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  • HLSL tex2d sampler seemingly using inconsistent rounding; why?

    - by RJFalconer
    Hello all, I have code that needs to render regions of my object differently depending on their location. I am trying to use a colour map to define these regions. The problem is when I sample from my colour map, I get collisions. Ie, two regions with different colours in the colourmap get the same value returned from the sampler. I've tried various formats of my colour map. I set the colours for each region to be "5" apart in each case; Indexed colour RGB, RGBA: region 1 will have RGB 5%,5%,5%. region 2 will have RGB 10%,10%,10% and so on. HSV Greyscale: region 1 will have HSV 0,0,5%. region 2 will have HSV 0,0,10% and so on. (Values selected in The Gimp) The tex2D sampler returns a value [0..1]. [ I then intend to derive an int array index from region. Code to do with that is unrelated, so has been removed from the question ] float region = tex2D(gColourmapSampler,In.UV).x; Sampling the "5%" colour gave a "region" of 0.05098 in hlsl. From this I assume the 5% represents 5/100*255, or 12.75, which is rounded to 13 when stored in the texture OR when sampled by the sampler; can't tell which. (Reasoning: 0.05098 * 255 ~= 13) By this logic, the 50% should be stored as 127.5. Sampled, I get 0.50196 which implies it was stored as 128. the 70% should be stored as 178.5. Sampled, I get 0.698039, which implies it was stored as 178. What rounding is going on here? (127.5 becomes 128, 178.5 becomes 178 ?!) Edit: OK, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bankers_rounding#Round_half_to_even Apparently this is "banker's rounding". Is this really what HLSL samplers use? I am using Shader Model 2 and FX Composer. This is my sampler declaration; //Colour map texture gColourmapTexture < string ResourceName = "Globe_Colourmap_Regions_Greyscale.png"; string ResourceType = "2D"; >; sampler2D gColourmapSampler : register(s1) = sampler_state { Texture = <gColourmapTexture>; #if DIRECT3D_VERSION >= 0xa00 Filter = MIN_MAG_MIP_LINEAR; #else /* DIRECT3D_VERSION < 0xa00 */ MinFilter = Linear; MipFilter = Linear; MagFilter = Linear; #endif /* DIRECT3D_VERSION */ AddressU = Clamp; AddressV = Clamp; };

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  • Rails has-and-belongs-to-many form question

    - by swilliams
    Sorry for the semi-generic title, but I'm still pretty new at rails and couldn't think of a succinct way to put the question. I have a basic habtm model setup: a Project has many Resources and a Resource can have many Projects. I have the database and models setup properly, and can do everything I need to via the console, but I'm having trouble translating it all into the view. On the show view for the Project, I want to be able to create a Resource and automatically assign it to the current Project. Here's my basic html: <p> <b>Name:</b> <%=h @project.name %> </p> <h2>Equipment</h2> <ul> <% @project.resources.each do |r| %> <li><%=h r.name %></li> <% end %> </ul> <h2>Add A Resource</h2> <% form_for(@project) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> Resource Name:<br /> <%= f.text_field :resources %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> Obviously, that form won't work, but I'm at a loss for what to do next. I've searched around for various examples, but haven't found one for what I'm trying to do here. One thing I've thought of was to change the form to be form_for(Resource.new) and include a hidden input of the @project.id. And then when the resource_controller handles the form, check for that id and go from there. That seems like an ugly kludge though.

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  • how to handle a array of objects in a session

    - by Robert
    Hello, In the project I'm working on I have got a list List<Item> with objects that Is saved in a session. Session.Add("SessionName", List); In the Controller I build a viewModel with the data from this session var arrayList = (List<Item>)Session["SessionName"]; var arrayListItems= new List<CartItem>(); foreach (var item in arrayList) { var listItem = new Item { Amount = item.Amount, Variant= item.variant, Id = item.Id }; arrayListItems.Add(listItem); } var viewModel = new DetailViewModel { itemList = arrayListItems } and in my View I loop trough the list of Items and make a form for all of them to be able to remove the item. <table> <%foreach (var Item in Model.itemList) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <tr> <td><%=Html.Hidden(Settings.Prefix + ".VariantId", Item .Variant.Id)%> <td> <%=Html.TextBox(Settings.Prefix + ".Amount", Item.Amount)%></td> <td> <%=Html.Encode(Item.Amount)%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Remove" /> </td> </tr> <% } %> <% } %> </table> When the post from the submit button is handeld the item is removed from the array and post back exactly the same viewModel (with 1 item less in the itemList). return View("view.ascx", viewModel); When the post is handled and the view has reloaded the value's of the html.Hidden and Html.Textbox are the value's of the removed item. The value of the html.Encode is the correct value. When i reload the page the correct values are in the fields. Both times i build the viewModel the exact same way. I cant find the cause or solution of this error. I would be very happy with any help to solve this problem Thanx in advance for any tips or help

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  • Rails & Twilio: Receiving nil when storing texts received from Twilio

    - by Jon Smooth
    I have set up the request URL in my Twilio account to have it POST to: myurl.com/receivetext. It appears to be successfully posting because when I check the database using the Heroku console I see the following: Post id: 5, body: nil, from: nil, created_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01", updated_at: "2012-06-14 17:28:01" Why is it receiving nil for the body and from attributes? I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong! The created and updated at are storing successfully but the two attributes that I care about continue to be stored as nil. Here's the Receive Text controller which is receiving the Post request from Twilio: class ReceiveTextController < ApplicationController def index @post=Post.create!(body: params[:Body], from: params[:From]) end end EDIT: When I dump the params I receive the following: "{\"controller\"=\"receive_text\", \"action\"=\"index\"}" I attained this by inserting the following into my ReceiveText controller. @params = Post.create!(body: params.inspect, from: "Dumping Params") and then opening up the Heroku console to find the database entry with from = "Dumping Params". I simulated a Twilio request with a curl with the following command curl -X POST myurl.com/receivetext route -d 'AccountSid=AC123&From=%2B19252411234' I checked the production database again and noticed that the curl request did work when obtaining the FROM atribute. It stored the following: params.inspect returned "{\"AccountSid\"=\"AC123\", \"From\"=\"+19252411234\", \"co..." I received a comment stating: "As long as twilio is hitting the same URL with the same method (GET/POST) it should be filling the params array as well" I have no idea how to make this comment actionable. Any help would be greatly appreciated! I'm very new to rails. Here's my database migration (I have both attributes set to string. I have tried setting it to text and that didn't work either) : class CreatePosts < ActiveRecord::Migration def change create_table :posts do |t| t.string :body t.string :from t.timestamps end end end Here is my Post model: class Post < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :body, :from end Routes (everything appears to be routing just fine) : MovieApp::Application.routes.draw do get "receive_text/index" get "pages/home" get "send_text/send_text_message" root to: 'pages#home' match '/receivetext', to: 'receive_text#index' match '/pages/home', to: 'pages#home' match '/sendtext', to: 'send_text#send_text_message' end Here's my gemfile (incase it helps) source 'https://rubygems.org' gem 'rails', '3.2.3' gem 'badfruit' gem 'twilio-ruby' gem 'logger' gem 'jquery-rails' group :production do gem 'pg' end group :development, :test do gem 'sqlite3' end group :assets do gem 'sass-rails', '~> 3.2.3' gem 'coffee-rails', '~> 3.2.1' gem 'uglifier', '>= 1.0.3' end

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  • Setting up a "to-many" relationship value dependency for a transient Core Data attribute

    - by Greg Combs
    I've got a relatively complicated Core Data relationship structure and I'm trying to figure out how to set up value dependencies (or observations) across various to-many relationships. Let me start out with some basic info. I've got a classroom with students, assignments, and grades (students X assignments). For simplicity's sake, we don't really have to focus much on the assignments yet. StudentObj <--->> ScoreObj <<---> AssignmentObj Each ScoreObj has a to-one relation with the StudentObj and the AssignmentObj. ScoreObj has real attributes for the numerical grade, the turnInDate, and notes. AssignmentObj.scores is the set of Score objects for that assignment (N = all students). AssignmentObj has real attributes for name, dueDate, curveFunction, gradeWeight, and maxPoints. StudentObj.scores is the set of Score objects for that student (N = all assignments). StudentObj also has real attributes like name, studentID, email, etc. StudentObj has a transient (calculated, not stored) attribute called gradeTotal. This last item, gradeTotal, is the real pickle. it calculates the student's overall semester grade using the scores (ScoreObj) from all their assignments, their associated assignment gradeWeights, curves, and maxPoints, and various other things. This gradeTotal value is displayed in a table column, along with all the students and their individual assignment grades. Determining the value of gradeTotal is a relatively expensive operation, particularly with a large class, therefore I want to run it only when necessary. For simplicity's sake, I'm not storing that gradeTotal value in the core data model. I don't mind caching it somewhere, but I'm having a bitch of a time determining where and how to best update that cache. I need to run that calculation for each student whenever any value changes that affects their gradeTotal. If this were a simple to-one relationship, I know I could use something like keyPathsForValuesAffectingGradeTotal ... but it's more like a many-to-one-to-many relationship. Does anyone know of an elegant (and KVC correct) solution? I guess I could tear through all those score and assignment objects and tell them to register their students as observers. But this seems like a blunt force approach.

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  • Parallel programming in C#

    - by Alxandr
    I'm interested in learning about parallel programming in C#.NET (not like everything there is to know, but the basics and maybe some good-practices), therefore I've decided to reprogram an old program of mine which is called ImageSyncer. ImageSyncer is a really simple program, all it does is to scan trough a folder and find all files ending with .jpg, then it calculates the new position of the files based on the date they were taken (parsing of xif-data, or whatever it's called). After a location has been generated the program checks for any existing files at that location, and if one exist it looks at the last write-time of both the file to copy, and the file "in its way". If those are equal the file is skipped. If not a md5 checksum of both files is created and matched. If there is no match the file to be copied is given a new location to be copied to (for instance, if it was to be copied to "C:\test.jpg" it's copied to "C:\test(1).jpg" instead). The result of this operation is populated into a queue of a struct-type that contains two strings, the original file and the position to copy it to. Then that queue is iterated over untill it is empty and the files are copied. In other words there are 4 operations: 1. Scan directory for jpegs 2. Parse files for xif and generate copy-location 3. Check for file existence and if needed generate new path 4. Copy files And so I want to rewrite this program to make it paralell and be able to perform several of the operations at the same time, and I was wondering what the best way to achieve that would be. I've came up with two different models I can think of, but neither one of them might be any good at all. The first one is to parallelize the 4 steps of the old program, so that when step one is to be executed it's done on several threads, and when the entire of step 1 is finished step 2 is began. The other one (which I find more interesting because I have no idea of how to do that) is to create a sort of worker and consumer model, so when a thread is finished with step 1 another one takes over and performs step 2 at that object (or something like that). But as said, I don't know if any of these are any good solutions. Also, I don't know much about parallel programming at all. I know how to make a thread, and how to make it perform a function taking in an object as its only parameter, and I've also used the BackgroundWorker-class on one occasion, but I'm not that familiar with any of them. Any input would be appreciated.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: Linq to SQL entity w/ ForeignKey relationship and Default ModelBinder strangeness

    - by Simon
    Once again I'm having trouble with Linq to Sql and the MVC Model Binder. I have Linq to Sql generated classes, to illustrate them they look similar to this: public class Client { public int ClientID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Site { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class User { public int UserID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int? ClientID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Client> Client { get; set; } public int? SiteID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Site> Site { get; set; } } The 'User' has a relationship with the 'Client' and 'Site . The User class has nullable ClientIDs and SiteIDs because the admin users are not bound to a Client or Site. Now I have a view where a user can edit a 'User' object, the view has fields for all the 'User' properties. When the form is submitted, the appropiate 'Save' action is called in my UserController: public ActionResult Save(User user, FormCollection form) { //form['SiteID'] == 1 //user.SiteID == 1 //form['ClientID'] == 1 //user.ClientID == null } The problem here is that the ClientID is never set, it is always null, even though the value is in the FormCollection. To figure out whats going wrong I set breakpoints for the ClientID and SiteID getters and setters in the Linq to Sql designer generated classes. I noticed the following: SiteID is being set, then ClientID is being set, but then the Client EntityRef property is being set with a null value which in turn is setting the ClientID to null too! I don't know why and what is trying to set the Client property, because the Site property setter is never beeing called, only the Client setter is being called. Manually setting the ClientID from the FormCollection like this: user.ClientID = int.Parse(form["ClientID"].ToString()); throws a 'ForeignKeyReferenceAlreadyHasValueException', because it was already set to null before. The only workaround I have found is to extend the generated partial User class with a custom method: Client = default(EntityRef<Client>) but this is not a satisfying solution. I don't think it should work like this? Please enlighten me someone. So far Linq to Sql is driving me crazy! Best regards

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  • Just a small problem regarding javscript BOM question

    - by caramel1991
    The question is this: Create a page with a number of links. Then write code that fires on the window onload event, displaying the href of each of the links on the page. And this is my solution <html> <body language="Javascript" onload="displayLink()"> <a href="http://www.google.com/">First link</a> <a href="http://www.yahoo.com/">Second link</a> <a href="http://www.msn.com/">Third link</a> <script type="text/javascript" language="Javascript"> function displayLink() { for(var i = 0;document.links[i];i++) { alert(document.links[i].href); } } </script> </body> </html> This is the answer provided by the book <html> <head> <script language=”JavaScript” type=”text/javascript”> function displayLinks() { var linksCounter; for (linksCounter = 0; linksCounter < document.links.length; linksCounter++) { alert(document.links[linksCounter].href); } } </script> </head> <body onload=”displayLinks()”> <A href=”link0.htm” >Link 0</A> <A href=”link1.htm”>Link 2</A> <A href=”link2.htm”>Link 2</A> </body> </html> Before I get into the javascript tutorial on how to check user browser version or model,I was using the same method as the example,by acessing the length property of the links array for the loop,but after I read through the tutorial,I find out that I can also use this alternative ways,by using the method that the test condition will evalute to true only if the document.links[i] return a valid value,so does my code is written using the valid method??If it's not,any comment regarding how to write a better code??Correct me if I'm wrong,I heard some of the people say "a good code is not evaluate solely on whether it works or not,but in terms of speed,the ability to comprehend the code,and could posssibly let others to understand the code easily".Is is true??

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  • Searching in Ruby on Rails - How do I search on each word entered and not the exact string?

    - by bgadoci
    I have built a blog application w/ ruby on rails and I am trying to implement a search feature. The blog application allows for users to tag posts. The tags are created in their own table and belong_to :post. When a tag is created, so is a record in the tag table where the name of the tag is tag_name and associated by post_id. Tags are strings. I am trying to allow a user to search for any word tag_name in any order. Here is what I mean. Lets say a particular post has a tag that is 'ruby code controller'. In my current search feature, that tag will be found if the user searches for 'ruby', 'ruby code', or 'ruby code controller'. It will not be found if the user types in 'ruby controller'. Essentially what I am saying is that I would like each word entered in the search to be searched for, not necessarily the 'string' that is entered into the search. I have been experimenting with providing multiple textfields to allow the user to type in multiple words, and also have been playing around with the code below, but can't seem to accomplish the above. I am new to ruby and rails so sorry if this is an obvious question and prior to installing a gem or plugin I thought I would check to see if there was a simple fix. Here is my code: View: /views/tags/index.html.erb <% form_tag tags_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search], :class => "textfield-search" %> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil, :class => "search-button" %> </p> <% end %> TagsController def index @tags = Tag.search(params[:search]).paginate :page => params[:page], :per_page => 5 @tagsearch = Tag.search(params[:search]) @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'count_all DESC', :limit => 100) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @tags } end end Tag Model class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :post validates_length_of :tag_name, :maximum=>42 validates_presence_of :tag_name def self.search(search) if search find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC", :conditions => ['tag_name LIKE ?', "%#{search}%"]) else find(:all, :order => "created_at DESC") end end end

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  • Release management with a distributed version control system

    - by See Sharp Cheddar
    We're considering a switch from SVN to a distributed VCS at my workplace. I'm familiar with all the reasons for wanting to using a DVCS for day-to-day development: local version control, easier branching and merging, etc., but I haven't seen that much that's compelling in terms of managing software releases. Here's our release process: Discover what changes are available for merging. Run a query to find the defects/tickets associated with these changes. Filter out changes associated with "open" tickets. In our environment, tickets must be in a closed state in order to merged with a release branch. Filter out changes we don't want in the release branch. We are very conservative when it comes to merging changes. If a change isn't absolutely necessary, it doesn't get merged. Merge available changes, preferably in chronological order. We group changes together if they're associated with the same ticket. Block unwanted changes from the release branch (svnmerge block) so we don't have to deal with them again. Sometimes we can be juggling 3-5 different milestones at a time. Some milestones have very different constraints, and the block list can get quite long. I've been messing around with git, mercurial and plastic, and as far as I can tell none of them address this model very well. It seems like they would work very well when you have only one product you're releasing, but I can't imagine using them for juggling multiple, very different products from the same codebase. For example, cherry-picking seems to be an afterthought in mercurial. (You have to use the 'transplant' command). After you cherry-pick a change into a branch it still shows up as an available integration. Cherry-picking breaks the mercurial way of working. DVCS seems to be better suited for feature branches. There's no need for cherry-picking if you merge directly from a feature branch to trunk and the release branch. But who wants to do all that merging all the time? And how do you query for what's available to merge? And how do you make sure all the changes in a feature branch belong together? It sounds like total chaos. I'm torn because the coder in me wants DVCS for day-to-day work. I really want it. But I fear the day when I have to put the release manager hat and sort out what needs to be merged and what doesn't. I want to write code, I don't want to be a merge monkey.

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  • Polymorphic :has_many, :through as module in Rails 3.1 plugin

    - by JohnMetta
    I've search everywhere for a pointer to this, but can't find one. Basically, I want to do what everyone else wants to do when they create a polymorphic relationship in a :has_many, :through way… but I want to do it in a module. I keep getting stuck and think I must be overlooking something simple. To wit: module ActsPermissive module PermissiveUser def self.included(base) base.extend ClassMethods end module ClassMethods def acts_permissive has_many :ownables has_many :owned_circles, :through => :ownables end end end class PermissiveCircle < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :ownable, :polymorphic => true end end With a migration that looks like this: create_table :permissive_circles do |t| t.string :ownable_type t.integer :ownable_id t.timestamps end The idea, of course, is that whatever loads acts_permissive will be able to have a list of circles that it owns. For simple tests, I have it "should have a list of circles" do user = Factory :user user.owned_circles.should be_an_instance_of Array end which fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array NameError: uninitialized constant User::Ownable I've tried: using :class_name => 'ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle' on the has_many :ownables line, which fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughSourceAssociationNotFoundError: Could not find the source association(s) :owned_circle or :owned_circles in model ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle. Try 'has_many :owned_circles, :through => :ownables, :source => <name>'. Is it one of :ownable? while following the suggestion and setting :source => :ownable fails with Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array ActiveRecord::HasManyThroughAssociationPolymorphicSourceError: Cannot have a has_many :through association 'User#owned_circles' on the polymorphic object 'Ownable#ownable' Which seems to suggest that doing things with a non-polymorphic-through is necessary. So I added a circle_owner class similar to the setup here: module ActsPermissive class CircleOwner < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :permissive_circle belongs_to :ownable, :polymorphic => true end module PermissiveUser def self.included(base) base.extend ClassMethods end module ClassMethods def acts_permissive has_many :circle_owners, :as => :ownable has_many :circles, :through => :circle_owners, :source => :ownable, :class_name => 'ActsPermissive::PermissiveCircle' end end class PermissiveCircle < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :circle_owners end end With a migration: create_table :permissive_circles do |t| t.string :name t.string :guid t.timestamps end create_table :circle_owner do |t| t.string :ownable_type t.string :ownable_id t.integer :permissive_circle_id end which still fails with: Failure/Error: @user.circles.should be_an_instance_of Array NameError: uninitialized constant User::CircleOwner Which brings us back to the beginning. How can I do what seems to be a rather common polymorphic :has_many, :through on a module? Alternatively, is there a good way to allow an object to be collected by arbitrary objects in a similar way that will work with a module?

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

    - by Terminal Frost
    Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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  • Codeigniter not returning me to upload form after image upload.

    - by Drew
    I'm still very new to codeigniter. The issue i'm having is that the file uploads fine and it writes to the database without issue but it just doesn't return me to the upload form. Instead it stays in the do_upload and doesn't display anything. Even more bizarrely there is some source code behind the scenes. Can someone tell my what it is i'm doing wrong because I want to be returning to my upload form after submission. Thanks in advance. Below is my code: Controller: function do_upload() { if($this->Upload_model->do_upload()) { $this->load->view('home/upload_form'); }else{ $this->load->view('home/upload_success', $error); } } Model: function do_upload() { $config['upload_path'] = './uploads/'; $config['allowed_types'] = 'gif|jpg|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2000'; $this->load->library('upload', $config); if ( ! $this->upload->do_upload()) { $error = array('error' => $this->upload->display_errors()); return $error; } else { $data = $this->upload->data(); $full_path = 'uploads/' . $data['file_name']; $spam = array( 'image_url' => $full_path, 'url' => $this->input->post('url') ); $id = $this->input->post('id'); $this->db->where('id', $id); $this->db->update('NavItemData', $spam); return true; } } View (called upload_form): <html> <head> <title>Upload Form</title> </head> <body> <?php if(isset($buttons)) : foreach($buttons as $row) : ?> <h2><?php echo $row->image_url; ?></h2> <p><?php echo $row->url; ?></p> <p><?php echo $row->name; ?></p> <p><?php echo anchor("upload/update_nav/$row->id", 'edit'); ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php endif; ?> </body> </html>

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  • How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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  • Multi-tier applications using L2S, WCF and Base Class

    - by Gena Verdel
    Hi all. One day I decided to build this nice multi-tier application using L2S and WCF. The simplified model is : DataBase-L2S-Wrapper(DTO)-Client Application. The communication between Client and Database is achieved by using Data Transfer Objects which contain entity objects as their properties. abstract public class BaseObject { public virtual IccSystem.iccObjectTypes ObjectICC_Type { get { return IccSystem.iccObjectTypes.unknownType; } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order = 1)] public virtual long ID { //get; //set; get { return _ID; } set { _ID = value; } } } [DataContract] public class BaseObjectWrapper<T> where T : BaseObject { #region Fields private T _DBObject; #endregion #region Properties [DataMember] public T Entity { get { return _DBObject; } set { _DBObject = value; } } #endregion } Pretty simple, isn't it?. Here's the catch. Each one of the mapped classes contains ID property itself so I decided to override it like this [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.TableAttribute(Name="dbo.Divisions")] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute()] public partial class Division : INotifyPropertyChanging, INotifyPropertyChanged { [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_ID", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order=1)] public override long ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } } Wrapper for division is pretty straightforward as well: public class DivisionWrapper : BaseObjectWrapper<Division> { } It worked pretty well as long as I kept ID values at mapped class and its BaseObject class the same(that's not very good approach, I know, but still) but then this happened: private CentralDC _dc; public bool UpdateDivision(ref DivisionWrapper division) { DivisionWrapper tempWrapper = division; if (division.Entity == null) { return false; } try { Table<Division> table = _dc.Divisions; var q = table.Where(o => o.ID == tempWrapper.Entity.ID); if (q.Count() == 0) { division.Entity._errorMessage = "Unable to locate entity with id " + division.Entity.ID.ToString(); return false; } var realEntity = q.First(); realEntity = division.Entity; _dc.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { division.Entity._errorMessage = ex.Message; return false; } } When trying to enumerate over the in-memory query the following exception occurred: Class member BaseObject.ID is unmapped. Although I'm stating the type and overriding the ID property L2S fails to work. Any suggestions?

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  • PHP array pointer craziness

    - by JMan
    I'm trying to create a "GetCurrentLevel" method that takes a point value as an input and returns what "Level" that corresponds to. I'm storing the Level = Points mapping in an array, but the array pointer is not moving logically when I use it a foreach loop. I've added echo statements for debugging. Here's my class definition: class Levels extends Model { protected $_map = array ( 'None' => 0, 'Bronze' => 50, 'Silver' => 200, 'Gold' => 500 ); public function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } public function GetCurrentLevel($points) { foreach ($this->_map as $name => $threshold) { echo "Level Name: $name<br/>"; echo "Level Threshold: $threshold<br/>"; echo "Current Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; echo "Current Threshold: " . current($this->_map) . "<br/>"; if ($points < $threshold) /* Threshold is now above the points, so need to go back one level */ { $previousThreshold = prev($this->_map); echo "Previous Threshold: $previousThreshold<br/>"; echo "Final Level: " . key($this->_map) . "<br/>"; return key($this->_map); } echo "Go to next level <br/>"; } } And here is what I see when I call GetCurrentLevel(60): Level Name: None Level Threshold: 0 Current Level: Bronze //* Looks like foreach immediately moves the array pointer *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Bronze Level Threshold: 50 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Go to next level Level Name: Silver Level Threshold: 200 Current Level: Bronze //* WTF? Why hasn't the array pointer moved? *// Current Threshold: 50 Previous Threshold: 0 Final Level: None But the "Final Level" should be 'Bronze' since 60 points is above the 50 points needed for a Bronze medal, but below the 200 points needed for a Silver medal. Sorry for the long post. Thanks for your help!

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  • What classes should I map against with NHibernate?

    - by apollodude217
    Currently, we use NHibernate to map business objects to database tables. Said business objects enforce business rules: The set accessors will throw an exception on the spot if the contract for that property is violated. Also, the properties enforce relationships with other objects (sometimes bidirectional!). Well, whenever NHibernate loads an object from the database (e.g. when ISession.Get(id) is called), the set accessors of the mapped properties are used to put the data into the object. What's good is that the middle tier of the application enforces business logic. What's bad is that the database does not. Sometimes crap finds its way into the database. If crap is loaded into the application, it bails (throws an exception). Sometimes it clearly should bail because it cannot do anything, but what if it can continue working? E.g., an admin tool that gathers real-time reports runs a high risk of failing unnecessarily instead of allowing an admin to even fix a (potential) problem. I don't have an example on me right now, but in some instances, letting NHibernate use the "front door" properties that also enforce relationships (especially bidi) leads to bugs. What are the best solutions? Currently, I will, on a per-property basis, create a "back door" just for NHibernate: public virtual int Blah {get {return _Blah;} set {/*enforces BR's*/}} protected virtual int _Blah {get {return blah;} set {blah = value;}} private int blah; I showed the above in C# 2 (no default properties) to demonstrate how this gets us basically 3 layers of, or views, to blah!!! While this certainly works, it does not seem ideal as it requires the BL to provide one (public) interface for the app-at-large, and another (protected) interface for the data access layer. There is an additional problem: To my knowledge, NHibernate does not give you a way to distinguish between the name of the property in the BL and the name of the property in the entity model (i.e. the name you use when you query, e.g. via HQL--whenever you give NHibernate the name (string) of a property). This becomes a problem when, at first, the BR's for some property Blah are no problem, so you refer to it in your O/R mapping... but then later, you have to add some BR's that do become a problem, so then you have to change your O/R mapping to use a new _Blah property, which breaks all existing queries using "Blah" (common problem with programming against strings). Has anyone solved these problems?!

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  • Hibernate3: Self-Referencing Objects

    - by monojohnny
    Need some help on understanding how to do this; I'm going to be running recursive 'find' on a file system and I want to keep the information in a single DB table - with a self-referencing hierarchial structure: This is my DB Table structure I want to populate. DirObject Table: id int NOT NULL, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, parentid int NOT NULL); Here is the proposed Java Class I want to map (Fields only shown): public DirObject { int id; String name; DirObject parent; ... For the 'root' directory was going to use parentid=0; real ids will start at 1, and ideally I want hibernate to autogenerate the ids. Can somebody provide a suggested mapping file for this please; as a secondary question I thought about doing the Java Class like this instead: public DirObject { int id; String name; List<DirObject> subdirs; Could I use the same data model for either of these two methods ? (With a different mapping file of course). --- UPDATE: so I tried the mapping file suggested below (thanks!), repeated here for reference: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="my.proj.DirObject" table="category"> ... <set name="subDirs" lazy="true" inverse="true"> <key column="parentId"/> <one-to-many class="my.proj.DirObject"/> </set> <many-to-one name="parent" class="my.proj.DirObject" column="parentId" cascade="all" /> </class> ...and altered my Java class to have BOTH 'parentid' and 'getSubDirs' [returning a 'HashSet']. This appears to work - thanks, but this is the test code I used to drive this - I think I'm not doing something right here, because I thought Hibernate would take care of saving the subordinate objects in the Set without me having to do this explicitly ? DirObject dirobject=new DirObject(); dirobject.setName("/files"); dirobject.setParent(dirobject); DirObject d1, d2; d1=new DirObject(); d1.setName("subdir1"); d1.setParent(dirobject); d2=new DirObject(); d2.setName("subdir2"); d2.setParent(dirobject); HashSet<DirObject> subdirs=new HashSet<DirObject>(); subdirs.add(d1); subdirs.add(d2); dirobject.setSubdirs(subdirs); session.save(dirobject); session.save(d1); session.save(d2);

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  • ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API Single Page App for Mobile Devices ... Needs Authentication

    - by lmttag
    We have developed an ASP.NET MVC 4/Web API single page, mobile website (also using jQuery Mobile) that is intended to be accessed only from mobile devices (e.g., iPads, iPhones, Android tables and phones, etc.), not desktop browsers. This mobile website will be hosted internally, like an intranet site. However, since we’re accessing it from mobile devices, we can’t use Windows authentication. We still need to know which user (and their role) is logging in to the mobile website app. We tried simply using ASP.NET’s forms authentication and membership provider, but couldn’t get it working exactly the way we wanted. What we need is for the user to be prompted for a user name and password only on the first time they access the site on their mobile device. After they enter a correct user name and password and have been authenticated once, each subsequent time they access the site they should just go right in. They shouldn’t have to re-enter their credentials (i.e., something needs to be saved locally to each device to identify the user after the first time). This is where we had troubles. Everything worked as expected the first time. That is, the user was prompted to enter a user name and password, and, after doing that, was authenticated and allowed into the site. The problem is every time after the browser was closed on the mobile device, the device and user were not know and the user had to re-enter user name and password. We tried lots of things too. We tried setting persistent cookies in JavaScript. No good. The cookies weren’t there to be read the second time. We tried manually setting persistent cookies from ASP.NET. No good. We, of course, used FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(model.UserName, true); as part of the form authentication framework. No good. We tried using HTML5 local storage. No good. No matter what we tried, if the user was on a mobile device, they would have to log in every single time. (Note: we’ve tried on an iPad and iPhone running both iOS 5.1 and 6.0, with Safari configure to allow cookies, and we’ve tried on Android 2.3.4.) Is there some trick to getting a scenario like this working? Or, do we have to write some sort of custom authentication mechanism? If so, how? And, what? Or, should we use something like claims-based authentication and WIF? Or??? Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

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  • How to prevent google chrome from caching my inputs, esp hidden ones when user click back?

    - by melaos
    hi there, i have an asp.net mvc app which have quite a few hidden inputs to keep values around and formatting their names so that i can use the Model binding later when i submit the form. i stumble into a weird bug with chrome which i don't have with IE or Firefox when the user submits the form and click on the back button, i find that chrome will keep my hidden input values as well. this whole chunk is generated via javascript hence i believe chrome is caching this. function addProductRow(productId, productName) { if (productName != "") { //use guid to ensure that the row never repeats var guid = $.Guid.New(); var temp = parseFloat($(".tboProductCount").val()); //need the span to workaround for chrome var szHTML = "<tr valign=\"top\" id=\"productRow\"><td class=\"productIdCol\"><input type=\"hidden\" id=productRegsID" + temp + "\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].productId\" value=\"" + productId + "\"/>" + "<span id=\"spanProdID" + temp + "\" name=\"spanProdID" + temp + "\" >" + productId + "</span>" + "</td>" //+ "<td><input type=\"text\" id=\"productRegName\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].productName\" value=\"" + productName + "\" class=\"productRegName\" size=\"50\" readonly=\"readonly\"/></td>" + "<td><span id=\"productRegName\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].productName\" class=\"productRegName\">"+ productName + "<\span></td>" + "<td id=\"" + guid + "\" class=\"productrowguid\" \>" + "<input type=\"text\" size=\"20\" id=\"productSerialNo" + temp + "\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].serialNo\" value=\"" + "\" class=\"productSerialNo\" maxlength=\"18\" />" + "<a class=\"fancybox\" id=\"btnImgSerialNo" + temp + "\" href=\"#divSerialNo" + temp + "\"><img class=\"btnImgSerialNo\" src=\"Images/landing_14.gif\" /></a>" + "<span id=\"snFlag" + temp + "\" class=\"redWarning\"></span></td>" + "<td><input type=\"text\" id=\"productRegDate" + temp + "\" name=\"productRegs[" + temp + "].PurchaseDate\" readonly=\"readonly\" />" + "<span id=\"snRegDate" + temp + "\" class=\"redWarning\"></span></td>" + "<td align=\"center\"><img style=\"cursor:pointer\" id=\"btnImgDelete\" src=\"Images/btn_remove.gif\" onclick=\"javascript:removeProductRow('" + guid + "')\" /><div style=\"display:none;\"><div id=\"divSerialNo" + temp + "\" style=\"font-family:verdana;font-size:11px;width:600px\">" + serialnumbergeneral + "<br /><br />" + getSNImageByCategory(productId) + "</div></div></td>" + "</tr>"; $(".ProductRegistrationTable").append(szHTML); $("a.fancybox").fancybox(); //initialization $("#productRegDate" + temp).datepicker({ minDate: new Date(1996, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate: 0 }); //sanity check //s7test alert('1 '+$("#spanProdID" + temp)); alert('2 '+$("#productRegsID" + temp)); } //end function addNewProductRow i need the id to be refreshed when the user select a new product, but putting another span tag beside it shows that the span will have the new id will the hidden input will still have the previous id. is there an elegant way to workaround this issue? thanks

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  • Unset/Change Binding in WPF

    - by captcalamares
    How can I unset the binding applied to an object so that I can apply another binding to it from a different location? Suppose I have two data templates binded to the same object reference. Data Template #1 is the default template to be loaded. I try to bind a button command to a Function1 from my DataContext class: <Button Content="Button 1" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function1, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}"/> This actually works and the function gets binded. However, when I try to load Data Template # 2 to the same object (while trying to bind another button command to a different function (Function2) from my DataContext class): <Button Content="Button 2" CommandParameter="{Binding }" Command="{Binding DataContext.Function2, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" /> It doesn't work and the first binding is still the one executed. Is there a workaround to this? EDIT (for better problem context): I defined my templates in my Window.Resources: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel1}"> <local:View1 /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ViewModel2}"> <local:View2 /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> The View1.xaml and the View2.xaml contain the button definitions that I described above (I want them to command the control of my process flow). ViewModel1 and ViewModel2 are my ViewModels that implement the interface IPageViewModel which is the type of my variable CurrentPageViewModel. In my XAML, I binded ContentControl to the variable CurrentPageViewModel: <ContentControl Content="{Binding CurrentPageViewModel}" HorizontalAlignment="Center"/> In my .CS, I have a list defined as List<IPageViewModel> PageViewModels, which I use to contain the instances of my two View Models: PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel1()); PageViewModels.Add(new ViewModel2()); // Set starting page CurrentPageViewModel = PageViewModels[0]; When I try to change my CurrentPageViewModel to the other view model, this is when I want the new binding to work. Unfortunately, it doesn't. Am I doing things the right way?

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  • What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

    - by Zac Thompson
    I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

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  • Trouble using South with Django and Heroku

    - by Dan
    I had an existing Django project that I've just added South to. I ran syncdb locally. I ran manage.py schemamigration app_name locally I ran manage.py migrate app_name --fake locally I commit and pushed to heroku master I ran syncdb on heroku I ran manage.py schemamigration app_name on heroku I ran manage.py migrate app_name on heroku I then receive this: $ heroku run python notecard/manage.py migrate notecards Running python notecard/manage.py migrate notecards attached to terminal... up, run.1 Running migrations for notecards: - Migrating forwards to 0005_initial. > notecards:0003_initial Traceback (most recent call last): File "notecard/manage.py", line 14, in <module> execute_manager(settings) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/core/management/__init__.py", line 438, in execute_manager utility.execute() File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/core/management/__init__.py", line 379, in execute self.fetch_command(subcommand).run_from_argv(self.argv) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 191, in run_from_argv self.execute(*args, **options.__dict__) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 220, in execute output = self.handle(*args, **options) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/management/commands/migrate.py", line 105, in handle ignore_ghosts = ignore_ghosts, File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/__init__.py", line 191, in migrate_app success = migrator.migrate_many(target, workplan, database) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 221, in migrate_many result = migrator.__class__.migrate_many(migrator, target, migrations, database) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 292, in migrate_many result = self.migrate(migration, database) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 125, in migrate result = self.run(migration) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 99, in run return self.run_migration(migration) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 81, in run_migration migration_function() File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/migration/migrators.py", line 57, in <lambda> return (lambda: direction(orm)) File "/app/notecard/notecards/migrations/0003_initial.py", line 15, in forwards ('user', self.gf('django.db.models.fields.related.ForeignKey')(to=orm['auth.User'])), File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/db/generic.py", line 226, in create_table ', '.join([col for col in columns if col]), File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/south/db/generic.py", line 150, in execute cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/db/backends/util.py", line 34, in execute return self.cursor.execute(sql, params) File "/app/lib/python2.7/site-packages/django/db/backends/postgresql_psycopg2/base.py", line 44, in execute return self.cursor.execute(query, args) django.db.utils.DatabaseError: relation "notecards_semester" already exists I have 3 models. Section, Semester, and Notecards. I've added one field to the Notecards model and I cannot get it added on Heroku. Thank you.

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  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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  • Recommended ASP.NET Shared Hosting

    - by coffeeaddict
    Ok, I have to admit I'm getting fed up with www.discountasp.net's pricing model and this annoyance has built up over the past 8 years or so. I've been with them for years and absolutely love them on the technical side, however it's getting ridiculously expensive for so little that you get. I mean here's my scenario: 1) I am running 2 SQL Server databases which costs me $10/ea per month so that's $20/month for 2 and I only get 500 mb disk space which is horrible 2) I am paying $10/mo just for the hosting itself which I only get 1 gig of disk space! I mean common! 3) I am simply running 2 small apps (Screwturn Wiki & Subtext Blog)...so I don't really care if it's up 99% or not, it's not worth paying a total of $300 just to keep these 2 apps running over discountasp.net Anyone else feel the same? Yes, I know they have great support, probably have great servers running behind this but in the end I really don't care as long as my site is up 95% or better. Yes, the hosting toolset rocks. But you know I bet you I can find a similar set somewhere else. I like how I can totally control IIS 7 at discountasp and I can control my own app pool etc. That's very powerful and essential. But anyone have any good alternatives to discountasp that gives me close to the same at a much more reasonable cost point? I mean http://www.m6.net/prices.aspx gives you 10 SQL Databases for $7 and 200 gigs disk space! I don't know about their tools or support but just looking at those numbers and some other hosts I've seen, I feel that discountasp.net is way out of line. They don't even offer any purchasing discounts such as it would be nice if my 2nd SQL Server is only $5/month not $10...stuff like this, to make it much more realistic and fair. Opinions (people who do have discountasp.net, people who have left them, or people who have another host they like)??? But geez $300 just to host a couple DBs and lightweight open source apps? Not worth the price they are charging. I'm almost at a price point that enables me to get a decent dedicated server! I really don't care about beta support. Not a big deal to me.

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