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  • How to parallelize this groovy code?

    - by lucas
    I'm trying to write a reusable component in Groovy to easily shoot off emails from some of our Java applications. I would like to pass it a List, where Email is just a POJO(POGO?) with some email info. I'd like it to be multithreaded, at least running all the email logic in a second thread, or make one thread per email. I am really foggy on multithreading in Java so that probably doesn't help! I've attempted a few different ways, but here is what I have right now: void sendEmails(List<Email> emails) { def threads = [] def sendEm = emails.each{ email -> def th = new Thread({ Random rand = new Random() def wait = (long)(rand.nextDouble() * 1000) println "in closure" this.sleep wait sendEmail(email) }) println "putting thread in list" threads << th } threads.each { it.run() } threads.each { it.join() } } I was hoping the sleep would randomly slow some threads down so the console output wouldn't be sequential. Instead, I see this: putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list putting thread in list in closure sending email1 in closure sending email2 in closure sending email3 in closure sending email4 in closure sending email5 in closure sending email6 in closure sending email7 in closure sending email8 in closure sending email9 in closure sending email10 sendEmail basically does what you'd expect, including the println statement, and the client that calls this follows, void doSomething() { Mailman emailer = MailmanFactory.getExchangeEmailer() def to = ["one","two"] def from = "noreply" def li = [] def email (1..10).each { email = new Email(to,null,from,"email"+it,"hello") li << email } emailer.sendEmails li }

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  • C++ Changing a class in a dll where a pointer to that class is returned to other dlls...

    - by Patrick
    Hello, Horrible title I know, horrible question too. I'm working with a bit of software where a dll returns a ptr to an internal class. Other dlls (calling dlls) then use this pointer to call methods of that class directly: //dll 1 internalclass m_class; internalclass* getInternalObject() { return &m_class; } //dll 2 internalclass* classptr = getInternalObject(); classptr->method(); This smells pretty bad to me but it's what I've got... I want to add a new method to internalclass as one of the calling dlls needs additional functionality. I'm certain that all dlls that access this class will need to be rebuilt after the new method is included but I can't work out the logic of why. My thinking is it's something to do with the already compiled calling dll having the physical address of each function within internalclass in the other dll but I don't really understand it; is anyone here able to provide a concise explanation of how the dlls (new internal class dll, rebuilt calling dll and calling dll built with previous version of the internal class dll) would fit together? Thanks, Patrick

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  • template files evaluation in python

    - by saminny
    I am trying to use python for translating a set of templates to a set of configuration files based on values taken from a main configuration file. However, I am having certain issues. Consider the following example of a template file. file1.cfg.template %(CLIENT1)s %(HOST1)s %(PORT1)d C %(COMPID1)s %(CLIENT2)s %(HOST2)s %(PORT2)d C %(COMPID2)s This file contains an entry for each client. There are hundreds of config files like this and I don't want to have logic for each type of config file. Python should do the replacements and generate config files automatically given a set of global values read from a main xml config file. However, in the above example, if CLIENT2 does not exist, how do I delete that line? I expect Python would generate the config file using something like this: os.open("file1.cfg.template").read() % myhash where myhash is hash of configuration parameters from the main config file which may not contain CLIENT2 at all. In the case it does not contain CLIENT2, I want that line to disappear from the file. Is it possible to insert some 'IF' block in the file and have python evaluate it? Thanks for your help. Any suggestions most welcome.

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  • Robust DateTime parser library for .NET

    - by Frank Krueger
    Hello, I am writing an RSS and Mail reader app in C# (technically MonoTouch). I have run into the issue of parsing DateTimes. I see a lot of variance in how dates are presented in the wild and have begun writing a function like this: public static DateTime ParseTime(string timeStr) { var formats = new string[] { "ddd, d MMM yyyy H:mm:ss \"GMT+00:00\"", "d MMM yyyy H:mm:ss \"EST\"", "yyyy-MM-dd\"T\"HH:mm:ss\"Z\"", "ddd MMM d HH:mm:ss \"+0000\" yyyy", }; try { return DateTime.Parse(timeStr); } catch (Exception) { } foreach (var f in formats) { try { var t = DateTime.ParseExact(timeStr, f, CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); return t; } catch (Exception) { } } return DateTime.MinValue; } This, well, makes me sick. Three points. (1) It's silly of me to think that I can actually collect a format list that will cover everything out there. (2) It's wrong! Notice that I'm treating an EST date time as UTC (since .NET seems oblivious to time zones). (3) I don't like using exceptions for logic. I am looking for an existing library (source only please) that is known to handle a bunch of these formats. Also, I would like to keep using UTC DateTimes throughout my code so whatever library is suggested should be able to produce DateTimes. Is there anything out there like this?

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  • Semantically correct nested anchors

    - by Blackie123
    I am working on a web applicaton. And what we also create is something that could be described as inline editing. Just to portray thing I am trying to solve I use example of Facebook post. You have post like. Steve Jobs added 5 new photos Steve Jobs is link that redirects to his profile so in HTML, that would be: <div class="post-block"> <p><a href="stevejobs/" title="#">Steve Jobs</a> added 5 new photos.<p> </div> But what I want is the whole post "block" to be clickable although I want only that name to appear to be link. Normally in HTML logic would say to to this: <a href="stevejobs/" title="#"><div class="post-block"> <p><a href="stevejobs/" title="#">Steve Jobs</a> added 5 new photos.<p> </div></a> But this isn't semantically correct. Quick look to HTML 4.01 or any other standard says something like this: Links and anchors defined by the A element must not be nested; an A element must not contain any other A elements. How to create it semantically correct other than using javascript and defining div:hover state for the whole "div anchor"?

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  • How can I change the tags/css class of some dynamic text based on output from a helper?

    - by Angela
    I have a repeated line which outputs something like: Call John Jones in -3 days (status) I have a helper called show_status(contact,email) which will output whether that particular email had been sent to that particular contact. If it is "sent," then that entire line should show up as "strike out." Similarly, if the number of days is -3 (<0), the line should be formatted in red. Here's my hack, but there must be a cleaner way to put the logic into the controller? I hard-code a value that wraps around the lines I want formatted, and assign the value based on a separate call to the same helper: <% for call in @campaign.calls %> <% if !show_call_status(@contact,call).blank? %> <%= strike_start = '<s>'%> <%= strike_end = '</s>' %> <% end %> <p> <%= strike_start %> <%= link_to call.title, call_path(call) %> on <%= (@contact.date_entered + call.days).to_s(:long) %> in <%= interval_email(@contact,call) %> days <%= make_call(@contact,call) %> <span class='status'><%= show_call_status(@contact,call) %></span> <%= strike_end %> </p> <% end %> I guess what I'd like to do is not have the if statement in the View. Not sure how to do this.

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  • WPF ResourceDictionary and DynamicResource

    - by lanicor
    i am new to WPF so maybe this will be "noob" question but i can't find answer to it (and it seems so easy)... well i am programing WPF app and i want to use smth similar to css for webpages, so i found ResourceDictionary and tried to use it... I have main window in which i create Frame and on click some UserControl is loaded to that same Frame.I include my ResourceDictionary (root/style/Styles.xaml) to my main window like this: <Window.Resources> <ResourceDictionary x:Key="styles" Source="style/Styles.xaml" /> </Window.Resources> in which i have: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Style x:Key="ProductsRequired" TargetType="{x:Type Label}"> <Setter Property="Height" Value="28" /> ... I don't use it on my main window but want to use it on my UserControls, which are loaded to that main window and i try to use it like this: <Label Name="product1" Style="{DynamicResource ProductsRequired}" /> Warning i am getting all the time is: The resource "ProductsRequired" could not be resolved. I even tried including Styles to my UserControl <UserControl.Resources> <ResourceDictionary x:Key="styles" Source="../style/Styles.xaml" /> </UserControl.Resources> and nothing happens... Well my question is long but i wanted to be clear... :) P.S. all that logic works in C# code btw private ResourceDictionary myStyles = new ResourceDictionary(); Style ProductsRequired = myStyles["ProductsRequired"] as Style; product1.Style = ProductsRequired;

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  • What does this structure actually do?

    - by LGTrader
    I found this structure code in a Julia Set example from a book on CUDA. I'm a newbie C programmer and cannot get my head around what it's doing, nor have I found the right thing to read on the web to clear it up. Here's the structure: struct cuComplex { float r; float i; cuComplex( float a, float b ) : r(a), i(b) {} float magnitude2( void ) { return r * r + i * i; } cuComplex operator*(const cuComplex& a) { return cuComplex(r*a.r - i*a.i, i*a.r + r*a.i); } cuComplex operator+(const cuComplex& a) { return cuComplex(r+a.r, i+a.i); } }; and it's called very simply like this: cuComplex c(-0.8, 0.156); cuComplex a(jx, jy); int i = 0; for (i=0; i<200; i++) { a = a * a + c; if (a.magnitude2() > 1000) return 0; } return 1; So, the code did what? Defined something of structure type 'cuComplex' giving the real and imaginary parts of a number. (-0.8 & 0.156) What is getting returned? (Or placed in the structure?) How do I work through the logic of the operator stuff in the struct to understand what is actually calculated and held there? I think that it's probably doing recursive calls back into the stucture float magnitude2 (void) { return return r * r + i * i; } probably calls the '*' operator for r and again for i, and then the results of those two operations call the '+' operator? Is this correct and what gets returned at each step? Just plain confused. Thanks!

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  • Inorder tree traversal in binary tree in C

    - by srk
    In the below code, I'am creating a binary tree using insert function and trying to display the inserted elements using inorder function which follows the logic of In-order traversal.When I run it, numbers are getting inserted but when I try the inorder function( input 3), the program continues for next input without displaying anything. I guess there might be a logical error.Please help me clear it. Thanks in advance... #include<stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> int i; typedef struct ll { int data; struct ll *left; struct ll *right; } node; node *root1=NULL; // the root node void insert(node *root,int n) { if(root==NULL) //for the first(root) node { root=(node *)malloc(sizeof(node)); root->data=n; root->right=NULL; root->left=NULL; } else { if(n<(root->data)) { root->left=(node *)malloc(sizeof(node)); insert(root->left,n); } else if(n>(root->data)) { root->right=(node *)malloc(sizeof(node)); insert(root->right,n); } else { root->data=n; } } } void inorder(node *root) { if(root!=NULL) { inorder(root->left); printf("%d ",root->data); inorder(root->right); } } main() { int n,choice=1; while(choice!=0) { printf("Enter choice--- 1 for insert, 3 for inorder and 0 for exit\n"); scanf("%d",&choice); switch(choice) { case 1: printf("Enter number to be inserted\n"); scanf("%d",&n); insert(root1,n); break; case 3: inorder(root1); break; default: break; } } }

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  • Parsing custom time format with SimpleDateFormat

    - by ggrigery
    I'm having trouble parsing a date format that I'm getting back from an API and that I have never seen (I believe is a custom format). An example of a date: /Date(1353447000000+0000)/ When I first encountered this format it didn't take me long to see that it was the time in milliseconds with a time zone offset. I'm having trouble extracting this date using SimpleDateFormat though. Here was my first attempt: String weirdDate = "/Date(1353447000000+0000)/"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat("'/Date('SSSSSSSSSSSSSZ')/'"); Date d1 = sdf.parse(weirdDate); System.out.println(d1.toString()); System.out.println(d1.getTime()); System.out.println(); Date d2 = new Date(Long.parseLong("1353447000000")); System.out.println(d2.toString()); System.out.println(d2.getTime()); And output: Tue Jan 06 22:51:41 EST 1970 532301760 Tue Nov 20 16:30:00 EST 2012 1353447000000 The date (and number of milliseconds parsed) is not even close and I haven't been able to figure out why. After some troubleshooting, I discovered that the way I'm trying to use SDF is clearly flawed. Example: String weirdDate = "1353447000000"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat("S"); Date d1 = sdf.parse(weirdDate); System.out.println(d1.toString()); System.out.println(d1.getTime()); And output: Wed Jan 07 03:51:41 EST 1970 550301760 I can't say I've ever tried to use SDF in this way to just parse a time in milliseconds because I would normally use Long.parseLong() and just pass it straight into new Date(long) (and in fact the solution I have in place right now is just a regular expression and parsing a long). I'm looking for a cleaner solution that I can easily extract this time in milliseconds with the timezone and quickly parse out into a date without the messy manual handling. Anyone have any ideas or that can spot the errors in my logic above? Help is much appreciated.

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  • Design pattern to integrate Rails with a Comet server

    - by empire29
    I have a Ruby on Rails (2.3.5) application and an APE (Ajax Push Engine) server. When records are created within the Rails application, i need to push the new record out on applicable channels to the APE server. Records can be created in the rails app by the traditional path through the controller's create action, or it can be created by several event machines that are constantly monitoring various inputstream and creating records when they see data that meets a certain criteria. It seems to me that the best/right place to put the code that pushes the data out to the APE server (which in turn pushes it out to the clients) is in the Model's after_create hook (since not all record creations will flow through the controller's create action). The final caveat is I want to push a piece of formatted HTML out to the APE server (rather than a JSON representation of the data). The reason I want to do this is 1) I already have logic to produce the desired layout in existing partials 2) I don't want to create a javascript implementation of the partials (javascript that takes a JSON object and creates all the HTML around it for presentation). This would quickly become a maintenance nightmare. The problem with this is it would require "rendering" partials from within the Model (which im having trouble doing anyhow because they don't seem to have access to Helpers when they're rendered in this manner). Anyhow - Just wondering what the right way to go about organizing all of this is. Thanks

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  • Is it possible to filter data used by pivot table based on filtering the rows in a source table in Excel?

    - by Geoffrey Stoel
    I have developed a dashboard in Excel 2007 that uses one source table in a sheet (being filled with a query on our data warehouse) and multiple pivot tables making different cross sections on this data. I use the GETPIVOTDATA in almost a hundred formulas to give me the right value for a specific indicator in my dashboard. This all works fine. However I now have received the question to make the dashboard for 5 different segments. As you can imagine I don't want to create 5 different workbooks for this and need to maintain the dashboard logic on all of them. So my question is the following. Is it possible to automatically (through VBA or any other means) filter the results in my source table which is the source for my pivot tables and thus for my dashboard values. So schematically: DATABASE_VIEW -- SOURCE_TABLE -- 12 pivot tables -- 100 GETPIVOTDATA functions Preferably I would like to load all the segments in the source_table (one view on my database) and then filter the data in the source table, which results in filterd source_dat for my pivots. This way I can (without requerying the db) quickly change between segments in the dashboards (refreshing pivots only). Data in the source table has the column: CUSTOMER_SEGMENT available to filter upon. Any help is appreciated. Geoffrey

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  • JAX-RS --- How to return JSON and HTTP Status code together?

    - by masato-san
    I'm writing REST web app (Netbean6.9, JAX-RS, Toplink-essential) and trying to return JSON and Http status code. I have code ready and working just to return JSON when HTTP GET Method is called from client. Code snippet @Path("get/id") @GET @Produces("application/json") public M_?? getMachineToUpdate(@PathParam("id") String id) { //some code to return JSON . . return myJson But I also want to return HTTP status code (500, 200, 204 etc) along with returning JSON. I tried using HttpServletResponse object, response.sendError("error message", 500); But this made browser to think it's real 500 so output web page was regular Http 500 error page. What I want to is just to return status code so that my Javascript on client side can handle some logic depending on what HTTP status code is returned. (maybe just to display the error code and message on html page.) Is it possible to do so? or should HTTP status code not be used for such thing?

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  • Javascript problem with iframe that's hidden before loaded

    - by Aistina
    I have a page that contains an iframe that gets loaded using Javascript: index.html <iframe id="myFrame" width="800" height="600" style="display: none;"></iframe> <div id="loader"><!-- some loading indicator --></div> <script type="text/javascript"> function someFunction() { var myFrame = document.getElementById('myFrame'); var loader = document.getElementById('loader'); loader.style.display = 'block'; myFrame.src = 'myFrame.html'; myFrame.onload = function() { myFrame.style.display = 'block'; loader.style.display = 'none'; }; } </script> The page that gets loaded in the iframe contains some Javascript logic which calculates the sizes of certain elements for the purposes of adding a JS driven scrollbar (jScrollPane + jQuery Dimensions). myFrame.html <div id="scrollingElement" style="overflow: auto;"> <div id="several"></div> <div id="child"></div> <div id="elements"></div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).load(function() { $('#scrollingElement').jScrollPane(); }); </script> This works in Chrome (and probably other Webkit browsers), but fails in Firefox and IE because at the time jScrollPane gets called, all the elements are still invisble and jQuery Dimensions is unable to determine any element's dimensions. Is there a way to make sure my iframe is visible before $(document).ready(...) gets called? Other than using setTimeout to delay jScrollPane, which is something I definitely want to avoid.

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  • Database schema for Product Properties

    - by Chemosh
    As so many people I'm looking for a Products /Product Properties database schema. I'm using Ruby on Rails and (Thinking) Sphinx for faceted searches. Requirements: Adding new product types and their options should not require a change to the database schema Support faceted searches using Sphinx. Solutions I've come across: (See Bill Karwin's answer) Option 1: Single Table Inheritance Not an option really. The table would contain way to many columns. Option 2: Class Table Inheritance Ruby on Rails caches the database schema on start-up which means a restart whenever a new type of product is introduced. If you have a size able product catalog this could mean hundreds of tables. Option 3: Serialized LOB Kills being able to do faceted searches without heavy application logic. Option 4: Entity-Attribute-Value For testing purposes, EAV worked fine. However it could quickly become a mess and a maintenance hell as you add more and more options (e.g. when an option increase the prices or delivery time). What option should I go with? What other solutions are out there? Is there a silver bullet (ha) I overlooked?

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  • Rails: Multiple "types" of one model through related models?

    - by neezer
    I have a User model in my app, which I would like to store basic user information, such as email address, first and last name, phone number, etc. I also have many different types of users in my system, including sales agents, clients, guests, etc. I would like to be able to use the same User model as a base for all the others, so that I don't have to include all the fields for all the related roles in one model, and can delegate as necessary (cutting down on duplicate database fields as well as providing easy mobility from changing one user of one type to another). So, what I'd like is this: User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "client", so ---- client field 1 ---- client field 2 ---- client field 3 User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "sales agent", so ---- sales agent field 1 ---- sales agent field 2 ---- sales agent field 3 and so on... In addition, when a new user signs up, I want that new user to automatically be assigned the role of "client" (I'm talking about database fields here, not authorization, though I hope to eventually include this logic in my user authorization as well). I have a multi-step signup wizard I'm trying to build with wizardly. The first step is easy, since I'm simply calling the fields included in the base User model (such as first_name and email), but the second step is trickier since it should be calling in fields from the associated model (like--per my example above--the model client with fields client_field_1 or client_field_2, as if those fields were part of User). Does that make sense? Let me know if that wasn't clear at all, and I'll try to explain it in a different way. Can anyone help me with this? How would I do this?

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  • Magento: Attribute always returns default value in catalog view, works fine in product view

    - by colinodell
    I've created a new Yes/No attribute for products. I've extended the Product model to do some custom logic and the custom functions are working everywhere. When I initially tried getting the custom attribute value, I ran into some issue. Magento wasn't loading it for me, so calls to $product-getMyAttributeName() did nothing. In the product views, I got it working with this additional function: public function getAttrVal($attr_name) { return $this->getResource()->getAttribute($attr_name)->getFrontend()->getValue($this); } So that worked great when viewing a product on the frontend. It would fetch the assigned value if set, or the default if not. When I view any Category (grid of all products in that category), the same exact code is being executed. But my getAttrVal() function always returns the default value, even if I've explicitly set this value for my product. I can't, for the life of me, figure out why the attribute loads correctly in the Product view but the Category view always grabs the default value, despite running the same exact code. Any thoughts?

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  • Structuring the UI code of a single-page EXTjs Web app using Rails?

    - by Daniel Beardsley
    I’m in the process of creating a large single-page web-app using ext-js for the UI components with Rails on the backend. I’ve come to good solutions for transferring data using Whorm gem and Rails support of RESTful Resources. What I haven’t come to a conclusion on is how to structure the UI and business logic aspects of the application. I’ve had a look at a few options, including Netzke but haven’t seen anything that I really think fits my needs. How should a web-application that uses ext-js components, layouts, and controls in the browser and Rails on the server best implement UI component re-use, good organization, and maintainability while maintaining a flexible layout design. Specifically I’m looking for best-practice suggestions for structuring the code that creates and configures UI components (many UI config options will be based on user data) Should EXT classes be extended in static JS for often re-used customizations and then instantiated with various configuration options by generated JS within html partials? Should partials create javascript blocks that instantiate EXT components? Should partials call helpers that return ruby hashes for EXT component config which is then dumped to Json? Something else entirely? There are many options and I'd love to hear from people who've been down this road and found some methodology that worked for them.

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  • How to know which image is being viewed in UIScrollView? Also, is it possible to loop scrolling for

    - by bruin
    This is what I'm trying to do, and I'm not sure if it's possible using UIScrollView. First, I don't care about zooming, all I care is that the user is able to scroll through images just like the Photo App, this I got. But how do I know which image he is viewing while using UIScrollView? For instance, if he stops on the 3rd image out of 10 images in the view, how do I know he's on that image? I can't find a way to access the index (is this accessible)?? Also, bonus question, once the user scrolls to the last image, I don't want the scrolling to stop but I want it to loop so that image 1 comes after image 10. And vice versa, if you scroll left passed image 1, you'll see image 10. I'm not asking for the logic, I can do this in an array very simply, I just don't know how to access (if it's even possible) the indexing of the images in the scroll view. If it's not, does anyone have a solution to do this? thanks in advance!

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  • Cant display button on specific rows of UITableView properly for iPhone

    - by varunwg
    Hi, I am trying to have a button for selected rows of my table. Here is the example code I am using: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *ControlRowIdentifier = @"ControlRowIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:ControlRowIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:ControlRowIdentifier] autorelease]; } if ([indexPath row] > 5) { UIImage *buttonUpImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"button_up.png"]; UIImage *buttonDownImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"button_down.png"]; UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, buttonUpImage.size.width, buttonUpImage.size.height); [button setBackgroundImage:buttonUpImage forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button setBackgroundImage:buttonDownImage forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [button setTitle:@"Tap" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonTapped:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; cell.accessoryView = button; } NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; NSString *rowTitle = [list objectAtIndex:row]; cell.textLabel.text = rowTitle; return cell; } This code works absolutely fine when loaded for 1st time. So, as per the logic it shows 'Tap' button for all rows greater than 5. Problem occurs when I scroll up and down. Once I do that it just starts putting that button at any random row. I dont understand why it does that and it'll be really helpful if someone can give some tips on this. Thanks.

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  • jQuery: Main nav items selected depending on URL or page name

    - by Ricardo
    Ok, I've looked all over for a solution for this but so far I'm unable to find anything related to what I need to accomplish. What I need is very simple as far as logic goes. I have a nav bar like this one: <nav> <ul> <li><a href="download.shtml">Download</a></li> <li><a href="documentation.shtml">Documentation</a></li> <li><a href="contact.shtml">Contact</a></li> <li><a href="about.shtml">About</a></li> </ul> </nav> And the URLs of the site are straightforward: http://domain.net/download.shtml http://domain.net/documentation.shtml http://domain.net/contact.shtml http://domain.net/about.shtml Question: How can I detect which page/URL I'm on and add a class of .active to the corresponding nav item? The end result would be, for example if I'm in the Download page: <nav> <ul> <li><a href="download.shtml" class="active">Download</a></li> <li><a href="documentation.shtml">Documentation</a></li> <li><a href="contact.shtml">Contact</a></li> <li><a href="about.shtml">About</a></li> </ul> </nav> Thanks in advance for any help on this matter.

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  • ajaxStart() showing loading message doesn't seem to work....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I user jquery.ajax call to controller of asp.net mvc... I would like to show a loading indicator.. I tried this but that doesn't seem to work... <div class="loading" style="padding-left:5px; margin-bottom:5px;display:none;"> Loading...&nbsp </div> and my jquery ajax call looks like this, function getMaterials(currentPage) { $.ajax({ url: "Materials/GetMaterials", data: {'currentPage': (currentPage + 1) ,'pageSize':5}, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", global: false, async: false, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { var divs = ''; $("#ResultsDiv").empty(); $.each(data.Results, function() { //my logic here.... $(".loading").bind("ajaxStart", function() { $(this).show(); }).bind("ajaxStop", function() { $(this).hide(); }); } }); return false; } My loading indicator doen't seem to showup.. ANy suggestion....

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  • Modifying File while in use using Java

    - by Marquinio
    Hi all, I have this recurrent Java JAR program tasks that tries to modify a file every 60seconds. Problem is that if user is viewing the file than Java program will not be able to modify the file. I get the typical IOException. Anyone knows if there is a way in Java to modify a file currently in use? Or anyone knows what would be the best way to solve this problem? I was thinking of using the File canRead(), canWrite() methods to check if file is in use. If file is in use then I'm thinking of making a backup copy of data that could not be written. Then after 60 seconds add some logic to check if backup file is empty or not. If backup file is not empty then add its contents to main file. If empty then just add new data to main file. Of course, the first thing I will always do is check if file is in use. Thanks for all your ideas.

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  • Using JMX classes to notify on events over time

    - by Cincinnati Joe
    I've been looking at JMX for monitoring application and system metrics (partially because MBeans can accessed by various tools such as JConsole). It would seem like the classes included with JMX would be useful for things like notification when metrics have exceeded thresholds. But I'm not sure they fit with the way I want to measure these over a specified time period. For example, let's say I want to notify an admin when the average CPU load is over 95% for more than 5 minutes. Is that something can be done with a GaugeMonitor? From the docs, it doesn't seem quite suited for this, and I'm wondering if instead I should write my own MBean with the necessary logic. A more relevant example is when the login times for users exceed 10s over a period of 5 mins. Slightly different would be the last 20 logins took more than 10s on average. Another case would be when a process crashes 4+ times in an hour. Or the request queue exceeds 15 for 5 mins. Are the JMX Monitor classes useful for this kind of thing?

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  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

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