Search Results

Search found 15415 results on 617 pages for 'unity framework'.

Page 566/617 | < Previous Page | 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572 573  | Next Page >

• C++ & proper TDD

  - by Kotti

  Hi! I recently tried developing a small-sized project in C# and during the whole project our team used the Test-Driven-Development (TDD) technique (xunit, moq). I really think this was awesome, because (when paired with C#) this approach allowed to relax when coding, relax when projecting and relax when refactoring. I suspect that all this TDD-stuff actually simplifies the coding process and, well, it allowed (eventually, for me) to get the same result with fewer brain cells working. Right after that I tried using TDD paired with C++ (I used Google Test and Google Mock libraries), and, I don't know why but I actually think that TDD here was a step back in terms of rapid application development. I had some moments when I had to spend huge amounts of time thinking of my tests, building proper mocks, rebuilding them and swearing at my monitor. And, well, I obviously can't ask something like "what I did wrong?" or "what was wrong in my approach?", because I don't know what to describe. But if there are any people who are used to TDD in C++ (and, probably C#) too, could you please advise me how to do this properly. Framework recommendations, architecture approaches, plain coding advices - if you are experienced in TDD & C++, please respond.

  Read the article

• DotNetOpenAuth / WebSecurity Basic Info Exchange

  - by Jammer

  I've gotten a good number of OAuth logins working on my site now. My implementation is based on the WebSecurity classes with amends to the code to suit my needs (I pulled the WebSecurity source into mine). However I'm now facing a new set of problems. In my application I have opted to make the user email address the login identifier of choice. It's naturally unique and suits this use case. However, the OAuth "standards" strikes again. Some providers will return your email address as "username" (Google) some will return the display name (Facebook). As it stands I see to options given my particular scenario: Option 1 Pull even more framework source code into my solution until I can chase down where the OpenIdRelyingParty class is actually interacted with (via the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet facade) and make addition information requests from the OpenID Providers. Option 2 When a user first logs in using an OpenID provider I can display a kind of "complete registration" form that requests missing info based on the provider selected.* Option 2 is the most immediate and probably the quickest to implement but also includes some code smells through having to do something different based on the provider selected. Option 1 will take longer but will ultimately make things more future proof. I will need to perform richer interactions down the line so this also has an edge in that regard. The more I get into the code it does seem that the WebSecurity class itself is actually very limiting as it hides lots of useful DotNetOpenAuth functionality in the name of making integration easier. Andrew (the author of DNOA) has said that the Attribute Exchange stuff happens in the OpenIdRelyingParty class but I cannot see from the DotNetOpenAuth.AspNet source code where this class is used so I'm unsure of what source would need to be pulled into my code in order to enable the functionality I need. Has anyone completely something similar?

  Read the article

• How exactly do MbUnit's [Parallelizable] and DegreeOfParallelism work?

  - by BenA

  I thought I understood how MbUnit's parallel test execution worked, but the behaviour I'm seeing differs sufficiently much from my expectation that I suspect I'm missing something! I have a set of UI tests that I wish to run concurrently. All of the tests are in the same assembly, split across three different namespaces. All of the tests are completely independent of one another, so I'd like all of them to be eligible for parallel execution. To that end, I put the following in the AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: DegreeOfParallelism(8)] [assembly: Parallelizable(TestScope.All)] My understanding was that this combination of assembly attributes should cause all of the tests to be considered [Parallelizable], and that the test runner should use 8 threads during execution. My individual tests are marked with the [Test] attribute, and nothing else. None of them are data-driven. However, what I actually see is at most 5-6 threads being used, meaning that my test runs are taking longer than they should be. Am I missing something? Do I need to do anything else to ensure that all of my 8 threads are being used by the runner? N.B. The behaviour is the same irrespective of which runner I use. The GUI, command line and TD.Net runners all behave the same as described above, again leading me to think I've missed something. EDIT: As pointed out in the comments, I'm running v3.1 of MbUnit (update 2 build 397). The documentation suggests that the assembly level [parallelizable] attribute is available, but it does also seem to reference v3.2 of the framework despite that not yet being available. EDIT 2: To further clarify, the structure of my assembly is as follows: assembly - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - namespace - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute) - fixture - tests (each carrying only the [Test] attribute)

  Read the article

• MySQLPython is ignoring my my.cnf file. Where does it get its information?

  - by ?????

  When I try to use MySQLPython (via SQLAlchemy) I get the error File "/opt/local/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/MySQL_python-1.2.3c1-py2.6-macosx-10.6-x86_64.egg/MySQLdb/connections.py", line 188, in __init__ super(Connection, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs2) sqlalchemy.exc.OperationalError: (OperationalError) (2002, "Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/opt/local/var/run/mysql5/mysqld.sock' (2)") None None but no other mysql client on my machine sees it fine! My my.cnf file states: [client] port = 3306 socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [safe_mysqld] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [mysqld_safe] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock [mysqld] socket = /tmp/mysql/mysql.sock port = 3306 and the mysql.sock file is, indeed, located in /tmp/mysql I verified that ~/.my.cnf and /var/lib/mysql/my.cnf aren't overriding it. The mysql5 client program, etc, has no trouble connecting and neither does a groovy/grails installation on the same machine using jdbc/mysql connection thrilllap-2:~ swirsky$ mysql5 Welcome to the MySQL monitor. Commands end with ; or \g. Your MySQL connection id is 6 Server version: 5.1.47 Source distribution Copyright (c) 2000, 2010, Oracle and/or its affiliates. All rights reserved. This software comes with ABSOLUTELY NO WARRANTY. This is free software, and you are welcome to modify and redistribute it under the GPL v2 license Type 'help;' or '\h' for help. Type '\c' to clear the current input statement. mysql> show databases; +--------------------+ | Database | +--------------------+ | information_schema | | test | +--------------------+ 2 rows in set (0.00 sec) mysql> Why can't MySQLdb for python figure this out? Where would it look if not the my.cnf files?

  Read the article

• Using an embedded Word document to create a new instance of that document.

  - by jim

  For a variety of reasons that are immutable ... I have a Word document which contains a VBA application (the 'app document') which creates a new document based on another document (the 'template') which contains the framework for the new document. I want to embed the 'template' into the 'app document' so that I deliver one file and I know I am using the correct version of the 'template'. I have, so far, embedded the 'template' file into the 'app document' and can find it by looping through "ThisDocument.InlineShapes", looking at .Field.OleFormat.IconLabel to find the 'template' by its name. The inlineShape.Field.OleFormat.Object is the 'template' document itself, and I can .Activate it, which causes it to appear as a regular document. I try to do SaveAs, and it does in fact save the file as the name I give it, however, that saved-as file is not left open, just the embedded file. I can not .Activate the file and just save it, then open the saved file, but that seems more work than necessary. So ... is the way I am doing this "the way", or I have missed some obvious practice? TIA

  Read the article

• How do I initialize the controls in an InsertItemTemplate?

  - by Slauma

  I have - for instance - an asp:FormView which supports Read, Insert, Update, Delete and is bound to a DataSource: <asp:FormView ID="FormView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource1" > <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </EditItemTemplate> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("MyText") %>' /> </InsertItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> If I am in Read-Mode or Edit-Mode the control is initialized with the property MyText of the current object which is bound to the FormView. But when I go to Insert-Mode I do not have a "current object" (FormView1.DataItem is indeed null) and the controls are empty. If I want to have my TextBox control initialized with a specific value how can I do that? In which event can I hook in to set default values to the controls in the InsertItemTemplate? Especially I have in mind using an ObjectDataSource. I was expecting that the InsertItemTemplate is initialized with a business object which underlies my ObjectDataSource and which is created by the ASP.NET framework simply by using its default constructor when the InsertItemTemplate gets activated. In the default constructor I would init the class members to the default values I'd like to have in my controls of the InsertItemTemplate. But unfortunately that's not the case: No "default" object is created and bound to the FormView. So it seems I have to initialize all controls separately or to create the default object manually and bind it to the InsertItemTemplate of the FormView. But how and where can I do that? Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Problem with HiddenFor helper

  - by Dmitry Borovsky

  Hello. Model: public sealed class Model { public string Value { get; set; } } Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { return View(new Model { Value = "+" } ); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(Model model) { model.Value += "1"; return View(model); } } View: <%using (Html.BeginForm()){%> <%: Model.Value %> <%: Html.HiddenFor(model => model.Value) %> <input type="submit" value="ok"/> <%}%> Every time I submitted form result is <form action="/" method="post">+1 <input id="Value" name="Value" type="hidden" value="+"> <input type="submit" value="ok"> </form> It means that HiddenFor helper doesn't use real value of Model.Value but uses passed to controller one. Is it bug in MVC framework? Does anyone know workaround?

  Read the article

• Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

  - by bryan

  Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

  Read the article

• Setting up Inversion of Control (IoC) in ASP.NET MVC with Castle Windsor

  - by Lirik

  I'm going over Sanderson's Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework and in Chapter 4 he discusses Creating a Custom Controller Factory and it seems that the original method, AddComponentLifeStyle or AddComponentWithLifeStyle, used to register controllers is deprecated now: public class WindsorControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { IWindsorContainer container; public WindsorControllerFactory() { container = new WindsorContainer(new XmlInterpreter(new ConfigResource("castle"))); // register all the controller types as transient var controllerTypes = from t in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes() where typeof(IController).IsAssignableFrom(t) select t; //[Obsolete("Use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)) instead.")] //IWindsorContainer AddComponentLifeStyle<I, T>(string key, LifestyleType lifestyle) where T : class; foreach (Type t in controllerTypes) { container.Register(Component.For<IController>().ImplementedBy<???>().Named(t.FullName).LifeStyle.Is(LifestyleType.Transient)); } } // Constructs the controller instance needed to service each request protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { return (IController)container.Resolve(controllerType); } } The new suggestion is to use Register(Component.For<I>().ImplementedBy<T>().Named(key).Lifestyle.Is(lifestyle)), but I can't figure out how to present the implementing controller type in the ImplementedBy<???>() method. I tried ImplementedBy<t>() and ImplementedBy<typeof(t)>(), but I can't find the appropriate way to pass int he implementing type. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• return only the last select results from stored procedure

  - by Madalina Dragomir

  The requirement says: stored procedure meant to search data, based on 5 identifiers. If there is an exact match return ONLY the exact match, if not but there is an exact match on the not null parameters return ONLY these results, otherwise return any match on any 4 not null parameters... and so on My (simplified) code looks like: create procedure xxxSearch @a nvarchar(80), @b nvarchar(80)... as begin select whatever from MyTable t where ((@a is null and t.a is null) or (@a = t.a)) and ((@b is null and t.b is null) or (@b = t.b))... if @@ROWCOUNT = 0 begin select whatever from MyTable t where ((@a is null) or (@a = t.a)) and ((@b is null) or (@b = t.b))... if @@ROWCOUNT = 0 begin ... end end end As a result there can be more sets of results selected, the first ones empty and I only need the last one. I know that it is easy to get the only the last result set on the application side, but all our stored procedure calls go through a framework that expects the significant results in the first table and I'm not eager to change it and test all the existing SPs. Is there a way to return only the last select results from a stored procedure? Is there a better way to do this task ?

  Read the article

• JavaScript cookie value can't be retrieved in Django

  - by Boris Rusev

  I am trying to build a web site in both English and Bulgarian using the Django framework. My idea is the user should click on a button, the page will reload and the language will be changed. This is how I am trying to do it: In my html I hava a the button tag <button id='btn' onclick="changeLanguage();" type="button"> ... </button> An excerpt from cookies.js: function changeLanguage() { if (getCookie('language') == 'EN') { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'BG'); } else { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'EN'); } } function setCookie(sName, sValue, oExpires, sPath, sDomain, bSecure) { var sCookie = sName + "=" + encodeURIComponent(sValue); if (oExpires) { sCookie += "; expires=" + oExpires.toGMTString(); } if (sPath) { sCookie += "; path=" + sPath; } if (sDomain) { sCookie += "; domain=" + sDomain; } if (bSecure) { sCookie += "; secure"; } document.cookie = sCookie; } And in my views.py file this is the situation @base def index(request): if request.session['language'] == 'EN': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "Home" else request.session['language'] == 'BG': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "??????" So I know that my JS changes the value of the language cookie but I think Django doesn't get that. On the other hand when I set and get the cookie in my Python code again the cookie is set. My question is whether there is a way to make JS and Django work together - JavaScript sets the cookie value and Python only reads it when asked and takes adequate actions? Thank you.

  Read the article

• Invalid controller using custom routes

  - by AlexW

  I've been following the instruction on how to create custom routes from the book Zend Framework - A Beginners Guide I've changed my application.ini file to include this routing information: resources.router.routes.static-content.route = /content/:page resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.module = default resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.controller = static-content resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.view = static-content resources.router.routes.static-content.defaults.action = display Given the above configuration, I have this controller: <?php class Default_StaticContentController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function init() { /* Initialize action controller here */ } public function displayAction() { // action body $page = $this->getRequest()->getParam('page'); if (file_exists($this->view->getScriptPath(null) . '/' . $this->getRequest()->getControllerName() . '/' . $page . $this->viewSuffix )) { $this->render($page); } else { throw new Zend_Controller_Action_Exception('HLC - Page not found', 404); } } } I have a view named about.phtml in the APPLICATION_PATH/modules/default/views/static-content folder. What ahppens is I get an error saying: An error occurred Page not found Exception information: Message: Invalid controller class ("StaticContentController") Stack trace: #0 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Controller/Dispatcher/Standard.php(262): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->loadClass('StaticContentCo...') #1 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Controller/Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard->dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) #2 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Application/Bootstrap/Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front->dispatch() #3 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/zend/library/Zend/Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap->run() #4 /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/HLC/public/index.php(26): Zend_Application->run() #5 {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'page' => 'about', 'module' => 'default', 'controller' => 'static-content', 'view' => 'static-content', 'action' => 'display', ) Note that it is not rendering my customised Zend_Controller_Action_Exception but throwing the global error. I'm using the URL: http://hlc.local:8888/content/about The default index action works ok, just this routing that's not working.

  Read the article

• What could cause a PHP error on an include statement?

  - by J Jones

  I've got a bug in my PHP code that's been terrorizing me for several days now. I'm trying to clasp in a new module to an existing Magento (v1.4) site, though I'm very new to the Magento framework. I think I am pretty close to getting to "Hello, World" on a block that I want displayed in the backend, but I'm getting a 500 error when the menu item is selected. I managed to track it down (using echo stmts) to a line in the Layout.php file (app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Layout.php, line 472ish): if (class_exists($block, false) || mageFindClassFile($block)) { $temp = $block; echo "<p>before constructor: $temp</p>"; $block = new $block($attributes); echo "<p>after constructor: $temp</p>"; } For my block, this yields only "before constructor...", so I know this is what is failing. A little more debugging reveals that the class in $block (the new block I am trying to show) does not exist. I would have expected the __autoload function to take care of this, but none of my echos in __autoload are displaying. As a last ditch effort, I tried an include statement in Mage.php to the absolute location of the block class, but similar before and after echos reveal that that include statement becomes the breaking line. I'm tempted to start thinking "permissions", but I'm not well versed in the server management side of all this, and I have limited access to the test server (the test server belongs to the client). To anticipate the question: there are no errors reported in the PHP log file. I am actually not convinced that this site is reporting errors to the log file (I haven't seen anything from this site), though the client is certain that everything is turned on. IIS 7. Integrated mode, I'm pretty sure. Anyone know what could be causing this?

  Read the article

• Best practice to test a web application, regarding domain name and integration with external service

  - by ycseattle

  I have run into these problems several times and was never able to find a comfortable solution. Let's say my website has the domain name MyDomain.com. When I run the tests on the test machine (a continuous integration server), I will modify the HOSTS file on this machine so the MyDomain.com is mapped to this local machine instead of the real production server. This doesn't work very well for many situations. For example, my application will create subdomain names user1.MyDomain.com dynamically but this is difficult to keep the testing flexible. Another problem is my web application will interact with Amazon S3, and sometimes other service like Amazon Simple Message Queue. I am only comfortable to include these interaction in my tests but I am never happy with my solution for mixing testing and production on Amazon services. Could somebody offer some tips on these issues? I would like to make my testing framework clean and flexible. I am sure this is a common question for all web applications and there must be a mature way to deal with these. Thanks!

  Read the article

• PHP Overloading, singleton instance

  - by jamalali81

  I've sort of created my own MVC framework and am curious as to how other frameworks can send properties from the "controller" to the "view". Zend does something along the lines of $this->view->name = 'value'; My code is: file: services_hosting.php class services_hosting extends controller { function __construct($sMvcName) { parent::__construct($sMvcName); $this->setViewSettings(); } public function setViewSettings() { $p = new property; $p->banner = '/path/to/banners/home.jpg'; } } file: controller.php class controller { public $sMvcName = "home"; function __construct($sMvcName) { if ($sMvcName) { $this->sMvcName = $sMvcName; } include('path/to/views/view.phtml'); } public function renderContent() { include('path/to/views/'.$this->sMvcName.'.phtml'); } } file: property.php class property { private $data = array(); protected static $_instance = null; public static function getInstance() { if (null === self::$_instance) { self::$_instance = new self(); } return self::$_instance; } public function __set($name, $value) { $this->data[$name] = $value; } public function __get($name) { if (array_key_exists($name, $this->data)) { return $this->data[$name]; } } public function __isset($name) { return isset($this->data[$name]); } public function __unset($name) { unset($this->data[$name]); } } In my services_hosting.phtml "view" file I have: <img src="<?php echo $this->p->banner ?>" /> This just does not work. Am I doing something fundamentally wrong or is my logic incorrect? I seem to be going round in circles at the moment. Any help would be very much appreciated.

  Read the article

• Is there some formal way to update the browser detection files for ASP.Net?

  - by Deane

  I have an ASP.Net site on which we're using control adapters. We have the adapters mapped to a "refID" of "Default." These adapters are working fine on all browsers except Chrome and Safari. For those browsers, they do not execute. I've given up trying to figure out why -- I have a question here on SO that no one has been able to answer, and I've been researching it for days now. It's just inexplicable. I have tested the same code in my local environment, and it works just fine. Additionally, no one else can replicate my problem on other servers. It seems to be somehow confined to the machines at my client's site. Could they be somehow out-of-date? If this is the case, is there some way to "update" the .browser files? I'm half-tempted to just copy the .browser files out of the Framework directory from my machine over to theirs, but I'm curious is there's something more formal than this? Is there some other source of data that ASP.Net uses for browser detection other than these files?

  Read the article

• Can I use foreign key restrictions to return meaningful UI errors with PHP

  - by Shane

  I want to start by saying that I am a big fan of using foreign keys and have a tendency to use them even on small projects to keep my database from being filled with orphaned data. On larger projects I end up with gobs of keys which end up covering upwards of 8 - 10 layers of data. I want to know if anyone could suggest a graceful way of handling 'expected errors' from the MySQL database in a way that I can construct meaningful messages for the end user. I will explain 'expected errors' with an example. Lets say I have a set of tables used for basic discussions: discussion questions responses users Hierarchically they would probably look something like this: -users --discussion ---questions ----responses When I attempt to delete a user the FKs will check discussions and if any discussion exist the deletion is restricted, deleting discussion checks questions, deleting questions checks responses. An 'expected error' in this case would be attempting to delete a user--unless they are newly created I can anticipate that one or more foreign keys will fail causing an error. What I WANT to do is to catch that error on deletion and be able to tell the end user something like 'We're sorry, but all discussions must be removed before you can delete this user...'. Now I know I can keep and maintain matching arrays in PHP and map specific errors to messages but that is messy and prone to becoming stagnant, or I could manually run a set of selects prior to attempting the deletion, but then I am doing just as much work as without using FKs. Any help here would be greatly appreciated, or if I am just looking at this completely wrong then please let me know. On a side note I generally use CodeIgniter for my application development, so if that would open up an avenue through that framework please consider that in your answers. Thanks in Advance

  Read the article

• PHP package manager

  - by Mathias

  Hey, does anyone know a package manager library for PHP (as e.g. apt or yum for linux distros) apart from PEAR? I'm working on a system which should include a package management system for module management. I managed to get a working solution using PEAR, but using the PEAR client for anything else than managing a PEAR installation is not really the optimal solution as it's not designed for that. I would have to modify/extend it (e.g. to implement actions on installation/upgrade or to move PEAR specific files like lockfiles away from the system root) and especially the CLI client code is quite messy and PHP4. So maybe someone has some suggestions for an alternative PEAR client library which is easy to use and extend (the server side has some nice implementations like Pirum and pearhub) for completely different package management systems written in PHP (ideally including dependency tracking and different channels) for some general ideas how to implement such a PM system (yes, I'm still tinkering with the idea of implementing such a system from scratch) I know that big systems like Magento and symfony use PEAR for their PM. Magento uses a hacked version of the original PEAR client (which I'd like to avoid), symfony's implementation seems quite integrated with the framework, but would be a good starting point to at least write the client from scratch. Anyway, if anybody has suggestions: please :)

  Read the article

• C++ operator lookup rules / Koenig lookup

  - by John Bartholomew

  While writing a test suite, I needed to provide an implementation of operator<<(std::ostream&... for Boost unit test to use. This worked: namespace theseus { namespace core { std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } }} This didn't: std::ostream& operator<<(std::ostream& ss, const theseus::core::PixelRGB& p) { return (ss << "PixelRGB(" << (int)p.r << "," << (int)p.g << "," << (int)p.b << ")"); } Apparently, the second wasn't included in the candidate matches when g++ tried to resolve the use of the operator. Why (what rule causes this)? The code calling operator<< is deep within the Boost unit test framework, but here's the test code: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE(core_image) BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_output) { using namespace theseus::core; BOOST_TEST_MESSAGE(PixelRGB(5,5,5)); // only compiles with operator<< definition inside theseus::core std::cout << PixelRGB(5,5,5) << "\n"; // works with either definition BOOST_CHECK(true); // prevent no-assertion error } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_SUITE_END() For reference, I'm using g++ 4.4 (though for the moment I'm assuming this behaviour is standards-conformant).

  Read the article

• How can I implement an interface member in protected ?

  - by Nicolas Dorier

  Hi, I've been quite surprise when I saw the metadata of ReadOnlyObservableCollection in VS 2008... public class ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T> : ReadOnlyCollection<T>, INotifyCollectionChanged, INotifyPropertyChanged { // Summary: // Initializes a new instance of the System.Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T> // class that serves as a wrapper for the specified System.Collections.ObjectModel.ObservableCollection<T>. // // Parameters: // list: // The collection to wrap. public ReadOnlyObservableCollection(ObservableCollection<T> list); // Summary: // Occurs when an item is added or removed. protected virtual event NotifyCollectionChangedEventHandler CollectionChanged; // // Summary: // Occurs when a property value changes. protected virtual event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; // Summary: // Raises the System.Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T>.CollectionChanged // event. // // Parameters: // args: // The event data. protected virtual void OnCollectionChanged(NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs args); // // Summary: // Raises the System.Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyObservableCollection<T>.PropertyChanged // event. // // Parameters: // args: // The event data. protected virtual void OnPropertyChanged(PropertyChangedEventArgs args); } As you can see, CollectionChanged, a member of INotifyCollectionChanged is implemented in protected... and I can't do that in my own class. .NET framework should not compile ! Does someone has an explanation of this mystery ?

  Read the article

• Python and the self parameter

  - by Svend

  I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

  Read the article

• python tkinter gui

  - by Lewis Townsend

  I'm wanting to make a small python program for yearly temperatures. I can get nearly everything working in the standard console but I'm wanting to implement it into a GUI. The program opens a csv file reads it into lists, works out the average, and min & max temps. Then on closing the application will save a summary to a new text file. I am wanting the default start up screen to show All Years. When a button is clicked it just shows that year's data. Here is a what I want it to look like. Pretty simple layout with just the 5 buttons and the out puts for each. I can make up the buttons for the top fine with: Code: class App: def __init__(self, master): frame = Frame(master) frame.pack() self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="All Years", command=self.All) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="2011", command=self.Y1) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="2012", command=self.Y2) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="2013", command=self.Y3) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) self.hi_there = Button(frame, text="Save & Exit", command=self.Exit) self.hi_there.pack(side=LEFT) I'm not sure as to how to make the other elements, such as the title & table. I was going to post the code of the small program but decided not to. Once I have the structure/framework I think I can populate the fields & I might learn better this way. Using Python 2.7.3

  Read the article

• What is the corrrect way to increment a field making up part of a composit key

  - by Tr1stan

  I have a bunch of tables whose primary key is made up of the foreign keys of other tables (Composite key). Therefore for example the attributes (as a very cut down version) might look like this: A[aPK, SomeFields] 1:M B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields] 1:M C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields] as data this could look like: A[aPK, SomeFields]: 1, Foo 2, Bar B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, FooData1 2, 1, FooData2 1, 2, BarData1 2, 2, BarData2 C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, 1, FooData1More 2, 1, 1, FooData1More 1, 2, 1, FooData2More 2, 2, 1, FooData2More 1, 1, 2, BarData1More 2, 1, 2, BarData1More 1, 2, 2, BarData2More 2, 2, 2, BarData2More I've got this running in a MSSQL DBMS and I'm looking for the best way to increment the left most column, in each table when a new tuple is added to it. I can't use the Auto Increment Identity Specification option as that has no idea that it is part of a composite key. I also don't want to use any aggregate function such as: MAX(field)+1 as this will have adverse affects with multiple users inputting data, rolling back etc. There might however be a nice trigger based option here, but I'm not sure. This must be a common issue so I'm hoping that someone has a lovely solution. As a side which may or may not affect the answer, I'm using Entity Framework 1.0 as my ORM, within a c# MVC application.

  Read the article

• Credit Card storage solution

  - by jtnire

  Hi Everyone, I'm developing a solution that is designed to store membership details, as well as credit card details. I'm trying to comply with PCI DSS as much as I can. Here is my design so far: PAN = Primary account number == long number on credit card Server A is a remote server. It stores all membership details (Names, Address etc..) and provides indivudal Key A's for each PAN stored Server B is a local server, and actually holds the encrypted PANs, as well as Key B, and does the decryption. To get a PAN, the client has to authenticate with BOTH servers, ask Server A for the respective Key A, then give Key A to server B, which will return the PAN to the client (provided authentication was sucessful). Server A will only ever encrypt Key A with Server B's public Key, as it will have it beforehand. Server B will probably have to send a salt first though, however I doin't think that has to be encrypted I havn't really thought about any implementation (i.e. coding) specifics yet regarding the above, however the solution is using Java's Cajo framework (wrapper for RMI) so that is how the servers will communicate with each other (Currently, membership details are transfered in this way). The reason why I want Server B to do the decryption, and not the client, is that I am afraid of decryption keys going into the client's RAM, even though it's probably just as bad on the server... Can anyone see anything wrong with the above design? It doesn't matter if the above has to be changed. Thanks jtnire

  Read the article

• VB.NET 2008, Windows 7 and saving files

  - by James Brauman

  Hello, We have to learn VB.NET for the semester, my experience lies mainly with C# - not that this should make a difference to this particular problem. I've used just about the most simple way to save a file using the .NET framework, but Windows 7 won't let me save the file anywhere (or anywhere that I have found yet). Here is the code I am using to save a text file. Dim dialog As FolderBrowserDialog = New FolderBrowserDialog() Dim saveLocation As String = dialog.SelectedPath ... Build up output string ... Try ' Try to write the file. My.Computer.FileSystem.WriteAllText(saveLocation, output, False) Catch PermissionEx As UnauthorizedAccessException ' We do not have permissions to save in this folder. MessageBox.Show("Do not have permissions to save file to the folder specified. Please try saving somewhere different.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error) Catch Ex As Exception ' Catch any exceptions that occured when trying to write the file. MessageBox.Show("Writing the file was not successful.", "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error) End Try The problem is that this using this code throws an UnauthorizedAccessException no matter where I try to save the file. I've tried running the .exe file as administrator, and the IDE as administrator. Is this just Windows 7 being overprotective? And if so, what can I do to solve this problem? The requirements state that I be able to save a file! Thanks.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 562 563 564 565 566 567 568 569 570 571 572 573  | Next Page >