Search Results

Search found 29498 results on 1180 pages for 'object destruction'.

Page 576/1180 | < Previous Page | 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583  | Next Page >

• how to fill missing values from a list

  - by Stephane

  I have an object containing a date and a count. public class Stat { public DateTime Stamp {get; set;} public int Count {get; set ;} } I have a Serie object that holds a list of thoses Stat plus some more info such as name and so on... public class Serie { public string Name { get; set; } public List<Stat> Data { get; set; } ... } Consider that I have a List of Serie but the series don't all contain the same Stamps. I need to fill in the missing stamps in all series with a default value. I thought of an extension method with signature like this (please provide better name if you find one :) ) : public static IEnumerable<Serie> Equalize(this IEnumerable<ChartSerie> series, int defaultCount) this question seems to treat the same problem, but when querying directly the DB. of course I could loop through the dates and create another list. But is there any more elegant way to achieve this? i.e.: Serie A: 01.05.2010 1 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 I should get : Serie A : 01.05.2010 1 02.05.2010 0 03.05.2010 3 Serie B: 01.05.2010 5 02.05.2010 6 03.05.2010 0

  Read the article

• NUll exception in filling a querystring by mocing framework

  - by user564101

  There is a simple controller that a querystring is read in constructor of it. public class ProductController : Controller { parivate string productName; public ProductController() { productName = Request.QueryString["productname"]; } public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = productName; return View(); } } Also I have a function in unit test that create an instance of this Controller and I fill the querystring by a Mock object like below. [TestClass] public class ProductControllerTest { [TestMethod] public void test() { // Arrange var querystring = new System.Collections.Specialized.NameValueCollection { { "productname", "sampleproduct"} }; var mock = new Mock<ControllerContext>(); mock.SetupGet(p => p.HttpContext.Request.QueryString).Returns(querystring); var controller = new ProductController(); controller.ControllerContext = mock.Object; // Act var result = controller.Index() as ViewResult; // Assert Assert.AreEqual("Index", result.ViewName); } } Unfortunately Request.QueryString["productname"] is null in constructor of ProductController when I run test unit. Is ther any way to fill a querystrin by a mocking and get it in constructor of a control?

  Read the article

• Cached data accessed by reference?

  - by arthurdent510

  I am running into an odd problem, and this is the only thing I can think of. I'm storing a list in cache, and I am randomly losing items from my list as users use the site. I have a class that is called that either goes to cache and returns the list from there, or if the cache is over a certain time frame old, it goes to the database and refreshes the cache. So when I pull the data from cache, this is what it looks like.... results = (List<Software>)cache["software"]; And then I return results and do some processing, filter for security, and eventually it winds up on the screen. For each Software record, there can be multiple resources attached to it, and based on how the security goes they may see some, all, or none of the records. So in the security check it will remove some of those resources from the software record. So my question is.... when I return my results list, is it a reference directly to the cache object? So when I remove a resource from the software object, it is really removing from cache as well? If that is the case, is there any way to not return it as a reference? Thanks!

  Read the article

• A better way of getting a data table with various column types into string array

  - by Vlad

  This should be an easy one, looks like I got myself too confused. I get a table from a database, data ranges from varchar to int to Null values. Cheap and dirty way of converting this into a tab-delimited file that I already have is this (shrunken to preserve space, ugliness is kept on par with original): da.Fill(dt) ' da - DataAdapter ' ' dt - DataTable ' Dim lColumns As Long = dt.Columns.Count Dim arrColumns(dt.Columns.Count) As String Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object Dim j As Long = 0 Dim arrData(dt.Columns.Count) As Object For i = 0 To dt.Rows.Count - 1 arrData = dt.Rows(i).ItemArray() For j = 0 To arrData.GetUpperBound(0) - 1 arrColumns(j) = arrData(j).ToString Next wrtOutput.WriteLine(String.Join(strFieldDelimiter, arrColumns)) Array.Clear(arrColumns, 0, arrColumns.GetLength(0)) Array.Clear(arrData, 0, arrData.GetLength(0)) Next Not only this is ugly and inefficient, it is also getting on my nerves. Besides, I want, if possible, to avoid the infamous double-loop through the table. I would really appreciate a clean and safe way of rewriting this piece. I like the approach that is used here - especially that is trying to solve the same problem that I have, but it crashes on me when I apply it to my case directly.

  Read the article

• Rails 3 fields_for agressive loading?

  - by Seth

  Hi all, I'm trying to optimize (limit) queries in a view. I am using the fields_for function. I need to reference various properties of the object, such as username for display purposes. However, this is a rel table, so I need to join with my users table. The result is N sub-queries, 1 for each field in fields_for. It's difficult to explain, but I think you'll understand what I'm asking if I paste my code: <%= form_for @election do |f| %> <%= f.fields_for :voters do |voter| %> <%= voter.hidden_field :id %> <%= voter.object.user.preferred_name %> <% end %> <% end %> I have like 10,000 users, and many times each election will include all 10,000 users. That's 10,000 subqueries every time this view is loaded. I want fields_for to JOIN on users. Is this possible? I'd like to do something like: ... <%= f.fields_for :voters, :joins => :users do |voter| %> ... <% end %> ... But that, of course, doesn't work :(

  Read the article

• jtable update data not visible

  - by Thomas n

  I am running into a problem similar to what I have read here about inserted data and added data not showing up on jtable. I have tried repaint() and revalidate(), but to no avail. Basically, I have two classes say A and B. A calls a function in class B to add a row of data to the table. Here is the code.(By the way I am using Netbeans 7.1.2 to add a table and then add some code to handle the update.) public void callUpdateTable(){ DefaultTableModel myModel = (DefaultTableModel)jTable1.getModel(); DateFormat dateFormate = new SimpleDateFormat("MM/dd/yyyy HH:mm:ss"); Object[] str = new Object[3]; Date date = new Date(); str[0] = dateFormate.format(date); str[1] = "Robot"; str[2] = "hello"; // myModel.addRow(str); myModel.insertRow(1, str); myModel.setValueAt("Hello", 1, 2); System.out.println("count = " + myModel.getValueAt(1, 2)); jTable1.repaint(); } The funny thing is on system print it prints out the value at the cell(1,2) I set the value, but doesn't show up on the table. Thank you for your help.

  Read the article

• How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

  - by sycobuny

  I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

  Read the article

• Zend_Db Enum Values [Closed]

  - by scopus

  I find this solution $metadata = $result->getTable()->info('metadata'); echo $metadata['Continent']['DATA_TYPE']; Hi, I want to get enum values in Zend_Db. My Code: $select = $this->select(); $result = $select->fetchAll(); print_r($result->getTable()); Output: Example Object ( [_name] => country [query] => Zend_Db_Table_Select Object ( [_info:protected] => Array ( [schema] => [name] => country [cols] => Array ( [0] => Code [1] => Continent ) [primary] => Array ( [1] => Code ) [metadata] => Array ( [Continent] => Array ( [SCHEMA_NAME] => [TABLE_NAME] => country [COLUMN_NAME] => Continent [COLUMN_POSITION] => 3 [DATA_TYPE] => enum('Asia','Europe','North America','Africa','Oceania','Antarctica','South America') [DEFAULT] => Asia [NULLABLE] => [LENGTH] => [SCALE] => [PRECISION] => [UNSIGNED] => [PRIMARY] => [PRIMARY_POSITION] => [IDENTITY] => ) I see enum values in data_type but i don't get this values. How can get data_type?

  Read the article

• Java Graphics not displaying on successive function calls, why?

  - by primehunter326

  Hi, I'm making a visualization for a BST implementation (I posted another question about it the other day). I've created a GUI which displays the viewing area and buttons. I've added code to the BST implementation to recursively traverse the tree, the function takes in coordinates along with the Graphics object which are initially passed in by the main GUI class. My idea was that I'd just have this function re-draw the tree after every update (add, delete, etc...), drawing a rectangle over everything first to "refresh" the viewing area. This also means I could alter the BST implementation (i.e by adding a balance operation) and it wouldn't affect the visualization. The issue I'm having is that the draw function only works the first time it is called, after that it doesn't display anything. I guess I don't fully understand how the Graphics object works since it doesn't behave the way I'd expect it to when getting passed/called from different functions. I know the getGraphics function has something to do with it. Relevant code: private void draw(){ Graphics g = vPanel.getGraphics(); tree.drawTree(g,ORIGIN,ORIGIN); } vPanel is what I'm drawing on private void drawTree(Graphics g, BinaryNode<AnyType> n, int x, int y){ if( n != null ){ drawTree(g, n.left, x-10,y+10 ); if(n.selected){ g.setColor(Color.blue); } else{ g.setColor(Color.gray); } g.fillOval(x,y,20,20); g.setColor(Color.black); g.drawString(n.element.toString(),x,y); drawTree(g,n.right, x+10,y+10); } } It is passed the root node when it is called by the public function. Do I have to have: Graphics g = vPanel.getGraphics(); ...within the drawTree function? This doesn't make sense!! Thanks for your help.

  Read the article

• TreeView update bug in the VB.NET

  - by CFP

  Consider the following code: Dim Working As Boolean = False Private Sub TreeView1_AfterCheck(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.TreeViewEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.AfterCheck If Working Then Exit Sub Working = True e.Node.Checked = Not e.Node.Checked Working = False End Sub Private Sub TreeView1_MouseClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.MouseClick If e.Button = Windows.Forms.MouseButtons.Right Then MsgBox("Checked = " & TreeView1.SelectedNode.Checked) End Sub Where TreeView1 is a TreeView added to the form, with CheckBoxes set to true and one node added. The code basically cancel any node checking occuring on the form. Single-clicking the top node to check it works well : your click is immediately canceled. Yet if you double-click the checkbox, it will display a tick. But verifying the check state through a right click will yield a Checked = False dialog. How come? Is it a bug (I'm using the latest .Net Framework 4.0, and he same occurs in 2.0), or am I doing something wrong here? Is there a work around? Thanks! EDIT: Additionally, the MouseDoubleClick event is not raised before you click once again. EDIT 2: Posted a bug report at Microsoft Connect

  Read the article

• Detect whether or not a specific attribute was valid on the model

  - by Sir Code-A-Lot

  Having created my own validation attribute deriving from System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute, I wish to be able to detect from my controller, whether or not that specific attribute was valid on the model. My setup: public class MyModel { [Required] [CustomValidation] [SomeOtherValidation] public string SomeProperty { get; set; } } public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // Custom validation logic here } } Now, how do I detect from the controller whether validation of CustomValidationAttribute succeeded or not? I have been looking at the Exception property of ModelError in the ModelState, but I have no way of adding a custom exception to it from my CustomValidationAttribute. Right now I have resorted to checking for a specific error message in the ModelState: public ActionResult PostModel(MyModel model) { if(ModelState.Where(i => i.Value.Errors.Where((e => e.ErrorMessage == CustomValidationAttribute.SharedMessage)).Any()).Any()) DoSomeCustomStuff(); // The rest of the action here } And changed my CustomValidationAttribute to: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public static string SharedMessage = "CustomValidationAttribute error"; public override bool IsValid(object value) { ErrorMessage = SharedMessage; // Custom validation logic here } } I don't like relying on string matching, and this way the ErrorMessage property is kind of misused. What are my options?

  Read the article

• Weird behavior of matching array keys after json_decode()

  - by arnorhs

  I've got some very weird behavior in my PHP code. I don't know if this is actually a good SO question, since it almost looks like a bug in PHP. I had this problem in a project of mine and isolated the problem: // json object that will be converted into an array $json = '{"5":"88"}'; $jsonvar = (array) json_decode($json); // notice: Casting to an array // Displaying the array: var_dump($jsonvar); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($jsonvar["5"])); var_dump(isset($jsonvar[5])); That code outputs the following: array(1) { ["5"]=> string(2) "88" } bool(false) bool(false) The big problem: Both of those tests should produce bool(true) - if you create the same array using regular php arrays, this is what you'll see: // Let's create a similar PHP array in a regular manner: $phparr = array("5" => "88"); // Displaying the array: var_dump($phparr); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($phparr["5"])); var_dump(isset($phparr[5])); The output of that: array(1) { [5]=> string(2) "88" } bool(true) bool(true) So this doesn't really make sense. I've tested this on two different installations of PHP/apache. You can copy-paste the code to a php file yourself to test it. It must have something to do with the casting from an object to an array.

  Read the article

• Session does not giving right records?

  - by Jugal

  I want to keep one session, but when I rollback transaction then transaction gets isActive=false, so I can not commit and rollback in next statements by using same transaction. then I need to create new transaction but what is going wrong here ? var session = NHibernateHelper.OpenSession();/* It returns new session. */ var transaction1 = session.BeginTransaction(); var list1 = session.Query<Make>().ToList(); /* It returs 4 records. */ session.Delete(list1[2]); /* After Rollback, transaction is isActive=false so I can not commit * and rollback from this transaction in future. so I need to create new transaction. */ transaction1.Rollback(); var transaction2 = session.BeginTransaction(); /* It returns 3 records. * I am not getting object(which was deleted but after that rollback) here why ? */ var list2 = session.Query<Make>().ToList(); Anyone have idea what is going wrong here ? I am not getting deleted object which was rollback.

  Read the article

• Preloading Image Bug in IE6-8

  - by Kevin C.

  Page in question: http://phwsinc.com/our-work/one-rincon-hill.asp In IE6-8, when you click the left-most thumbnail in the gallery, the image never loads. If you click the thumbnail a second time, then it will load. I'm using jQuery, and here's my code that's powering the gallery: $(document).ready(function() { // PROJECT PHOTO GALLERY var thumbs = $('.thumbs li a'); var photoWrapper = $('div.photoWrapper'); if (thumbs.length) { thumbs.click( function(){ photoWrapper.addClass('loading'); var img_src = $(this).attr('href'); // The two lines below are what cause the bug in IE. They make the gallery run much faster in other browsers, though. var new_img = new Image(); new_img.src = img_src; var photo = $('#photo'); photo.fadeOut('slow', function() { photo.attr('src', img_src); photo.load(function() { photoWrapper.removeClass('loading'); photo.fadeIn('slow'); }); }); return false; }); } }); A coworker told me that he's always had problems with the js Image() object, and advised me to just append an <img /> element inside of a div set to display:none;, but that's a little messy for my tastes--I liked using the Image() object, it kept things nice and clean, no unnecessary added HTML markup. Any help would be appreciated. It still works without the image preloading, so if all else fails I'll just wrap the preloading in an if !($.browser.msie){ } and call it a day.

  Read the article

• How to lazy load a data structure (python)

  - by Anton Geraschenko

  I have some way of building a data structure (out of some file contents, say): def loadfile(FILE): return # some data structure created from the contents of FILE So I can do things like puppies = loadfile("puppies.csv") # wait for loadfile to work kitties = loadfile("kitties.csv") # wait some more print len(puppies) print puppies[32] In the above example, I wasted a bunch of time actually reading kitties.csv and creating a data structure that I never used. I'd like to avoid that waste without constantly checking if not kitties whenever I want to do something. I'd like to be able to do puppies = lazyload("puppies.csv") # instant kitties = lazyload("kitties.csv") # instant print len(puppies) # wait for loadfile print puppies[32] So if I don't ever try to do anything with kitties, loadfile("kitties.csv") never gets called. Is there some standard way to do this? After playing around with it for a bit, I produced the following solution, which appears to work correctly and is quite brief. Are there some alternatives? Are there drawbacks to using this approach that I should keep in mind? class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE self.F = None def __getattr__(self,name): if not self.F: print "loading %s" % self.FILE self.F = loadfile(self.FILE) return object.__getattribute__(self.F, name) What might be even better is if something like this worked: class lazyload: def __init__(self,FILE): self.FILE = FILE def __getattr__(self,name): self = loadfile(self.FILE) # this never gets called again # since self is no longer a # lazyload instance return object.__getattribute__(self, name) But this doesn't work because self is local. It actually ends up calling loadfile every time you do anything.

  Read the article

• What is a simple way to add a timer to a method

  - by John

  The following is in C#. I'm trying to do something very simple (I think). I have a method that loads an XML document XDocument doc = XDocument.Load(uri); , but I don't want to tie up pc resources if there are issues (connectivity, document size, etc.). So I'd like to be able to add a timeout variable that will cut the method off after a given number of seconds. I'm a newbie when it comes to asynchronous programming and find it confusing that there are so many examples written so many different ways . . . and none of them appear simple. I'd like a simple solution, if possible. Here's my thoughts so far on possible solution paths: 1) A method that wraps the existing load public XDocument LoadXDocument(string uri, int timeout){ //code } 2) A wrapper, but as an extension method XDocument doc = XDocument.LoadWithTimeout(string uri, int timeout); 3) A generic extension method. Object obj = SomeStaticClass.LoadWithTimeout(??? method, int timeout); 3), on its face seems really nice, because it would mean being able to generically add timeouts to many different method calls and not specifically tied to one type of object, but I suspect that it is either i)impossible or ii) very difficult. Please assist. Thanks.

  Read the article

• i not find how in powershell pass through http autentification then use a webservices (lotus/domino)

  - by user1716616

  We have here a domino/lotus webservices i want use with powershell. probleme is in front of webservices lotus admin ask a http autentification. how i can use this webservice?? here what i tryed first scrap the first page and get cookie. $url = "http://xxxxxxx/names.nsf?Login" $CookieContainer = New-Object System.Net.CookieContainer $postData = "Username=web.services&Password=jesuisunestar" $buffer = [text.encoding]::ascii.getbytes($postData) [net.httpWebRequest] $req = [net.webRequest]::create($url) $req.method = "POST" $req.Accept = "text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8" $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Language: en-US") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7") $req.AllowAutoRedirect = $false $req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" $req.ContentLength = $buffer.length $req.TimeOut = 50000 $req.KeepAlive = $true $req.Headers.Add("Keep-Alive: 300"); $req.CookieContainer = $CookieContainer $reqst = $req.getRequestStream() $reqst.write($buffer, 0, $buffer.length) $reqst.flush() $reqst.close() [net.httpWebResponse] $res = $req.getResponse() $resst = $res.getResponseStream() $sr = new-object IO.StreamReader($resst) $result = $sr.ReadToEnd() this seem work but now no idea how i can use cookie with a webservicesproxy??? ps: i success have this to work with c# + visualstudio (just the class reference is autobuilt and i don't understand half of this but it allow me to use .CookieContenaire on the generated webservice )

  Read the article

• Execute files included in Resource folder

  - by Sumeet Pujari

  In WPF application where I have included some files in resources, I want to execute them on a button click. How do I specify a path in Process.Start(). private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Process.Start("test.txt"); } Or is there any other way? private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string path = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location) + @"\test.txt"; if (File.Exists(path)) { Process.Start(new ProcessStartInfo(path)); } else { MessageBox.Show("No file found"+path); } I added a message box and it showed No files found. :( EDIT: I Tried to check the path after publishing and this what i got. No File Found With a Path - C:\Users\Administrator\AppData\Local\Apps\2.0... test.txt Before I published the Application I got a path which id No File Found at ..project..\bin\Debug\test.txt which is obvious since my Resource file not included there its Under a Resource Folder and not Debug when i add a test file in debug it open without any problem. Can someone Help throwing some light on this case. EDIT: I want to open a file from Resource directory @ C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\FastFix\FastFix\Resources Which would be included in my project when i am going to publish it is going to run as a standalone application without installation.

  Read the article

• Problem consuming a dataset via a .NET web service from Flex-ActionScript

  - by DEH

  Hi, I am returning a .NET dataset to Flex Actionscript via a web service. Actionscript snippet as follows: var websvc:WebService = new WebService(); websvc.useProxy=false; websvc.wsdl = "http://localhost:13229/test/mysvc.asmx?WSDL"; websvc.loadWSDL(); var operation:Operation = new Operation(null, "GetData"); operation.arguments.command="xx_gethierdata_"+mode+"_"+identifier; operation.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT, onResultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.addEventListener(FaultEvent.FAULT, onFaultHandler, false, 0, true); operation.resultFormat="object"; websvc.operations = [operation]; operation.send(); Once in the onResultHandler function I have access to the datatable - I then want to grab the column names. The following code outputs my column names: for each (var tcolumn:Object in datatable.Columns){trace('Column:'+tcolumn);} This works ok, but the column names are encoded, so a column name that is actually "1-9" is output as "_x005B_1-9_x005D_" Anyone know the best way to decode the column name? I could replace all the encoding strings, but surely there is a better way? Thanks

  Read the article

• XML digital signature interface

  - by yeekang

  I am trying to call a WebService and it requires me to prepare an XML digital signature interface. I came across this website and it shows how to sign an XML document. My problem now is that I do not create the XML document myself. My code is as follows: string myResult; GenericWS.ServicesService a = new GenericWS.ServicesService(); GenericWS.Service2 b = new GenericWS.Service2(); b.Something = "3"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile("C:\\somepath\\somecert.cer"); a.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); ServicePointManager.ServerCertificateValidationCallback = delegate (object s, X509Certificate certificate, X509Chain chain, SslPolicyErrors sslPolicyErrors) { return true; }; myResult= a.WSRequest(b).WSReturnValue.ToString(); Label1.Text = myResult; Basically, the WSRequest() will generate the body of the SOAP message. However, in order to sign the SOAP message, I need to pass in the XML file that needs to be signed. I tried to serialize the object and cast it as XML and pass it into the signature interface but I do not have another method that I can invoke to call the webmethod. Is there any other solution?

  Read the article

• problem with converting simple code from Winform to silverlight app.

  - by Sara

  Hi. I have this code for window form application and I have been attempting to convert it to a Silverlight application but it does not work!. There is a Textbox and I attached KeyDown event handler to it. when the user press the arrow key ( left or right) while the focus on the textbox, it will write . or -. When it is window form i used e.KeyCode and Keys.Right and its works great but when it is silverlight I used e.Key and key.Right and the program doesn't work good because the arrows do the 2 functions moving and write ./-. How I can work this out in Silverlight? (My English not good) The code ( window form): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left || e.KeyCode == Keys.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.KeyCode == Keys.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } (and Silverlight): private void textBox1_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (sender is TextBox) { TextBox textBox = (TextBox)sender; if (e.Key == Key.Left || e.Key == Key.Right) { e.Handled = true; char insert; if (e.Key == Key.Left) { insert = '.'; } else { insert = '-'; } int i = textBox.SelectionStart; textBox.Text = textBox.Text.Insert(i, insert.ToString()); textBox.Select(i + 1, 0); } } } I don't understand, is there huge different effect between using Keycode/Keys and Key/Key or because something else?

  Read the article

• Can this line of code really throw an IndexOutOfRange exception?

  - by Jonathan M

  I am getting an IndexOutOfRange exception on the following line of code: var searchLastCriteria = (SearchCriteria)Session.GetSafely(WebConstants.KeyNames.SEARCH_LAST_CRITERIA); I'll explain the above here: SearchCriteria is an Enum with only two values Session is the HttpSessionState GetSafely is an extension method that looks like this: public static object GetSafely(this HttpSessionState source, string key) { try { return source[key]; } catch (Exception exc) { log.Info(exc); return null; } } WebConstants.KeyNames.SEARCH_LAST_CRITERIA is simply a constant I've tried everything to replicate this error, but I cannot reproduce it. I am beginning to think the stack trace is wrong. I thought perhaps the exception was actually coming from the GetSafely call, but it is swallowing the exceptions, so that can't be the case, and even if it was, it should show up in the stack trace. Is there anything in the line of code above that could possible throw an IndexOutOfRange exception? I know the line will throw an NullReferenceException if GetSafely returns null, and it will also throw an InvalidCastException if it returns anything that cannot be cast to SearchCriteria, but an IndexOutOfRange exception? I'm scratching my head here. Here is the stack trace: $LOG--> 2010-06-11 07:01:33,814 [ERROR] SERVERA (14) Web.Global - Index was outside the bounds of the array. System.Web.HttpUnhandledException: Exception of type 'System.Web.HttpUnhandledException' was thrown. ---> System.IndexOutOfRangeException: Index was outside the bounds of the array. at IterateSearchResult(Boolean next) in C:\Projects\Web\UserControls\AccountHeader.ascx.cs:line 242 at nextAccountLink_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) in C:\Projects\Web\UserControls\AccountHeader.ascx.cs:line 232

  Read the article

• Generating all possible subsets of a given QuerySet in Django

  - by Glen

  This is just an example, but given the following model: class Foo(models.model): bar = models.IntegerField() def __str__(self): return str(self.bar) def __unicode__(self): return str(self.bar) And the following QuerySet object: foobar = Foo.objects.filter(bar__lt=20).distinct() (meaning, a set of unique Foo models with bar <= 20), how can I generate all possible subsets of foobar? Ideally, I'd like to further limit the subsets so that, for each subset x of foobar, the sum of all f.bar in x (where f is a model of type Foo) is between some maximum and minimum value. So, for example, given the following instance of foobar: >> print foobar [<Foo: 5>, <Foo: 10>, <Foo: 15>] And min=5, max=25, I'd like to build an object (preferably a QuerySet, but possibly a list) that looks like this: [[<Foo: 5>], [<Foo: 10>], [<Foo: 15>], [<Foo: 5>, <Foo: 10>], [<Foo: 5>, <Foo: 15>], [<Foo: 10>, <Foo: 15>]] I've experimented with itertools but it doesn't seem particularly well-suited to my needs. I think this could be accomplished with a complex QuerySet but I'm not sure how to start.

  Read the article

• xpath php attributes not working?

  - by Jared

  Getting this error Call to a member function attributes() on a non-object I have found multiple answers to this on SO, but none of them seem to solve my problem? Here is the XML: <Routes> <Route type="source" name="incoming"> </Route> <Routes> Here is the PHP: $doc = new SimpleXMLElement('routingConfig.xml', null, true); class traverseXML { function getData() { global $doc; $routeCount = count($doc -> xpath("Route")); //this value returns correctly $routeArr = array(); for ($i = 1; $i <= $routeCount; $i++) { $name = $doc -> Route[$i] -> attributes() -> name; array_push($routeArr, $name); } return $routeArr; } } $traverseXML = new traverseXML; var_dump($traverseXML -> getData()); I understand what the error means, but how is it a non-object? How do I return the name attribute of Routes/Route[1] ?

  Read the article

• How to animate a path like it's being drawn, dot by dot? (Raphael.js)

  - by Anton

  How to animate a vector path like it's being drawn by hand? In other words, slowly show the path pixel by pixel. I'm using Raphaël.js, but if your answer is not library specific—like maybe there's some general programming pattern for doing that kind of thing (I'm fairly new to vector animation)—it's welcome! Update I know it's easy to do with straight paths, as easy as an example on that page:: path("M114 253").animate({path: "M114 253 L 234 253"}); But try to change code on that page, say, this way:: path("M114 26").animate({path: "M114 26 C 24 23 234 253 234 253"}); And you'll see what I mean. Path is certainly animated from it initial state (point "M114 26") to the end state (curve "C 24 23 234 253 234 253" starting on point "M114 26"), but not in a way specified in question, not like it's being drawn. (Sorry for not making clear from the start that I don't mean animating straight lines.) I don't see how animateAlong can do that either. It can animate an object along a path, and how can I make this path to gradually show itself while object is being animated along it?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583  | Next Page >