Search Results

Search found 11819 results on 473 pages for 'parameter lists'.

Page 60/473 | < Previous Page | 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67  | Next Page >

  • pointer to preallocated memory as an input parameter and have the function fill it

    - by djones2010
    test code: void modify_it(char * mystuff) { char test[7] = "123456"; //last element is null i presume for c style strings here. //static char test[] = "123123"; //when i do this i thought i should be able to gain access to this bit of memory when the function is destroyed but that does not seem to be the case. //char * test = new char[7]; //this is also creating memory on stack and not the heap i reckon and gets destroyed once the function is done with. strcpy_s(mystuff,7,test); //this does the job as long as memory for mystuff has been allocated outside the function. mystuff = test; //this does not work. I know with c style strings you can't just do string assignments they have to be actually copied. in this case I was using this in conjunction with static char test thinking by having it as static the memory would not get destroyed and i can then simply point mystuff to test and be done with it. i would later have address the memory cleanup in the main function. but anyway this never worked. } int main(void) { char * mystuff = new char [7]; //allocate memory on heap where the pointer will point cool(mystuff); std::string test_case(mystuff); std::cout<<test_case.c_str(); //this is the only way i know how to use cout by making it into a string c++ string. delete [] mystuff; return 0; } in the case, of a static array in the function why would it not work. in the case, when i allocated memory using new in the function does it get created on the stack or heap? in the case, i have string which needs to be copied into a char * form. everything i see usually requires const char* instead of just char*. I know i could use reference to take care of this easy. Or char ** to send in the pointer and do it that way. But i just wanted to know if I could do it with just char *. Anyway your thoughts and comments plus any examples would be very helpful.

    Read the article

  • Generic Func<> as parameter to base method

    - by WestDiscGolf
    I might be losing the plot, but I hope someone can point me in the right direction. What am I trying to do? I'm trying to write some base methods which take Func< and Action so that these methods handle all of the exception handling etc. so its not repeated all over the place but allow the derived classes to specify what actions it wants to execute. So far this is the base class. public abstract class ServiceBase<T> { protected T Settings { get; set; } protected ServiceBase(T setting) { Settings = setting; } public void ExecAction(Action action) { try { action(); } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } public TResult ExecFunc<T1, T2, T3, TResult>(Func<T1, T2, T3, TResult> function) { try { /* what goes here?! */ } catch (Exception exception) { throw new Exception(exception.Message); } } } I want to execute an Action in the following way in the derived class (this seems to work): public void Delete(string application, string key) { ExecAction(() => Settings.Delete(application, key)); } And I want to execute a Func in a similar way in the derived class but for the life of me I can't seem to workout what to put in the base class. I want to be able to call it in the following way (if possible): public object Get(string application, string key, int? expiration) { return ExecFunc(() => Settings.Get(application, key, expiration)); } Am I thinking too crazy or is this possible? Thanks in advance for all the help.

    Read the article

  • Overloading with same parameter signature

    - by Soham
    In C#, is it possible to have same parameters yet override each other(they are different in the return types) public override Stocks[] Search(string Field,string Param){ //some code} public override Stocks Search(string Field, string Param){//some code} C# returns compilation error

    Read the article

  • reload a form with the same parameter of the previous

    - by kawtousse
    Hi every one, I have really a problem that I don't know how to deal with it. I am using JSP and Servlet with the Eclipse IDE. First of all, the user fill an html table with the values that he has selected and written in the form. after that he will find his parameters displayed in the html table. the problem now is : the table contains in each row an edit button when clicking on it; the user should have the form automatically filled with values"previously selected" of the row. so it's how to reload the form with variables from html table. Note : I construct the table with a servlet. Please help.

    Read the article

  • Question about a C macro expansion

    - by holydiver
    I generally have ignored using macros while writing in C but I think I know fundamentals about them. While i was reading the source code of list in linux kernel, i saw something like that: #define LIST_HEAD_INIT(name) { &(name), &(name) } #define LIST_HEAD(name) \ struct list_head name = LIST_HEAD_INIT(name) (You can access the remaining part of the code from here.) I didn't understand the function of ampersands(I don't think they are the address of operands here) in LIST_HEAD_INIT and so the use of LIST_HEAD_INIT in the code. I'd appreciate if someone can enlighten me.

    Read the article

  • How to Pass complex objects in ASP.NET MVC using Get parameters?

    - by VJ
    I am wanting to pass something like the following to my view from my controller via GET not POST: public class MyDTO { public string val1 { get; set; } public string val2 { get; set; } public MyObject obj { get; set; } } public class MyObject { public int SomeInt { get; set; } public string ACoolValue { get; set; } public string YetAnotherCoolValue { get; set; } } And then the controller would like like this. (Note it is a GET): public ActionResult MyView(MyDTO dto) { return View(dto) } The problem is that the instance of MyObject is coming back as null, where val1 and val2 have data. Has anyone run across this?

    Read the article

  • style ul with width to accommodate items

    - by Tallmaris
    Sorry I could not find a similar answer on SO. I have the following markup (generated by jquery ui autocomplete but this is not the issue here) <ul style="z-index: 1; display: block; border: thin solid red; width: 200px;"> <li> <a> <div style="font-size: 0.85em;"> <span style="float: right; padding-left: 10px; color: gray;"> United Kingdom </span> <span style="">text text text text text</span> </div> </a> </li> </ul> As you can see in this fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/fVr8P/2/ the text wraps because the width is limited and the country span is "floating". What I would like would be for the width to enlarge to accommodate the full length, but if I put width: auto; it will expand to 100%. Background The ul is of course coming from jquery ui autocomplete. I am styling the results a bit using the autocomplete.html extension. Problem is that everything is working ok in firefox an chrome because the autocomplete is set to the correct width on creation. in IE this does not happen (width is too small) so the text wraps. I am hping to come to a simple css only solution, without fiddling around in jQuery.

    Read the article

  • CodeContracts: How to fullfill Require in Ctor using this() call?

    - by mafutrct
    I'm playing around with Microsoft's CodeContracts and encountered a problem I was unable to solve. I've got a class with two constructors: public Foo (public float f) { Contracts.Require(f > 0); } public Foo (int i) : this ((float)i) {} The example is simplified. I don't know how to check the second constructor's f for being 0. Is this even possible with Contracts?

    Read the article

  • How to insert an item into a key/value pair object?

    - by Clay
    Ok...here's a softball question... I just need to be able to insert a key/value pair into an object at a specific position. I'm currently working with a Hashtable which, of course, doesn't allow for this functionality. What would be the best approach? UPDATE: Also, I do need the ability to lookup by the key. For example...oversimplified and pseudocoded but should convey the point // existing Hashtable myHashtable.Add("somekey1", "somevalue1"); myHashtable.Add("somekey2", "somevalue2"); myHashtable.Add("somekey3", "somevalue3"); // Some other object that will allow me to insert a new key/value pair. // Assume that this object has been populated with the above key/value pairs. oSomeObject.Insert("newfirstkey","newfirstvalue"); Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Java - How to pass a Generic parameter as Class<T> to a constructor

    - by Joe Almore
    I have a problem here that still cannot solve, the thing is I have this abstract class: public abstract class AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> entityClass; public AbstractBean(Class<T> entityClass) { this.entityClass = entityClass; }... Now I have another class that inherits this abstract: @Stateless @LocalBean public class BasicUserBean<T extends BasicUser> extends AbstractBean<T> { private Class<T> user; public BasicUserBean() { super(user); // Error: cannot reference user before supertype contructor has been called. } My question is how can I make this to work?, I am trying to make the class BasicUserBean inheritable, so if I have class PersonBean which inherits BasicUserBean then I could set in the Generic the entity Person which also inherits the entity BasicUser. And it will end up being: @Stateless @LocalBean public class PersonBean extends BasicUserBean<Person> { public PersonBean() { super(Person.class); } ... I just want to inherit the basic functionality from BasicUserBean to all descendants, so I do not have to repeat the same code among all descendants. Thanks!.

    Read the article

  • When using out parameters in a function, is it good practice to initialize them in the function?

    - by adambox
    I have a function that uses out parameters to return multiple values to the caller. I would like to initialize them in the function, but I wasn't sure if that's a bad idea since you don't know when you call the function that it's going to change the values right away. The caller might assume that after the function returns, if whatever it was doing didn't work, the values would be whatever they were initialized to in the caller. Is it ok / good for me to initialize in the function? Example: public static void SomeFunction(int ixID, out string sSomething) { sSomething = ""; sSomething = something(ixID); if (sSomething = "") { somethingelse(); sSomething = "bar" } }

    Read the article

  • exec sp_executesql error 'Incorrect syntax near 1' when using datetime parameter

    - by anne78
    I have a Ssrs report which sends the following text to the database : EXEC ( 'DECLARE @TeamIds as TeamIdTableType ' + @Teams + ' EXEC rpt.DWTypeOfSicknessByCategoryReport @TeamIds , ' + @DateFrom + ', ' + @DateTo + ', ' + @InputRankGroups + ', ' + @SubCategories ) When I view this in profiler it interprets this as : exec sp_executesql N'EXEC ( ''DECLARE @TeamIds as TeamIdTableType '' + @Teams + '' EXEC rpt.DWTypeOfSicknessByCategoryAndEmployeeDetailsReport @TeamIds, '' + @DateFrom + '', '' + @DateTo + '', '' + @InputRankGroups + '', '' + @SubCategories )',N'@Teams nvarchar(34),@DateFrom datetime,@DateTo datetime,@InputRankGroups varchar(1),@SubCategories bit',@Teams=N'INSERT INTO @TeamIds VALUES (5); ',@DateFrom='2010-02-01 00:00:00',@DateTo='2010-04-30 00:00:00',@InputRankGroups=N'1',@SubCategories=1 When this sql runs it errors, on the dates. I have tried changing the format of the date but it does not help. If I remove the dates it works fine. Any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • jquery integrate form parameter in one object

    - by jesse
    There are many forms in my page. I want to merge them in one object and submit them in one object. But I find serializeArray() or serialize() do not match my request, the serializeArray function will generate a array object and serialize is used by get model, it is not an object. is there a jquery or local function can merge them in one object. I have one solution but it is not perfect, loop the array object generated by serializeArray, use $.extend to merge them in one object. is there a better method? kindly help, thanks.

    Read the article

  • Dictionary as parameter, where the Value-Type is irrelevant

    - by aaginor
    Hi folks, I have a function, that returns the next higher value of a Dictionary-Keys-List compared to a given value. If we have a Key-List of {1, 4, 10, 24} and a given value of 8, the function would return 10. Obviously the type of the Value-Part of the Dictionary doesn't matter for the function, the function-code for a Dictionary<int, int> and Dictionary<int, myClass> would be the same. How has the method-head have to look like, when I want to call the function with any Dictionary, that has int as key-Type and the value-Type is irrelevant? I tried: private int GetClosedKey(Dictionary<int, object> list, int theValue); but it says that there are illegal arguments, when I call it with a Dictionary. I don't want to copy'n'paste the function for each different value-type that my function may be called. Any idea, how to accomplish that? Thanks in advance, Frank

    Read the article

  • PHP: question about passing parameters in URL's

    - by user248959
    Hi, i have this two lines: var_dump($parametros_post_signin); $this->redirect('prueba/aux?email='.$parametros_post_signin['signin']); the first one prints this: array 'signin' => array 'email_address' => string '' (length=0) 'password' => string '' (length=0) the second one takes to another action where i have this code: var_dump($request->getParameter('email')); that prints this: string 'password' (length=8) I expected it to print something like this: string '' (length=0) What should i do to the get value of the 'email_address' field ? Regards Javi

    Read the article

  • SQL UDF Group By Parameter Issue

    - by Ryan Strauss
    I'm having some issues with a group by clause in SQL. I have the following basic function: CREATE FUNCTION dbo.fn_GetWinsYear (@Year int) RETURNS int AS BEGIN declare @W int select @W = count(1) from tblGames where WinLossForfeit = 'W' and datepart(yyyy,Date) = @Year return @W END I'm trying to run the following basic query: select dbo.fn_GetWinsYear(datepart(yyyy,date)) from tblGames group by datepart(yyyy,date) However, I'm encountering the following error message: Column 'tblGames.Date' is invalid in the select list because it is not contained in either an aggregate function or the GROUP BY clause. Any ideas why this is occurring? FYI, I know I can remove the function and combine into one call but I'd like to keep the function in place if possible.

    Read the article

  • Java generics: actual class as a generic parameter.

    - by user554916
    What do I write instead of "TheClass" to make this work? Or is there an alternative way to do it (possibly without making WithName and WithAge generic)? class Item { NeigborList<TheClass> neighbors; } class WithName extends Item { // here I want neighbors to be a NeighborList<WithName> String name; void someMethod() { System.out.println(neighbors.nearestTo(this).name); } } class WithAge extends Item { // here I want neighbors to be a NeighborList<WithAge> int age; void someOtherMethod() { System.out.println(neighbors.nearestTo(this).age); } }

    Read the article

  • C++ vector reference parameter

    - by Archanimus
    Hello folks, let's say we have a class class MyClass { vector<vector<int > > myMatrice; public : MyClass(vector<vector<int > > &); } MyClass::MyClass(vector<vector<int > > & m) { myMatrice = m; } During the instanciation of MyClass, I pass a big vector < vector < int and I find that the object is actually copied and not only the reference, so it takes the double of the memory ... Please, can anyone help me out with this problem, I'm stuck since too many time ... And thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • passing a parameter from an other model on ruby

    - by MAGE
    I'm very newbie in ruby and need your help. I must save a "Topic" and make it like this : @topic = Topic.new(params[:topic]) But I would like to pass an other information to this topic. It has a field "community_id" that link it to a community. The logged user has this information on his table. How can I pass the "community_id" from the logged user to the "community_id" of the "topic" created ? thx for your help

    Read the article

  • Passing data between asp.net pages

    - by user204588
    Hello, I'm wondering the opinion of what is the best way to pass a lot of values between pages. I was thinking of either saving the values to a database, using context.Items[], or Session[]. I'm not sure about what is the best method. I'm passing probably around 40 variables.

    Read the article

  • add parameter to links on page using jquery

    - by Priyo
    How do I add let's say something like ajax=1 to all links on my page with jquery. I will also need to check if the url has existing parameters. for example "http://mysite.com/index.php?pl=132" will have to become "http://mysite.com/index.php?pl=132&ajax=1" Also, if the link does not have any parameters, for example "http://mysite.com/index.php", it will become "http://mysite.com/index.php?ajax=1" I want to load the jquery script on document ready so all links are changed on page load. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67  | Next Page >