property:char, student_id:FK) table COURSE (id, name, statusofcourse_id) table STATUSOFCOURSE (id, name_of_status:char ('active','inactive','suspended' etc)) table STUDENT_COURSE (student_id,course_id,statusofcourse_id) Let's try to pick up domain objects in my database: Student and Course are main entities. Student has a list of courses he attends, also he has a list of properties, that is all for this student. Next, Course entitity. It may contain a list of students that attend it. But in fact, the whole structure looks like this: the starting point is Student, with it's PK we can look a list of his properties, then we look into the STUDENT_COURSE and extract both FK of the Course entity and also the Status of the combination, it would look like "Student named bla bla, with all his properties, attends math and the status of it is "ACTIVE". now, quotation 1) Each DAO instance is responsible for one primary domain object or entity. If a domain object has an independent lifecycle, it should have its own DAO. 2) The DAO is responsible for creations, reads (by primary key), updates, and deletions -- that is, CRUD -- on the domain object. Now, first question is What are entities in my case? Student, Course, Student_Course, Status = all except for StudentProperties? Do I have to create a separate DAO for every object?

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Pros and cons of making database IDs consistent and "readable"

- by gmale

Question Is it a good rule of thumb for database IDs to be "meaningless?" Conversely, are there significant benefits from having IDs structured in a way where they can be recognized at a glance? What are the pros and cons? Background I just had a debate with my coworkers about the consistency of the IDs in our database. We have a data-driven application that leverages spring so that we rarely ever have to change code. That means, if there's a problem, a data change is usually the solution. My argument was that by making IDs consistent and readable, we save ourselves significant time and headaches, long term. Once the IDs are set, they don't have to change often and if done right, future changes won't be difficult. My coworkers position was that IDs should never matter. Encoding information into the ID violates DB design policies and keeping them orderly requires extra work that, "we don't have time for." I can't find anything online to support either position. So I'm turning to all the gurus here at SA! Example Imagine this simplified list of database records representing food in a grocery store, the first set represents data that has meaning encoded in the IDs, while the second does not: ID's with meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 101 Apple 102 Banana 103 Orange 201 Lettuce 202 Onion 203 Carrot Location 41 Aisle four top shelf 42 Aisle four bottom shelf 51 Aisle five top shelf 52 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 10141 Apple on aisle four top shelf 10241 Banana on aisle four top shelf //just by reading the ids, it's easy to recongnize that these are both Fruit on Aisle 4 ID's without meaning: Type 1 Fruit 2 Veggie Product 1 Apple 2 Banana 3 Orange 4 Lettuce 5 Onion 6 Carrot Location 1 Aisle four top shelf 2 Aisle four bottom shelf 3 Aisle five top shelf 4 Aisle five bottom shelf ProductLocation 1 Apple on aisle four top shelf 2 Banana on aisle four top shelf //given the IDs, it's harder to see that these are both fruit on aisle 4 Summary What are the pros and cons of keeping IDs readable and consistent? Which approach do you generally prefer and why? Is there an accepted industry best-practice?

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How to code a URL shortener?

- by marco92w

I want to create a URL shortener service where you can write a long URL into an input field and the service shortens the URL to "http://www.example.org/abcdef". Instead of "abcdef" there can be any other string with six characters containing a-z, A-Z and 0-9. That makes 56 trillion possible strings. My approach: I have a database table with three columns: id, integer, auto-increment long, string, the long URL the user entered short, string, the shortened URL (or just the six characters) I would then insert the long URL into the table. Then I would select the auto-increment value for "id" and build a hash of it. This hash should then be inserted as "short". But what sort of hash should I build? Hash algorithms like MD5 create too long strings. I don't use these algorithms, I think. A self-built algorithm will work, too. My idea: For "http://www.google.de/" I get the auto-increment id 239472. Then I do the following steps: short = ''; if divisible by 2, add "a"+the result to short if divisible by 3, add "b"+the result to short ... until I have divisors for a-z and A-Z. That could be repeated until the number isn't divisible any more. Do you think this is a good approach? Do you have a better idea?

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SHA function issues

- by Damian James

I have this php code from my login.php if (isset($_POST['logIn'])) { $errmsg = ""; $logname = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['usernameIn'])); $logpassword = mysqli_real_escape_string($dbc, trim($_POST['passwordIn'])); $query = "SELECT user_id, username FROM members WHERE username = '$logname' AND password = SHA('$logpassword')"; $data = mysqli_query($dbc, $query); if (mysqli_num_rows($data) == 1) { $row = mysqli_fetch_array($data); setcookie('user_id', $row['user_id'], time() + (60 * 60 * 24 * 30)); //expires after 30 days setcookie('username', $row['username'], time() + (60 * 60 * 24 * 30)); $home = 'http://' . $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'] . dirname($_SERVER['PHP_SELF']) . '/index.php'; header('Location: ' . $home); } else { $errmsg = '<p class="errormsg">Username or password is incorrect.</p>'; } } And for some reason, it always ends up setting $errmsg in the else statement. I am sure that I'm entering information (username,password) that is correct and exists in the database. I insert my values (from a signup script) using this query: $query = "INSERT INTO members (username, password, email) VALUES ('$username', SHA('$password'), '$email')"; Anyone see the problem with this script? Thanks!

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Mapping issue with multi-field primary keys using hibernate/JPA annotations

- by Derek Clarkson

Hi all, I'm stuck with a database which is using multi-field primary keys. I have a situation where I have a master and details table, where the details table's primary key contains fields which are also the foreign key's the the master table. Like this: Master primary key fields: master_pk_1 Details primary key fields: master_pk_1 details_pk_2 details_pk_3 In the Master class we define the hibernate/JPA annotations like this: @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "idGenerator") @Column(name = "master_pk_1") private long masterPk1; @OneToMany(cascade=CascadeType.ALL) @JoinColumn(name = "master_pk_1", referencedColumnName = "master_pk_1") private List<Details> details = new ArrayList<Details>(); And in the details class I have defined the id and back reference like this: @EmbeddedId @AttributeOverrides( { @AttributeOverride( name = "masterPk1", column = @Column(name = "master_pk_1")), @AttributeOverride(name = "detailsPk2", column = @Column(name = "details_pk_2")), @AttributeOverride(name = "detailsPk2", column = @Column(name = "details_pk_2")) }) private DetailsPrimaryKey detailsPrimaryKey = new DetailsPrimaryKey(); @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "master_pk_1", referencedColumnName = "master_pk_1", insertable=false) private Master master; The goal of all of this was that I could create a new master, add some details to it, and when saved, JPA/Hibernate would generate the new id for master in the masterPk1 field, and automatically pass it down to the details records, storing it in the matching masterPk1 field in the DetailsPrimaryKey class. At least that's what the documentation I've been looking at implies. What actually happens is that hibernate appears to corectly create and update the records in the database, but not pass the key to the details classes in memory. Instead I have to manually set it myself. I also found that without the insertable=true added to the back reference to master, that hibernate would create sql that had the master_pk_1 field listed twice in the insert statement, resulting in the database throwing an exception. My question is simply is this arrangement of annotations correct? or is there a better way of doing it?

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jQuery, html5, append()/appendTo() and IE

- by karbassi

How to replicate: Create an html5 page. Make sure you have the script from remysharp.com/2009/01/07/html5-enabling-script/ added so that IE will notice the tags. Create an hardcoded <section id='anything'></section> tag. Using jQuery 1.3.2, append another section tag: $('#anything').append('<section id="whatever"></section>'); So far, everything works in all the browsers. Repeat the previous step. $('#whatever').append('<section id="fail"></section>'); This is where IE6/7 fails. Firefox/Safari will continue working. Error This is the error displayed. Thoughts It could be that IE6/7 can't handle the HTML5 section tag. I say this because when I change step 4 from <section> to <div>, IE6/7 will start working. If I use document.createElement() and create my new element, it works, but it seems like jQuery's append() has a problem with html5 elements.

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Testing a scoped find in a Rails controller with RSpec

- by Joseph DelCioppio

I've got a controller called SolutionsController whose index action is different depending on the value of params[:user_id]. If its nil, then it simply displays all of the solutions on my site, but if its not nil, then it displays all of the solutions for the given user id. Here it is: def index if(params[:user_id]) @solutions = @user.solutions.find(:all) else @solutions = Solution.find(:all) end end and @user is determined like this: private def load_user if(params[:user_id ]) @user = User.find(params[:user_id]) end end I've got an Rspec test to test the index action if the user is nil: describe "GET index" do context "when user_id is nil" do it "should find all of the solutions" do Solution.should_receive(:find).with(:all).and_return(@solutions) get :index end end end however, can someone tell me how I write a similar test for the other half of my controller, when the user id isn't nil? Something like: describe "GET index" do context "when user_id isn't nil" do before(:each) do @user = Factory.create(:user) @solutions = 7.times{Factory.build(:solution, :user => @user)} @user.stub!(:solutions).and_return(@solutions) end it "should find all of the solutions owned by a user" do @user.should_receive(:solutions).and_return(@solutions) get :index, :user_id => @user.id end end end But that doesn't work. Can someone help me out? Joe

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Testing a scoped find in a Rails controller with RSpec

- by Joseph DelCioppio

I've got a controller called SolutionsController whose index action is different depending on the value of params[:user_id]. If its nil, then it simply displays all of the solutions on my site, but if its not nil, then it displays all of the solutions for the given user id. Here it is: def index if(params[:user_id]) @solutions = @user.solutions.find(:all) else @solutions = Solution.find(:all) end end and @user is determined like this: private def load_user if(params[:user_id ]) @user = User.find(params[:user_id]) end end I've got an Rspec test to test the index action if the user is nil: describe "GET index" do context "when user_id is nil" do it "should find all of the solutions" do Solution.should_receive(:find).with(:all).and_return(@solutions) get :index end end end however, can someone tell me how I write a similar test for the other half of my controller, when the user id isn't nil? Something like: describe "GET index" do context "when user_id isn't nil" do before(:each) do @user = Factory.create(:user) @solutions = 7.times{Factory.build(:solution, :user => @user)} @user.stub!(:solutions).and_return(@solutions) end it "should find all of the solutions owned by a user" do @user.should_receive(:solutions).and_return(@solutions) get :index, :user_id => @user.id end end end But that doesn't work. Can someone help me out? Joe

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RESTful API design question - how should one allow users to create new resource instances?

- by Tamás

I'm working in a research group where we intend to publish implementations of some of the algorithms we develop on the web via a RESTful API. Most of these algorithms work on small to medium size datasets, and in many cases, a user of our services might want to run multiple queries (with different parameters) on the same dataset, so for me it seems reasonable to allow users to upload their datasets in advance and refer to them in their queries later. In this sense, a dataset could be a resource in my API, and an algorithm could be another. My question is: how should I let the users upload their own datasets? I cannot simply let users upload their data to /dataset/dataset_id as letting the users invent their own dataset_ids might result in ID collision and users overwriting each other's datasets by accident. (I believe one of the most frequently used dataset ID would be test). I think an ideal way would be to have a dedicated URL (like /dataset/upload) where users can POST their datasets and the response would contain a unique ID under which the dataset was stored, but I'm not sure that it does not violate the basic principles of REST. What is the preferred way of dealing with such scenarios?

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Linq to SQL case sensitivity causing problems

- by Roger Lipscombe

I've seen this question, but that's asking for case-insensitive comparisons when the database is case-sensitive. I'm having a problem with the exact opposite. I'm using SQL Server 2005, my database collation is set to Latin1_General_CI_AS. I've got a table, "User", like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[User] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Name] [nvarchar](max) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Example] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC ) ) And I'm using the following code to populate it: string[] names = new[] { "Bob", "bob", "BoB" }; using (MyDataContext dataContext = new AppCompatDataContext()) { foreach (var name in names) { string s = name; if (dataContext.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Name == s) == null) dataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(new User { Name = name }); } dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } When I run this the first time, I end up with "Bob", "bob" and "BoB" in the table. When I run it again, I get an InvalidOperationException: "Sequence contains more than one element", because the query against the database returns all 3 rows, and... SELECT * FROM [User] WHERE Name = 'bob' ... is case-insensitive. That is: when I'm inserting rows, Linq to SQL appears to use C# case-sensitive comparisons. When I query later, Linq to SQL uses SQL Server case-insensitive comparisons. I'd like the initial insert to use case-insensitive comparisons, but when I change the code as follows... if (dataContext.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Name.Equals(s, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase) ) == null) ... I get a NotSupportedException: "Method 'Boolean Equals(System.String, System.StringComparison)' has no supported translation to SQL." Question: how do I get the initial insert to be case-insensitive or, more precisely, match the collation of the column in the database? Update: This doesn't appear to be my problem. My problem appears to be that SingleOrDefault doesn't actually look at the pending inserts at all.

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External API function calls AS3 control timeline

- by giles

I have function problem using this code (below), the embedded flash movieclip disappears or completely prevents the scrollto.js query to function in DW cs3. Communication between Flash and JavaScript is without problems, it is the call back I can't find to work and more frustratingly, should be simple, as no values are not required. So far, this has been hours of scouring the net without a workable end in sight...ahrr. What is a function for this to work? JavaScript – to call Flash event from HTML button link, placed between head tags function callExternalInterface() var flashMovie = window.document.menu; flashMovie.menu_up(value); menu_up is the string. Does anyone know of workable function for callback?? HTML <div id="btn_up"><a href="#top" name="charDev" id="charDev" onclick="">top</a></div> Pane navigation div that uses Scrollto.js query, and it's this link I need calling back to the embedded "menubtns.swf" (nested in "AS3Menu_javascript.swf") to play 5 frames of this movieclip, via a JS function. Embedded .swf code, using swfobject.js with allowScriptAccess=always <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" name="menu"<br/> width="251" height="251" id="menu"> <param name="movie" value="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="ExternalInterfaceScript.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" width="250" height="250"> <p>Alternative content</p> </object> </object> AS3 / Flash import flash.external.ExternalInterface;flash.system.Security.allowDomain(/sourceDomain/); ExternalInterface.addCallBack("menu_up", this, resetmenu); function resetmenu(){ gotoAndPlay:("frame label" / "number") }

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How do i bind an image to a <asp:Image /> tag in Form View

- by Ranhiru

First i have a getProfileImage.aspx which accepts a CusID and TN as query strings and display n image. So getProfileImage.aspx?CusID=10&TN=Y will show the image fine in the browser :) But... Now i am presented with a Form View and i want to bind the src of the image to get the image from the getProfileImage.aspx page... The following code works fine :) 10 is the customer ID and the image is working fine... <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" Height="151px" ImageUrl='~/getProfileImage.aspx?CusID=10&TN=N' /> But now i want to Bind the CusID value... <asp:Image ID="Image1" runat="server" Height="151px" ImageUrl='~/getProfileImage.aspx?CusID=<%# Bind("CusID") %>&TN=N' /> This simply does not work :( The getProfileImage.aspx is called with CusID=<%... where the way i see it the <%# Bind("CusID") % is not parsed by ASP which would have returned 10... <%# Bind("CusID") %> The above tag alone will work... but inserting it to the middle of the tag seems to break it... Any suggestions ? Thanx a lot in advance :)

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Fck editor problem

- by Josemalive

Hi, Im using FCK Editor control instead a textarea element. I installed it without problems. But when i want to validate it with a Custom validator of ASP.Net 2.0, im not getting the result expected. These lines are the code that i have: <textarea style="width:30px;height:20px;" class="ckeditor" id="txtdescription" runat="server" name="txtdescription" cols="5" rows="10"></textarea> <asp:CustomValidator id="descval" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtdescription" EnableClientScript="true" Enabled="true" ValidateEmptyText="true" Display="Dynamic" ClientValidationFunction="ValidateTextDesc" Text="*" ErrorMessage="*"/> <asp:Button ID="buttonadd" runat="server" Text="Add text" OnClick="buttonadd_Click" /> And my javascript code that executes the CustomValidator client function is: function ValidateTextDesc(source, args) { var descriptiontext = document.getElementById("txtdescription"); if ((descriptiontext.value.indexOf("<script") != -1) || (descriptiontext.value.length==0)) { args.IsValid=false; } else { args.IsValid = true; } return args.IsValid; } My problem is that i have to click twice my submit button to execute this Client function: Do you know why this issue is happening? Thanks in advance. Regards. Josema.

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How to continuously scroll content within a DIV using jQuery?

- by Camsoft

Aim The aim is to a have a container DIV with a fixed height and width and have the HTML content within that DIV automatically scroll vertically continuously. Question Basically I've created the code below using jQuery to scroll (move) the child DIV vertically upwards until its outside the bounding parent box where the animation then completes which triggers an event handler which resets the position of the child DIV and starts the process again. This works fine, so the content scrolls up leaving a blank space and then starts from the bottom again and scrolls up. The problem I have is that the requirements for this is for the content to appear as if it was continuously repeating, see below diagram to better explain this, is there a way to do this? (I don't want to use 3rd party plug ins or libraries other than jQuery): What I have so far The HTML: <div id="scrollingContainer"> <div class="scroller"> <h1>This is a title</h1> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Suspendisse at orci mi, id gravida tellus. Integer malesuada ante sit amet enim pulvinar congue. Donec pulvinar dolor et arcu posuere feugiat id et felis.</p> <p>More content....</p> </div> </div> The CSS: #scrollingContainer{ height: 300px; width: 300px; overflow: hidden; } #scrollingContainer DIV.scroller{ position: relative; } The JavaScript: /** * Scrolls the content DIV */ function scroll() { if($('DIV.scroller').height() > $('#scrollingContainer').height()) { var t = $('DIV.scroller').position().top + $('DIV.scroller').height(); /* Animate */ $('DIV.scroller').animate( { top: '-=' + t + 'px' } , 4000, 'linear', animationComplete); } } function animationComplete() { $(this).css('top', $('#scrollingContainer').height()); scroll(); }

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