Search Results

Search found 29498 results on 1180 pages for 'object destruction'.

Page 578/1180 | < Previous Page | 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585  | Next Page >

  • Extra NotifyIcon shown in system tray

    - by Kettch19
    I'm having an issue with an app where my NotifyIcon displays an extra icon. The steps to reproduce it are easy, but the problem is that the extra icon shows up after any of the actual codebehind we've added fires. Put simply, clicking a button triggers execution of method FooBar() which runs all the way through fine but its primary duty is to fire a backgroundworker to log into another of our apps. It only appears if this particular button is clicked. Strangely enough, we have a WndProc method override and if I step through until the extra NotifyIcon appears, it always appears during this method so something else beyond the codebehind must be triggering the behavior. Our WndProc method is currently (although I don't think it's caused by the WndProc): Protected Overrides Sub WndProc(ByRef m As System.Windows.Forms.Message) 'Check for WM_COPYDATA message from other app or drag/drop action and handle message If m.Msg = NativeMethods.WM_COPYDATA Then ' get the standard message structure from lparam Dim CD As NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT = m.GetLParam(GetType(NativeMethods.COPYDATASTRUCT)) 'setup byte array Dim B(CD.cbData) As Byte 'copy data from memory into array Runtime.InteropServices.Marshal.Copy(New IntPtr(CD.lpData), B, 0, CD.cbData) 'Get message as string and process ProcessWMCopyData(System.Text.Encoding.Default.GetString(B)) 'empty array Erase B 'set message result to 'true', meaning message handled m.Result = New IntPtr(1) End If 'pass on result and all messages not handled by this app MyBase.WndProc(m) End Sub The only place in the code where the NotifyIcon in question is manipulated at all is in the following event handler (again, don't think this is the culprit, but just for more info): Private Sub TrayIcon_MouseDoubleClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TrayIcon.MouseDoubleClick If Me.Visible Then Me.Hide() Else PositionBottomRight() Me.Show() End If End Sub The backgroundworker's DoWork is as follows (just a class call to log in to our other app, but again just for info): Private Sub LoginBackgroundWorker_DoWork(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles LoginBackgroundWorker.DoWork Settings.IsLoggedIn = _wdService.LogOn(Settings.UserName, Settings.Password) End Sub Does anyone else have ideas on what might be causing this or how to possibly further debug this? I've been banging my head on this without seeing a pattern so another set of eyes would be extremely appreciated. :) I've posted this on MSDN winforms forums as well and have had no luck there so far either.

    Read the article

  • memory leak when removing objects in NSMutableArray

    - by user262325
    Hello everyone I hope to store MYFileObj to NSMutableArray (fileArray) and display data on an UITavleView(tableview). //----------------------------------MYFileObj #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface MYFileObj : NSObject { NSString *fileName; } -(void) setFileName:(NSString *)s ; -(NSString *) fileName ; @end the array I want to store data NSMutableArray *fileArray; I created new object and add to fileArray MYFileObj *newobj=[[MYFileObj alloc] init ]; NSString *ss=[[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%@",path] ; [newobj setFileName:ss]; [ss release]; [fileArray addObject:newobj]; [newobj release]; [atableview reloadData]; After the first time relaodData and do something, I want to reload fileArray and redraw atableview. //code to remove all object in atableview if([fileArray count]>0) { [fileArray removeAllObjects]; [atableview reloadData]; } I notice that there are memory leak. I hope to know the method "removeAllObjects" removes only MYFileObj themselves or also removes MYFileObj's member property "fileName"? Thanks interdev

    Read the article

  • Getting setting cookies on different domains, with javascript or other

    - by Luca Matteis
    Haven't been able to find anything particular to this situation online so here i go... I need to set/get the cookies stored at "first.com" while browsing "second.com", I have full access of "first.com" but i only have javascript access (can manipulate the DOM as i want) on "second.com". My first approach was to create an iframe on second.com (with js) that loaded a page like "first.com/doAjax?setCookie=xxx" and that did an ajax call to say "first.com/setCookie?cookieData=xxx" which would set the cookie on "first.com" with the data we passed around. That pretty much worked fine for setting the cookie on first.com from second.com - for getting a cookie I basically followed the same procedure, created the iframe that loaded "first.com/doAjax?getCookie" and that would do an ajax call to say "first.com/getCookie" which would read the cookie info on first.com and return it as a JSON object. The problem is that I'm unable to bring that JSON cookie object back to "second.com" so I can read it, well maybe i could just bring it when the Ajax call is complete using "window.top" but there's timing issues because its not relative to when the iframe has been loaded. I hope i am clear and was wondering if there's an easier solution rather than this crazy iframe-ajax crap, also seems like this wont even work for getting cookies in SAFARI.

    Read the article

  • i not find how in powershell pass through http autentification then use a webservices (lotus/domino)

    - by user1716616
    We have here a domino/lotus webservices i want use with powershell. probleme is in front of webservices lotus admin ask a http autentification. how i can use this webservice?? here what i tryed first scrap the first page and get cookie. $url = "http://xxxxxxx/names.nsf?Login" $CookieContainer = New-Object System.Net.CookieContainer $postData = "Username=web.services&Password=jesuisunestar" $buffer = [text.encoding]::ascii.getbytes($postData) [net.httpWebRequest] $req = [net.webRequest]::create($url) $req.method = "POST" $req.Accept = "text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8" $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Language: en-US") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7") $req.AllowAutoRedirect = $false $req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" $req.ContentLength = $buffer.length $req.TimeOut = 50000 $req.KeepAlive = $true $req.Headers.Add("Keep-Alive: 300"); $req.CookieContainer = $CookieContainer $reqst = $req.getRequestStream() $reqst.write($buffer, 0, $buffer.length) $reqst.flush() $reqst.close() [net.httpWebResponse] $res = $req.getResponse() $resst = $res.getResponseStream() $sr = new-object IO.StreamReader($resst) $result = $sr.ReadToEnd() this seem work but now no idea how i can use cookie with a webservicesproxy??? ps: i success have this to work with c# + visualstudio (just the class reference is autobuilt and i don't understand half of this but it allow me to use .CookieContenaire on the generated webservice )

    Read the article

  • Getting values from another winform and passing it to current!

    - by klm9971
    Hello: I have 2 windows forms. The 1st one who gets active during start of the program has a button in which another 2nd windows form appears which has text field in which user type their name and HIT okay. Now in the 1st form I have a variable name: nameproccessed which takes the name from the second form. But the problem is my button which is in the 1st form has more functions besides taking name, how can I stop the flow of the compiler to take first the name from the second form and then process the rest execution of the function??? Here is the snippet of my code: //1st form //Class1 public string _nameProcessed = ""; private void btnGetSomething_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { showdial(); //some more functionalities in this function!!! } private void showdial() { InputName inm = new InputName(); inm.Show(); } //2nd form //Class2 public string name; private void btnEnterName_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { name = tbxName.Text; Class1 ict = new Class1(); ict._nameProcessed = name; this.Close(); } Now I want to take the 'name' from the second form put it on the _nameprocessed in the 1st form and then execute the rest of the function. How can I do that? Any help!

    Read the article

  • How to optimalize my game calendar in C#?

    - by MartyIX
    Hi, I've implemented a simple calendar (message system) for my game which consists from: 1) List<Event> calendar; 2) public class Event { /// <summary> /// When to process the event /// </summary> public Int64 when; /// <summary> /// Which object should process the event /// </summary> public GameObject who; /// <summary> /// Type of event /// </summary> public EventType what; public int posX; public int posY; public int EventID; } 3) calendar.Add(new Event(...)) The problem with this code is that even thought the number of messages is not excessise per second. It allocates still new memory and GC will once need to take care of that. The garbage collection may lead to a slight lag in my game and therefore I'd like to optimalize my code. My considerations: To change Event class in a structure - but the structure is not entirely small and it takes some time to copy it wherever I need it. Reuse Event object somehow (add queue with used events and when new event is needed I'll just take from this queue). Does anybody has other idea how to solve the problem? Thanks for suggestions!

    Read the article

  • How to implement iterator as an attribute of a class in Java

    - by de3
    Hi, let's say I have this simple MyArray class, with two simple methods: add, delete and an iterator. In the main method we can see how it is supposed to be used: public class MyArray { int start; int end; int[] arr; myIterator it; public MyArray(){ this.start=0; this.end=0; this.arr=new int[500]; it=new myIterator(); } public void add(int el){ this.arr[this.end]=el; this.end++; } public void delete(){ this.arr[this.start]=0; this.start++; } public static void main(String[] args){ MyArray m=new MyArray(); m.add(3); m.add(299); m.add(19); m.add(27); while(m.it.hasNext()){ System.out.println(m.it.next()); } } And then MyIterator should be implemented somehow: import java.util.Iterator; public class myIterator implements Iterator{ @Override public boolean hasNext() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } @Override public Object next() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public void remove() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } MyIterator should iterate arr from MyArray class, from start to end values; both are also attributes of MyArray. So, as MyIterator should use MyArray attributes, how should MyIterator be implemented? Perhaps I can send the current object in the initialization: it=new myIterator(this); But I guess it's not the best soultion. Or maybe MyArray itself should implement Iterator interface? How is this solved?

    Read the article

  • lambda expressions in VB.NET... what am I doing wrong???

    - by Bob
    when I run this C# code, no problems... but when I translate it into VB.NET it compiles but blows due to 'CompareString' member not being allowed in the expression... I feel like I'm missing something key here... private void PrintButton_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1) { //Context using (ClientOM.ClientContext ctx = new ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text)) { //Get selected list string listTitle = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString(); ClientOM.Web site = ctx.Web; ctx.Load(site, s => s.Lists.Where(l => l.Title == listTitle)); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); ClientOM.List list = site.Lists[0]; //Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, l => l.Fields.Where(f => f.Hidden == false && (f.CanBeDeleted == true || f.InternalName == "Title"))); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); //Get items for the list ClientOM.ListItemCollection listItems = list.GetItems( ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()); ctx.Load(listItems); ctx.ExecuteQuery(); // DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE } MessageBox.Show("Document Created!"); } } but in VB.NET code this errors due to not being allowed 'CompareString' members in the ctx.Load() methods... Private Sub PrintButton_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) If ListsListBox.SelectedIndex > -1 Then 'Context Using ctx As New ClientOM.ClientContext(UrlTextBox.Text) 'Get selected list Dim listTitle As String = ListsListBox.SelectedItem.ToString() Dim site As ClientOM.Web = ctx.Web ctx.Load(site, Function(s) s.Lists.Where(Function(l) l.Title = listTitle)) ctx.ExecuteQuery() Dim list As ClientOM.List = site.Lists(0) 'Get fields for this list ctx.Load(list, Function(l) l.Fields.Where(Function(f) f.Hidden = False AndAlso (f.CanBeDeleted = True OrElse f.InternalName = "Title"))) ctx.ExecuteQuery() 'Get items for the list Dim listItems As ClientOM.ListItemCollection = list.GetItems(ClientOM.CamlQuery.CreateAllItemsQuery()) ctx.Load(listItems) ' DOCUMENT CREATION CODE GOES HERE ctx.ExecuteQuery() End Using MessageBox.Show("Document Created!") End If End Sub

    Read the article

  • DataTrigger not reevaluating after property changes

    - by frozen
    I have a listbox which has its itemssource (this is done in the code behind on as the window is created) databound to an observable collection. The List box then has the following data template assigned against the items: usercontrol.xaml ... <ListBox x:Name="communicatorListPhoneControls" ItemContainerStyle="{StaticResource templateForCalls}"/> ... app.xaml ... <Style x:Key="templateForCalls" TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateRinging}"/> <Style.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding Path=hasBeenAnswered}" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate" Value="{StaticResource templateAnswered}"/> </DataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> ... When the observable collection is updated with an object, this appears in the listbox with the correct initial datatemplate, however when the "hasBeenAnswered" property is set to true (when debugging i can see the collection is correct) the datatrigger does not re-evaluate and then update the listbox to use the correct data template. I have implemented the INotifyPropertyChanged Event in my object, and if in the template i bind to a value, i can see the value update. Its just that the datatrigger will not re-evaluate and change to the correct template. I know the datatrigger binding is correct because if i close the window and open it again, it will correctly apply the second datatemplate, because the "hasBeenAnswered" is set to True.

    Read the article

  • What is the best approach to embed mp4 for the iPhone without using JavaScript?

    - by usingtechnology
    I am trying to troubleshoot this code and am running into a dead-end, so I thought I would ask my first question here. I have three questions: 1) What is the best approach to embed an mp4 for an iPhone specific view, preferably without using Javascript? 2) Are there any preferred practices to debug code on an iPhone? 3) Can anyone tell me what is wrong with my specific code below? I should mention upfront that the variable $fileName does indeed contain the correct info, I've just omitted that portion of the code. Also, the poster image does flicker for a brief moment before I receive the greyed out, broken QuickTime image so that is an indication that this is partially working. Code: <object width="448" height="335" classid="clsid:02BF25D5-8C17-4B23-BC80-D3488ABDDC6B" codebase="http://www.apple.com/qtactivex/qtplugin.cab"> <param name="src" value="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" /> <param name="href" value="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" /> <param name="target" value="myself" /> <param name="controller" value="true" /> <param name="autoplay" value="false" /> <param name="scale" value="aspect" /> <embed src="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" href="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" type="video/mp4" target="myself" width="448" height="335" scale="aspect" controller="false" autoplay="false"> </embed> </object>

    Read the article

  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

    Read the article

  • Need help getting parent reference to child view controller

    - by Andy
    I've got the following code in one of my view controllers: - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { switch (indexPath.section) { case 0: // "days" section tapped { DayPicker *dayPicker = [[DayPicker alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewStylePlain]; dayPicker.rowLabel = self.activeDaysLabel; dayPicker.selectedDays = self.newRule.activeDays; [self.navigationController pushViewController:dayPicker animated:YES]; [dayPicker release]; break; ... Then, in the DayPicker controller, I do some stuff to the dayPicker.rowLabel property. Now, when the dayPicker is dismissed, I want the value in dayPicker.rowLabel to be used as the cell.textLabel.text property in the cell that called the controller in the first place (i.e., the cell label becomes the option that was selected within the DayPicker controller). I thought that by using the assignment operator to set dayPicker.rowLabel = self.activeDaysLabel, the two pointed to the same object in memory, and that upon dismissing the DayPicker, my first view controller, which uses self.activeDaysLabel as the cell.textLabel.text property for the cell in question, would automagically pick up the new value of the object. But no such luck. Have I missed something basic here, or am I going about this the wrong way? I originally passed a reference to the calling view controller to the child view controller, but several here told me that was likely to cause problems, being a circular reference. That setup worked, though; now I'm not sure how to accomplish the same thing "the right way." As usual, thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • PHP: Check if 0?

    - by tarnfeld
    Hi, I am using a class which returns me the value of a particular row and cell of an excel spreadsheet. To build up an array of one column I am counting the rows and then looping through that number with a for() loop and then using the $array[] = $value to set the incrementing array object's value. This works great if none of the values in a cell are 0. The class returns me a number 0 so it's nothing to do with the class, I think it's the way I am looping through the rows and then assigning them to the array... I want to carry through the 0 value because I am creating graphs with the data afterwards, here is the code I have. // Get Rainfall $rainfall = array(); for($i=1;$i<=$count;$i++) { if($data->val($i,2) != 'Rainfall') // Check if not the column title { $rainfall[] = $data->val($i,2); } } For your info $data is the excel spreadsheet object and the method $data->val(row,col) is what returns me the value. In this case I am getting data from column 2. Screenshot of spreadsheet http://cl.ly/1Dmy Thanks! All help is very much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Button inside a repeater with dropdownlist

    - by TheAlbear
    I have a repeater with a literal, a dropdown list, and a button. <asp:Repeater ID="Repeater1" runat="server" OnItemDataBound="rep_ItemDataBound" onitemcommand="Repeater1_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <div class="buypanel"> <ul> <li>Choose finish <asp:DropDownList ID="ddlFinish" runat="server"></asp:DropDownList></li> <li>Qty <asp:Literal ID="ltQty" runat="server"></asp:Literal></li> <li><asp:Button ID="butBuy" runat="server" Text="Button" /></li> </ul> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> I am binding all the information in the code behind like protected void rep_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { Products product = (Products) e.Item.DataItem; //Dropdownlist to be bound. //Set Buy Button var butBuy = (Button) e.Item.FindControl("butBuy"); butBuy.CommandName = "Buy"; butBuy.CommandArgument = product.Id.ToString(); } } and i have my itemcommand to pick up on the button click protected void Repeater1_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { if(e.CommandName == "Buy") { } } I am not sure how, with a given button click, to pickup the right information from the text box and dropdown list which is along side it?

    Read the article

  • Windows Form UserControl design time properties

    - by Raffaeu
    I am struggling with a UserControl. I have a UserControl that represent a Pager and it has a Presenter object property exposed in this way: [Browsable(false)] [DesignSerializationAttribute(DesignSerializationAttribute.Hidden)] public object Presenter { get; set; } The code itself works as I can drag and drop a control into a Windows From without having Visual Studio initializing this property. Now, because in the Load event of this control I call a method of the Presenter that at run-time is null ... I have introduced this additional code: public override void OnLoad(...) { if (this.DesignMode) { base.OnLoad(e); return; } presenter.OnViewReady(); } Now, every time I open a Window that contains this UserControl, Visual Studio modifies the Windows designer code. So, as soon as I open it, VS ask me if I want to save it ... and of course, if I add a control to the Window, it doesn't keep the changes ... As soon as I remove the UserControl Pager the problem disappears ... How should I tackle that in the proper way? I just don't want that the presenter property is initialized at design time as it is injected at runtime ...

    Read the article

  • How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

    - by Yeodave
    Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

    Read the article

  • Passing mix of T and T[] to a Java varargs method

    - by rfalke
    Suppose you have a Java method void foobar(int id, String ... args) and want to pass both String arrays and Strings into the method. Like this String arr1[]={"adas", "adasda"}; String arr2[]={"adas", "adasda"}; foobar(0, "adsa", "asdas"); foobar(1, arr1); foobar(2, arr1, arr2); foobar(3, arr1, "asdas", arr2); In Python there is "*" for this. Is there some way better than such rather ugly helper method: static String[] concat(Object... args) { List<String> result = new ArrayList<String>(); for (Object arg : args) { if (arg instanceof String) { String s = (String) arg; result.add(s); } else if (arg.getClass().isArray() && arg.getClass().getComponentType().equals(String.class)) { String arr[] = (String[]) arg; for (String s : arr) { result.add(s); } } else { throw new RuntimeException(); } } return result.toArray(new String[result.size()]); } which allows foobar(4, concat(arr1, "asdas", arr2));

    Read the article

  • How to do something when AVQueuePlayer finishes the last playeritem

    - by user1634529
    I've got an AVQueuePlayer which I'm creating from an array of 4 AVPlayerItems, and it all plays fine. I want to do something when the last item in the queue finishes playing, I've looked a load of answers on here and this is the one that looks most promising for what I want: The best way to execute code AFTER a sound has finished playing In my button handler i have this code: static const NSString *ItemStatusContext; [thePlayerItemA addObserver:self forKeyPath:@"status" options:0 context:&ItemStatusContext]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(playerItemDidReachEnd) name:AVPlayerItemDidPlayToEndTimeNotification object:thePlayerItemA]; theQueuePlayer = [AVQueuePlayer playerWithPlayerItem:thePlayerItemA]; [theQueuePlayer play]; and then I have a function to handle playerItemDidReachEnd: - (void)playerItemDidReachEnd:(NSNotification *)notification { // Do stuff here NSLog(@"IT REACHED THE END"); } But when I run this I get an Internal Inconsistency Exception: An -observeValueForKeyPath:ofObject:change:context: message was received but not handled. Key path: status Observed object: <AVPlayerItem: 0x735a130, asset = <AVURLAsset: 0x73559c0, URL = file://localhost/Users/mike/Library/Application%20Support/iPhone%20Simulator/5.0/Applications/A0DBEC13-2DA6-4887-B29D-B43A78E173B8/Phonics%2001.app/yes.mp3>> Change: { kind = 1; } What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Unable to Connect to Management Studio Server

    - by Phil Hilliard
    I have a nasty situation. I am using Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio Express edition locally on my pc for testing, and once tested I upload database changes to a remote server. I have a situation where I deleted the Default Database on my local machine, and instead of searching hard enough to find an answer to that problem, I uninstalled and reinstalled Management Studio. Since then Management Studio has not been able to connect to the server. Is there any help (or hope for me for that matter), out there????? The following is the detailed error message: =================================== Cannot connect to LENOVO-E7A54767\SQLEXPRESS. =================================== A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) ------------------------------ For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&EvtSrc=MSSQLServer&EvtID=-1&LinkId=20476 ------------------------------ Error Number: -1 Severity: 20 State: 0 ------------------------------ Program Location: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Connect(ServerInfo serverInfo, SqlInternalConnectionTds connHandler, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, Boolean encrypt, Boolean trustServerCert, Boolean integratedSecurity, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.VSIntegration.ObjectExplorer.ObjectExplorer.ValidateConnection(UIConnectionInfo ci, IServerType server) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.ConnectionDlg.Connector.ConnectionThreadUser()

    Read the article

  • Writing a generic function that can take a Writer as well as an OutputStream

    - by ebruchez
    I wrote a couple of functions that look like this: def myWrite(os: OutputStream) = {} def myWrite(w: Writer) = {} Now both are very similar and I thought I would try to write a single parametrized version of the function. I started with a type with the two methods that are common in the Java OutputStream and Writer: type Writable[T] = { def close() : Unit def write(cbuf: Array[T], off: Int, len: Int): Unit } One issue is that OutputStream writes Byte and Writer writes Char, so I parametrized the type with T. Then I write my function: def myWrite[T, A[T] <: Writable[T]](out: A[T]) = {} and try to use it: val w = new java.io.StringWriter() myWrite(w) Result: <console>:9: error: type mismatch; found : java.io.StringWriter required: ?A[ ?T ] Note that implicit conversions are not applicable because they are ambiguous: both method any2ArrowAssoc in object Predef of type [A](x: A)ArrowAssoc[A] and method any2Ensuring in object Predef of type [A](x: A)Ensuring[A] are possible conversion functions from java.io.StringWriter to ?A[ ?T ] myWrite(w) I tried a few other combinations of types and parameters, to no avail so far. My question is whether there is a way of achieving this at all, and if so how. (Note that the implementation of myWrite will need, internally, to know the type T that parametrizes the write() method, because it needs to create a buffer as in new ArrayT.)

    Read the article

  • Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

    - by yarmiganosca
    Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

    Read the article

  • C# Automatic Properties - Still null after +=?

    - by Sam Schutte
    This seems like a bug to me... I accept that automatic properties, defined as such: public decimal? Total { get; set; } Will be null when they are first accessed. They haven't been initialized, so of course they are null. But, even after setting their value through +=, this decimal? still remains null. So after: Total += 8; Total is still null. How can this be correct? I understand that it's doing a (null + 8), but seems strange that it doesn't pick up that it means it should just be set to 8... Addendums: I made the "null + 8" point in my question - but notice that it works with strings. So, it does null + "hello" just fine, and returns "hello". Therefore, behind the scenes, it is initializing the string to a string object with the value of "hello". The behavior should be the same for the other types, IMO. It might be because a string can accept a null as a value, but still, a null string is not an initialized object, correct? Perhaps it's just because a string isn't a nullable...

    Read the article

  • C++ ulong to class method pointer and back

    - by Simone Margaritelli
    Hi guys, I'm using a hash table (source code by Google Inc) to store some method pointers defined as: typedef Object *(Executor::*expression_delegate_t)( vframe_t *, Node * ); Where obviously "Executor" is the class. The function prototype to insert some value to the hash table is: hash_item_t *ht_insert( hash_table_t *ht, ulong key, ulong data ); So basically i'm doing the insert double casting the method pointer: ht_insert( table, ASSIGN, reinterpret_cast<ulong>( (void *)&Executor::onAssign ) ); Where table is defined as a 'hash_table_t *' inside the declaration of the Executor class, ASSIGN is an unsigned long value, and 'onAssign' is the method I have to map. Now, Executor::onAssign is stored as an unsigned long value, its address in memory I think, and I need to cast back the ulong to a method pointer. But this code: hash_item_t* item = ht_find( table, ASSIGN ); expression_delegate_t delegate = reinterpret_cast < expression_delegate_t > (item->data); Gives me the following compilation error : src/executor.cpp:45: error: invalid cast from type ‘ulong’ to type ‘Object* (Executor::*)(vframe_t*, Node*)’ I'm using GCC v4.4.3 on a x86 GNU/Linux machine. Any hints?

    Read the article

  • decoding jquery json data in php

    - by Mac Taylor
    hey guys recenlty i made a script to move objects and save the orders now i have a little to do to finish this script everything works fine , just one question : how can i save not numeric data in my json script this is my script : function updateWidgetData(){ var items=[]; $('.widget-title').each(function(){ var weightId=$(this).attr('id'); $('.column').each(function(){ var columnId=$(this).attr('id'); $('.widget', this).each(function(i){ var collapsed=0; if($(this).find('.widget-inside').css('display')=="none") collapsed=1; //Create Item object for current panel var item={ id: $(this).attr('id'), collapsed: collapsed, order : i, column: columnId, weight: weightId }; //Push item object into items array items.push(item); }); }); }); //Assign items array to sortorder JSON variable var sortorder={ items: items }; //Pass sortorder variable to server using ajax to save state $.post('updatePanels.php', 'data='+$.toJSON(sortorder), function(response){ if(response=="success") $("#console").html('<div class="success">Saved</div>').hide().fadeIn(1000); setTimeout(function(){ $('#console').fadeOut(1000); }, 2000); }); } and this is my php script : $data=json_decode($_POST["data"]); foreach($data->items as $item) { //Extract column number for panel $col_id=preg_replace('/[^\d\s]/', '', $item->column); //Extract id of the panel $widget_id=preg_replace('/[^\d\s]/', '', $item->id); $sql="UPDATE widgets SET column_id='$col_id', sort_no='".$item->order."', collapsed='".$item->collapsed."' WHERE id='".$widget_id."'"; mysql_query($sql) or die('Error updating widget DB'); } echo "success"; everything works fine till i use numeric value for columns' id but i need non numeric values forexample id='columnr' i want to extract r but i cant get it right any help plz !?

    Read the article

  • Is method reference caching a good idea in Java 8?

    - by gexicide
    Consider I have code like the following: class Foo { Y func(X x) {...} void doSomethingWithAFunc(Function<X,Y> f){...} void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(this::func); } } Consider that hotFunction is called very often. Would it then be advisable to cache this::func, maybe like this: class Foo { Function<X,Y> f = this::func; ... void hotFunction(){ doSomethingWithAFunc(f); } } As far as my understanding of java method references goes, the Virtual Machine creates an object of an anonymous class when a method reference is used. Thus, caching the reference would create that object only once while the first approach creates it on each function call. Is this correct? Should method references that appear at hot positions in the code be cached or is the VM able to optimize this and make the caching superfluous? Is there a general best practice about this or is this highly VM-implemenation specific whether such caching is of any use?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582 583 584 585  | Next Page >