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• Access SSAS cube from across domains without direct database connection

  - by SuperKing

  Hello, I'm working with SQL Server Analysis Services for the first time and have the dilemma of working on a project in which users must be able to access SSAS Cubes (via a custom web dashboard) that live across different servers and domains, but without having access to the other server's SSAS database connection strings. So Organization A and Organization B will have their own cubes on their own servers, but Organization A users must be able to view Organization B's cubes, and Organization B users must be able to view Organization A's cubes, but neither organization should have access to the connection string. I've read about allowing HTTP access to the SSAS server and cube from the link below, but that requires setting up users for authentication or allowing anonymous access to one organization's server for users of another organization, and I'm not sure this would be acceptable for this situation, or if this is the preferred way to do this. Is performance acceptable here? http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc917711.aspx I also wonder if perhaps it makes sense to run a nightly/weekly process that accesses the other organization's SSAS database via a web service or something, and pull that data into a database on the organization's server, and then rebuild the cube. Then that cube would be queried without having to go and connect to the other organization server when viewing the cube. Has anyone else attempted to accomplish something similar? Is HTTP access the standard way to go for this? Or any other possible options? Thanks, and please let me know if you need more info, still unclear on how some of this works.

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• Render label for a field inside ASP.NET MVC 2 editor templates

  - by artvolk

  I'm starting to use DataAnnotations in ASP.NET MVC and strongly typed template helpers. Now I have this in my views (Snippet is my custom type, Created is DateTime): <tr> <td><%= Html.LabelFor(f => Model.Snippet.Created) %>:</td> <td><%= Html.EditorFor(f => Model.Snippet.Created)%></td> </tr> The editor template for DateTime is like this: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<System.DateTime>" %> <%=Html.TextBox("", Model.ToString("g"))%> But now I want to put inside editor template the whole <tr>, so I'd like to have just this in my view: <%= Html.EditorFor(f => Model.Snippet.Created)%> And something like this in editor template, but I don't know how to render for for label attribute, it should be Snippet_Created for my example, the same as id\name for textbox, so pseudo code: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<System.DateTime>" %> <tr> <td><label for="<What to place here???>"><%=ViewData.ModelMetadata.DisplayName %></label></td> <td><%=Html.TextBox("", Model.ToString("g"))%></td> </tr> The Html.TextBox() have the first parameter empty and id\name for textbox is generated corectly. Thanks in advance!

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• MySQL get list of unique items in a SET

  - by The Disintegrator

  I have a products table with a column of type SET (called especialidad), with these possible values. [0] => NADA [1] => Freestyle / BMX [2] => Street / Dirt [3] => XC / Rural Bike [4] => All Mountain [5] => Freeride / Downhill / Dual / 4x [6] => Ruta / Triathlon / Pista [7] => Comfort / City / Paseo [8] => Kids [9] => Playera / Chopper / Custom [10] => MTB recreacion [11] => Spinning / Fitness Any given product can have one or many of these i/e "Freestyle / BMX,Street / Dirt" Given a subset of the rows, I need to get a list of all the present "especialidad" values. But I need a list to be exploded and unique Article1: "Freestyle / BMX,Street / Dirt" Article2: "Street / Dirt,Kids" Article2: "Kids" Article4: "Street / Dirt,All Mountain" Article5: "Street / Dirt" I need a list like this Freestyle / BMX Street / Dirt" Kids" All Mountain" I tried with group_concat(UNIQUE) but I get a list of the permutations...

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• Different location of assemblies stoped the type casting.

  - by smwikipedia

  I am writing a custom Control class in C# for my main project. There're 2 projects, one for my Control and one for my main project. These 2 projects are in the same solution. I add a reference from my main project to my Control project. I notice that the first time after I drag my Control from the Tool Panel onto my main winform, an assembly folder was generated at the C:\Users\XXX\AppData\Local\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\ProjectAssemblies, and the folder name is something like "jlebh-py01". The first build is always OK, but after I rebuild my Control class or whole solution, a new assembly folder will be generated at C:\Users\XXX\AppData\Local\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\ProjectAssemblies, and then problem arises, my Control fails to behave well because Visual Studio says that the two types "originates from different location". The error message is as below: [A]MyControl.TypeXXX cannot be cast to [B]MyControl.TypeXXX. Type A orginates from assemblyXXX at location 'C:\Users\XXX\AppData\Local\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\ProjectAssemblies\jlebh-py01\MyControl.dll' Type B originats from assemblyXXX at location 'C:\Users\XXX\AppData\Local\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\ProjectAssemblies\ue4i-z3j01\MyControl.dll' If I reference the Control DLL directly instead of through project reference, or never rebuild the Control project after use my Control in the main project, things seem to be OK. Does anyone knows why? Is it the proper way to develop a control and a main project within the same solution? Many thanks...

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• When and how should independent hierarchies be used in clojure?

  - by Rob Lachlan

  Clojure's system for creating an ad hoc hierarchy of keywords is familiar to most people who have spent a bit of time with the language. For example, most demos and presentations of the language include examples such as (derive ::child ::parent) and they go on to show how this can be used for multi-method dispatch. In all of the slides and presentations that I've seen, they use the global hierarchy. But it is possible to put keyword relationships in independent hierarchies, by using (derive h ::child ::parent), where h is created by (make-hierarchy). Some questions, therefore: Are there any guidelines on when this is useful or necessary? Are there any functions for manipulating hierarchies? Merging is particularly useful, so I do this: (defn merge-h [& hierarchies] (apply merge-with (cons #(merge-with clojure.set/union %1 %2) hierarchies)) But I was wondering if such functions already exist somewhere. EDIT: Changed "custom" hierarchy to "independent" hierarchy, since that term better describes this animal. Also, I've done some research and included my own answer below. Further comments are welcome.

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• Clearing canvas with Canvas.drawColor()

  - by strangeInAStrangerLand

  I'm attempting to change the background image of a custom View with some success. The image will change but the problem is that I still see traces of the old image. When I attempt to clear the canvas before drawing the new image, it doesn't appear to work. I create a bitmap to store the image. When changing the image, I call Canvas.drawColor() before drawing the new image but the old image persists. I've tried drawColor(0), drawColor(Color.BLACK), c.drawColor(0, PorterDuff.Mode.CLEAR), and none of the above works. As such, I had to post this for review from more experienced minds than mine. The actual code is as follows: private int bgnd; private boolean switching; public void setBgnd(int incoming){ switching = true; switch (incoming){ case R.drawable.image1: bgnd = incoming; this.invalidate(); break; case R.drawable.image2: bgnd = incoming; this.invalidate(); break; } } protected void onDraw(Canvas c){ if(switching == true){ Bitmap b = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), bgnd); c.drawColor(0, PorterDuff.Mode.CLEAR); c.drawBitmap(b, 0, 0, null); switching = false; }else{ Bitmap b = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), bgnd); c.drawBitmap(b, 0, 0, null); } }

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• WCF Security in a Windows Service

  - by Alphonso

  I have a WCF service which can run as Console App and a Windows Service. I have recently copied the console app up to a W2K3 server with the following security settings: <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="ServiceBinding_Security" transactionFlow="true" > <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential" > <message clientCredentialType="UserName" /> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="Custom" customUserNamePasswordValidatorType="Common.CustomUserNameValidator, Common" /> </serviceCredentials> Security works fine with no problems. I have exactly the same code, but running in a windows service and I get the following error when I try to call any of the methods from a client: System.ServiceModel.Security.MessageSecurityException was unhandled Message="An unsecured or incorrectly secured fault was received from the other party. See the inner FaultException for the fault code and detail." Source="mscorlib" StackTrace: Server stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.SecurityChannelFactory`1.SecurityRequestChannel.ProcessReply(Message reply, SecurityProtocolCorrelationState correlationState, TimeSpan timeout) ...... (lots of stacktrace info - not very useful) InnerException: System.ServiceModel.FaultException Message="An error occurred when verifying security for the message." The exception tells me nothing. I'm assuming that it has something to do with acces to system resources from the Windows Service. I've tried running it under the same account as the console app, but no luck. Does anyone have any ideas?

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• BlazeDS StreamingAMF: How to detect when flex client closes the connection?

  - by Adrian Pirvulescu

  Hello, I have a Flex application that connects to a BlazeDS server using the StreamingAMF channel. On the server-side the logic is handled by a custom adapter that extends ActionScriptAdapter and implements FlexSessionListener and FlexClientListener interfaces. I am asking how can I detect which "flex-client" has closed a connection when for example the user is closing the browser? (so I can clean some infos inside the database) I tried using the following: 1. To manually manage the command messages: @Override public Object manage(final CommandMessage commandMessage) { switch (commandMessage.getOperation()) { case CommandMessage.SUBSCRIBE_OPERATION: System.out.println("SUBSCRIBE_OPERATION = " + commandMessage.getHeaders()); break; case CommandMessage.UNSUBSCRIBE_OPERATION: System.out.println("UNSUBSCRIBE_OPERATION = " + commandMessage.getHeaders()); break; } return super.manage(commandMessage); } But the clientID's are always different from the ones that came. 2. Listening for sessionDestroyed and clientDestroyed events @Override public void clientCreated(final FlexClient client) { client.addClientDestroyedListener(this); System.out.println("clientCreated = " + client.getId()); } @Override public void clientDestroyed(final FlexClient client) { System.out.println("clientDestroyed = " + client.getId()); } @Override public void sessionCreated(final FlexSession session) { System.out.println("sessionCreated = " + session.getId()); session.addSessionDestroyedListener(this); } @Override public void sessionDestroyed(final FlexSession session) { System.out.println("sessionDestroyed = " + session.getId()); } But those sessionDestroyed and clientDestroyed methods are never called. :(

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• What is the best way to do testing database (MYSQL spesific)

  - by justjoe

  Right now i'm on testing something in a database. It's a wordpress database. i have to write and delete and do other operation on it. As you know it, it has indexing mechanism that will always make every new post inherit the next highest possible ID. Please consider that this database is a copying of used database. it has been written before. So, i will need to make sure when i finish my testing, it will be the same Right now, my only solution is making backup. So if i have end in some section of planned testing, i will backup it and start next testing on another copy of it. Fortunately, the size of database is only a small one. so delete and copy and backup it will be easy. but i know this way of database testing is only partial solution.It force me to create too many backup copy. I don't know what i will do if the database has bigger size. it will be a very long of testing nightmare. so i wonder is there any solution that work just like rollback. So it will just lock the database and just put new entry as some kind of cache. I can erase it or write it into the database. i use mysql and phpmyadmin and use it to developed some custom solution. EDIT ::: How to effectively doing testing on database when developing PHP solution ?

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• ASP.NET dynamically reassign controls in the control tree

  - by pbz

  Let's say I have a custom control that looks like this <cc:MyControl runat="server" ID="myc" LinkControlID="NewParent" /> and, on the same page: <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="NewParent" /> What I would like to do is, from MyControl, change NewParent's parent so that it would be part of MyControl's Controls collection. When I try to do this, from OnInit, I get: The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases. Which makes sense, but is there a way around this? I'm OK if NewParent remains the child of the Page as long as from MyControl I can somehow redirect the rendering to MyControl's control. Can this be done? Thanks. EDIT: To clarify here's a mockup of MyControl: public class MyControl : Panel { protected override void OnInit(System.EventArgs e) { base.OnInit(e); if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(LinkControlID)) { Control link = Parent.FindControl(LinkControlID); if (link != null) { Controls.Add(link); } } } public string LinkControlID { get; set; } } This assumes that MyControl and LinkControlID are placed on the same level in the tree hierarchy, which is OK in my case.

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• Converting a PHP associative array to a JSON associative array

  - by Extrakun

  I am converting a look-up table in PHP which looks like this to JavaScript using json_encode: AbilitiesLookup Object ( [abilities:private] => Array ( [1] => Ability_MeleeAttack Object ( [abilityid:protected] => [range:protected] => 1 [name:protected] => MeleeAttack [ability_identifier:protected] => MeleeAttack [aoe_row:protected] => 1 [aoe_col:protected] => 1 [aoe_shape:protected] => [cooldown:protected] => 0 [focusCost:protected] => 0 [possibleFactions:protected] => 2 [abilityDesc:protected] => Basic Attack ) .....snipped... And in JSON, it is: {"1":{"name":"MeleeAttack","fof":"2","range":"1","aoe":[null,"1","1"],"fp":"0","image":"dummy.jpg"},.... The problem is I get a JS object, not an array, and the identifier is a number. I see 2 ways around this problem - either find a way to access the JSON using a number (which I do not know how) or make it such that json_encode (or some other custom encoding functions) can give a JavaScript associative array. (Yes, I am rather lacking in my JavaScript department). Note: The JSON output doesn't match the array - this is because I do a manual json encoding for each element in the subscript, before pushing it onto an array (with the index as the key), then using json_encode on it. To be clear, the number are not sequential because it's an associative array (which is why the JSON output is not an array).

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• Determine whether a canvas has been inserted into each page

  - by Hadi Teo

  Hi, Currently i have a code which will print OMR Mark on each pages. Basically i insert a canvas into each page and subsequently an OMR Mark Line Series are inserted into the canvas. Recently i found an issue that somehow one of the canvas is placed out of a page and it appears at the previous page instead of the current page. Below is the code snippet in how i inserted canvas as well as OMR Marks into each page: ' Start Code Snippet Sub GenerateOMR() Dim ShpCanvas As Shape Dim MaxPages As Integer Dim PNo As Integer ClearOMR MaxPages = Selection.Information(wdNumberOfPagesInDocument) For PNo = 1 To MaxPages Selection.GoTo What:=wdGoToPage, Which:=wdGoToFirst, Count:=PNo, Name:="" Select Case PNo Case 1 Set ShpCanvas = ActiveDocument.Shapes.AddCanvas(0, 0.5, 600, 300) Case Else Set ShpCanvas = ActiveDocument.Shapes.AddCanvas(0, 0, 600, 300) End Select ' Add a canvas on each page With ShpCanvas .Name = "OMR_Canvas_" & CStr(PNo) .RelativeHorizontalPosition = wdRelativeHorizontalPositionPage .RelativeVerticalPosition = wdRelativeVerticalPositionPage End With ' Insert a white background rectange and remove the rectangle border line With ShpCanvas.CanvasItems.AddShape(msoShapeRectangle, 536, 0, 64, 300) .Name = "OMR_WhiteBackground_" & CStr(PNo) .Fill.ForeColor.RGB = RGB(255, 255, 255) .Line.ForeColor.RGB = RGB(255, 255, 255) End With PrintOMRPage ShpCanvas, PNo Next PNo End Sub ' End Code Snippet There is a custom method called PrintOMRPage method which is not relevant here. My question now, how do i know whether a canvas has been inserted into a page ? Basically i will loop in all the pages and check whether a canvas has been inserted into that page. Apparently i cannot find the correct way. I have tried to check using ActiveDocument.Shapes(1).Top and validate whether the Top position is a negative value. But apparently the Top position is always measured from the top of each page. Thanks for the help. hadi teo

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• Mirth is Not Picking Up Updated JAR File?

  - by ashes999

  I have some Mirth code (javascript) that's consuming one of my Java classes (let's call it SimpleClass). It seems that Mirth is not picking up my changes to my class. SimpleClass used to look something like this: public class Simpleclass { public SimpleClass(String one) { // do something with one } } Now it looks like: public class Simpleclass { public SimpleClass(String one, String two) { // store one and two } public void Execute() { // do something with one and two } } When I try and call SimpleClass with two strings, I get the error "Java constructor for SimpleClass with arguments string, string not found." When I try to run Execute, I get an error similar to "TypeError: method Execute not found." Perplexingly, I can still call SimpleClass("one string") to call the one-string constructor (which is now nowhere to be seen in the code). To get my code to work, I build a JAR file using ant, and deploy it to \\lib\custom. I have tried: Copying the new JAR and restarting Mirth while it's live Copying the new JAR after stopping Mirth, then starting Mirth Looking for other copies of my JAR or Mirth installations (there are none) Unzipping and reverse-engineering the JAR (it has the two-constructor code) Hashing the JAR (it matches what I'm building in ant) Restarting my computer (hey, you never know) I'm at a loss. I'm not sure why I'm not seeing the latest code. My channel has very simple Javascript: var sp = new Packages.com.hs.channel.scarborough.ScarboroughParser("one", "two"); I know it's not a configuration error of any kind, since this used to work (and does still work, albeit with the old code -- single-parameter constructor).

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• Dynamic Google Maps API InfoWindow HTML Content

  - by Peter Hanneman

  I am working in Flash Builder 4 with Google Map's ActionScript API. I have created a map, loaded some custom markers onto it and added some MouseEvent listeners to each marker. The trouble comes when I load an InfoWindow panel. I want to dynamically set the htmlContent based off of information stored in a database. The trouble is that this information can change every couple of seconds and each marker has a unique data set so I can not statically set it at the time I actually create the markers. I have a method that will every minute or so load all of the records from my database into an Object variable. Everything I need to display in the htmlContent is contained in this object under a unique identifier. The basic crux of the problem is that there is no way for me to uniquely identify an info window, so I can not determine what information to pull into the panel. marker.addEventListener(MapMouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, function(e:MapMouseEvent):void { showInfoWindow(e.latLng) }, false, 0, false); That is my mouse event listener. The function I call, "showInfowindow" looks like this: private function showInfoWindow(latlng:LatLng):void { var options:InfoWindowOptions = new InfoWindowOptions({title: appData[*I NEED A UNIQUE ID HERE!!!*].type + " Summary", contentHTML: appData[*I NEED A UNIQUE ID HERE!!!*].info}); this.map.openInfoWindow(latlng, options); } I thought I was onto something by being able to pass a variable in my event listener declaration, but it simply hates having a dynamic variable passed through, it only returns the last value use. Example: marker.addEventListener(MapMouseEvent.ROLL_OVER, function(e:MapMouseEvent):void { showInfoWindow(e.latLng, record.unit_id) }, false, 0, false); That solution is painfully close to working. I iterate through a loop to create my markers when I try the above solution and roll over a marker I get information, but every marker's information reflects whatever information the last marker created had. I apologize for the long explaination but I just wanted to make my question as clear as possible. Does anyone have any ideas about how to patch up my almost-there-solution that I posted at the bottom or any from the ground up solutions? Thanks in advance, Peter Hanneman

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• Java: Handling cookies when logging in with POST

  - by Cris Carter

  I'm having quite some trouble logging in to any site in Java. I'm using the default URLconnection POST request, but I'm unsure how to handle the cookies properly. I tried this guide: http://www.hccp.org/java-net-cookie-how-to.html But couldn't get it working. I've been trying basically for days now, and I really need help if anyone wants to help me. I'll probably be told that it's messy and that I should use a custom library meant for this stuff. I tried downloading one, but wasn't sure how to get it set up and working. I've been trying various things for hours now, and it just won't work. I'd rather do this with a standard URLconnection, but if anyone can help me get another library working that's better for this, that would be great, too. I would really appreciate if someone could post a working source that I could study. What I need is: POST login data to site - Get and store the cookie from the site - use cookie with next URLconnection requests to get logged-in version of the site. Can anyone help me with this? Would be EXTREMELY appreciated. It really does mean a lot. If anyone wants to actually help me out live, please leave an instant-messenger address. Thank you a lot for your time.

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• Configure IIS7 to server static content through ASP.NET Runtime

  - by Anton Gogolev

  I searched high an low and still cannot find a definite answer. How do I configure IIS 7.0 or a Web Application in IIS so that ASP.NET Runtime will handle all requests -- including ones to static files like *.js, *.gif, etc? What I'm trying to do is as follows. We have kind of SaaSy site, which we can "skin" for every customer. "Skinnig" means developing a custom master page and using a bunch of *.css and other images. Quite naturally, I'm using VirtualPathProvider, which operates like this: public override System.Web.Hosting.VirtualFile GetFile(string virtualPath) { if(PhysicalFileExists(virtualPath)) { var virtualFile = base.GetFile(virtualPath); return virtualFile; } if(VirtualFileExists(virtualPath)) { var brandedVirtualPath = GetBrandedVirtualPath(virtualPath); var absolutePath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(brandedVirtualPath); Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("Serving '{0}' from '{1}'", brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath), "BrandingAwareVirtualPathProvider"); var virtualFile = new VirtualFile(brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath); return virtualFile; } return null; } The basic idea is as follows: we have a branding folder inside our webapp, which in turn contains folders for each "brand", with "brand" being equal to host name. That is, requests to http://foo.example.com/ should use static files from branding/foo_example_com, whereas http://bar.example.com/ should use content from branding/bar_example_com. Now what I want IIS to do is to forward all requests to static files to StaticFileHandler, which would then use this whole "infrastructure" and serve correct files. However, try as I might, I cannot configure IIS to do this.

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• Which parts of Sharepoint do I need to understand to build a publicly facing website?

  - by Petras

  I am building a publicly facing website that does the following. Users log in. And then view a list of their customers. They click on a customer to view their past purchases, order them, change them etc. This is not a shopping site by the way. It is a simple look up tool. Note that none of the data accessed by the website is in anything other than a SQL database - no office documents. Also, the login does not use users Windows credentials on a VPN or something like that. Typically I would build this using a standard ASP.NET MVC website. However the client says they want to use Sharepoint. As I understand it, Sharepoint is used for workflow and websites that are collaboration tools such as the components you can see here http://www.sharepointhosting.com/sharepoint-features.html Here are my questions: Would I be right in saying that WSS is completely inappropriate for this task as it comes with an overhead that provides no benefits? If I had to use it, would I need WSS or MOSS? If I had to use it, would I be right in saying the site would consist of : List item a) Web Parts b) And a custom site layout. How do I create one of these?

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• jQuery performance

  - by jAndy

  Hi Folks, imagine you have to do DOM manipulation like a lot (in my case, it's kind of a dynamic list). Look at this example: var $buffer = $('<ul/>', { 'class': '.custom-example', 'css': { 'position': 'absolute', 'top': '500px' } }); $.each(pages[pindex], function(i, v){ $buffer.append(v); }); $buffer.insertAfter($root); "pages" is an array which holds LI elements as jQuery object. "$root" is an UL element What happens after this code is, both UL's are animated (scrolling) and finally, within the callback of animate this code is executed: $root.detach(); $root = $buffer; $root.css('top', '0px'); $buffer = null; This works very well, the only thing I'm pi**ed off is the performance. I do cache all DOM elements I'm laying a hand on. Without looking too deep into jQuery's source code, is there a chance that my performance issues are located there? Does jQuery use DocumentFragments to append things? If you create a new DOM element with var new = $('<div/>') it is only stored in memory at this point isnt it?

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• Django1.1 model field value preprocessing before returning

  - by Satoru.Logic

  Hi, all. I have a model class like this: class Note(models.Model): author = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name='notes') content = NoteContentField(max_length=256) NoteContentField is a custom sub-class of CharField that override the to_python method in purpose of doing some twitter-text-conversion processing. class NoteContentField(models.CharField): __metaclass__ = models.SubfieldBase def to_python(self, value): value = super(NoteContentField, self).to_python(value) from ..utils import linkify return mark_safe(linkify(value)) However, this doesn't work. When I save a Note object like this: note = Note(author=request.use, content=form.cleaned_data['content']) note.save() The conversed value is saved into the database, which is not what I wanna see. What I'm trying to do is to save the raw content into the database, and only make the conversion when the content attribute is later accessed. Would you please tell me what's wrong with this? Thanks to Pierre and Daniel. I have figured out what's wrong. I thought the text-conversion code should be in either to_python or get_db_prep_value, and that's wrong. I should override both of them, make to_python do the conversion and get_db_prep_value return the unconversed value: from ..utils import linkify class NoteContentField(models.CharField): __metaclass__ = models.SubfieldBase def to_python(self, value): self._raw_value = super(NoteContentField, self).to_python(value) return mark_safe(linkify(self._raw_value)) def get_db_prep_value(self, value): return self._raw_value I wonder if there is a better way to implement this?

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• [ActionScript 3] Array subclasses cannot be deserialized, Error #1034

  - by aaaidan

  I've just found a strange error when deserializing from a ByteArray, where Vectors cannot contain types that extend Array: there is a TypeError when they are deserialized. TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert []@4b8c42e1 to com.myapp.ArraySubclass. at flash.utils::ByteArray/readObject() at com.myapp::MyApplication()[/Users/aaaidan/MyApp/com/myapp/MyApplication.as:99] Here's how: public class Application extends Sprite { public function Application() { // register the custom class registerClassAlias("MyArraySubclass", MyArraySubclass); // write a vector containing an array subclass to a byte array var vec:Vector.<MyArraySubclass> = new Vector.<MyArraySubclass>(); var arraySubclass:MyArraySubclass = new MyArraySubclass(); arraySubclass.customProperty = "foo"; vec.push(arraySubclass); var ba:ByteArray = new ByteArray(); ba.writeObject(arraySubclass); ba.position = 0; // read it back var arraySubclass2:MyArraySubclass = ba.readObject() as MyArraySubclass; // throws TypeError } } public class MyArraySubclass extends Array { public var customProperty:String = "default"; } It's a pretty specific case, but it seems very odd to me. Anyone have any ideas what's causing it, or how it could be fixed?

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• Dashcode code translation

  - by Alex Mcp

  Hi, a quick, probably easy question whose answer is probably "best practice" I'm following a tutorial for a custom-template mobile Safari webapp, and to change views around this code is used: function btnSave_ClickHandler(event) { var views = document.getElementById('stackLayout'); var front = document.getElementById('mainScreen'); if (views && views.object && front) { views.object.setCurrentView(front, true); } } My question is just about the if conditional statement. What is this triplet saying, and why do each of those things need to be verified before the view can be changed? Does views.object just test to see if the views variable responds to the object method? Why is this important? EDIT - This is/was the main point of this question, and it regards not Javascript as a language and how if loops work, but rather WHY these 3 things specifically need to be checked: Under what scenarios might views and front not exist? I don't typically write my code so redundantly. If the name of my MySQL table isn't changing, I'll just say UPDATE 'mytable' WHERE... instead of the much more verbose (and in my view, redundant) $mytable = "TheSQLTableName"; if ($mytable == an actual table && $mytable exists && entries can be updated){ UPDATE $mytable; } Whereas if the table's name (or in the JS example, the view's names) ARE NOT "hard coded" but are instead a user input or otherwise mutable, I might right my code as the DashCode example has it. So tell me, can these values "go wrong" anyhow? Thanks!

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• Embedding a CMS in an MVC Web App

  - by Mr Snuffle

  I'm working on a website for searching for businesses, then displaying a listing page. We've been toying with the idea of letting the clients manage their listing page using an external CMS. I'm not sure how often this is done, or if it's even best practice. Ideally, we want to be able to setup a listing on our website, then give the clients access to an external CRM when they can manage their listing page. We then want to embed this custom page within our website, possibly using an iframe (which will come along with it's own set of complications). We'd like this integration to be as seamless as possible. I'd personally prefer it if we could directly inject the HTML into our own page and bypass an iframe all together, but I don't know of any CMS hosting services that provide the interface for such a thing. We've experimented a little with Squarespace, and we can get a fairly clean version of someone's page which would be well suited for an iframe. I'm wondering if anyone else has looked and integrating an external hosting CMS into a website (in this case, we're using ASP.NET MVC). We'd also want to automate the creation of accounts on this external CMS, so when a user signed up we could just point them to the website with some login details. I have no idea if anyone offers a service like this, but any recommendations would be greatly appreciated. We could host a service ourself too, but the aim is to have an external system that clients can use to manage their pages. Cheers, James

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• Help with MySQL query - Product orders report without duplicate shipping charges

  - by Paul

  Hello, I have an issue creating a custom report for an e-commerce store running on osCommerce. The client wants the report to have the following columns: Date, Order ID, Product Class, Product Price, Product Tax, Shipping, Order Total The criteria for generating the report are Date Range and Product Class (Textbooks for example) The client wants the report to list each Textbook purchased on its own line. Orders with multiple textbooks would display a separate line for each Textbook in the order. I have it all working except for one part: the shipping amount is order-specific (based on the order total), not product-specific, and is displaying for each product. I need it to display only for the first product of each order, so it is not counted more than once. My current query is: SELECT op.date_funds_captured as 'Date', op.orders_id as 'Order ID', pc.class as 'Product Class', round(op.products_price,2) as 'Product Price', round(op.products_tax*op.products_price/100,2) as 'Product Tax', round(otship.value,2) as 'Shipping', round(ot.value,2) as 'Order Total' from orders_products op, orders_total ot, orders_total otship, productclasses pc, products p where ot.orders_id = op.orders_id and ot.class='ot_total' and op.orders_id = otship.orders_id and otship.class = 'ot_shipping' and p.products_class_id = pc.id and op.products_id = p.products_id and pc.id = 1 pc.id = 1 -- Product class = Textbook Here is an example of the current report output. You can see the problem with order 2256 showing the shipping value three times instead of once: Date Order Product Class Price Tax Shipping Total 2010-01-04 2253 Textbook 24.95 2.43 10.03 37.41 2010-01-04 2256 Textbook 34.95 0.00 18.09 240.37 2010-01-04 2256 Textbook 55.50 0.00 18.09 240.37 2010-01-04 2256 Textbook 36.95 0.00 18.09 240.37 2010-01-04 2258 Textbook 55.50 5.41 12.17 124.24 Please help!!! Thanks, Paul

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• WordPress Conditional: Only show if current page title is equal to post meta

  - by Wade D Ouellet

  Hey, I am calling a bunch of posts under a certain post type in WordPress which works but I am trying to add a conditional that will check first if those post's custom meta field (labeled "disc") is equal to the current post's title. Here is what I have but this conditional does not seem to work: <?php $pages = get_posts('numberposts=9999&post_type=song&post_status=publish&order=ASC&orderby=date'); $i = 1; foreach( $pages as $page ) { $content = $page->post_title; if( empty($content) ) continue; $content = apply_filters('the_content', $content); ?> <?php if(get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-disc", true)=="the_title()") { ?> <tbody class="vevent"> <?php if ($i%2===0) { ?><tr class="gigpress-row gigpress-alt"> <?php } else { ?><tr class="gigpress-row"><?php } ?> <td><?php echo $page->post_title ?></td> <td><?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-length", true); ?></td> <td><a href="http://itunes.com/<?php echo get_post_meta($page->ID, "p30-itunes-song", true); ?>">BUY</a></td> </tr> <tr class="gigpress-info"> <td colspan="3"><?php echo $page->post_content ?></td> </tr> </tbody> <?php $i++; } } ?> When I simply echo "get_post_meta($page-ID, "p30-disc", true)" or "the_title()" it spits out their proper values, which are equal, so obviously something is just wrong with that conditional. Thanks, Wade

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• RDP through TCP Proxy

  - by johng100

  Hi, First time in Stackoverflow and I'm hoping someone can help me. I'm looking at a proof of concept to pass RDP traffic through a TCP Proxy/tunnel which will pass through firewalls using HTTPS. The problem has to do with deploying images to machines and so it can't be assumed that the .NET framework will be present, so C++ is being used at the deployment end of a connection. The basic system I have at present is a program which listens for client connections on a port then passes any data to a WCF service which stores it as a byte array. A deployment machine (using GSoap and C++) polls the WCF service for messages and if it finds them then passes the data onto the target server process via sockets. I know this sounds horrible, but it works for simple test clients and server passing data to and from simple test client and server programs via this WCF/C++/C# proxy layer. But I have to support traffic from RDP, VNC and possibly others, so I need a transparent proxy to do this and am wondering whether the above approach is worth pursuing. I've read up on SSH tunneling and that seems a possibility. My basic question is is it possible to tunnel RDP traffic over HTTPS using custom code. Thanks John

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